Intro To ID Flashcards

1
Q

hallmark symptom of infection

A

fever

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2
Q

fever is what temperature

A

> 38C or 100.4 F

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3
Q

what is normal body temp

A

98-98.6 F

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4
Q

false positive causes of fever

A

drugs
-beta lactams
-sulfonamides
-anticonvulsants

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5
Q

false negative causes of fever

A

administration with antipyretics
(Tylenol, ibuprofen, ASA)
steroids
hypothermia

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6
Q

what drugs do we not give with antibiotics

A

antipyretics scheduled (can mask fever and response)

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7
Q

systemic signs of infection

A

blood pressure (SBP <90)
HR (tachycardia >90)
RR (>20)
increased/decreased WBC count
(>12k or <4k)
fever (>38C or <36C)

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8
Q

systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) warns us for risk of what

A

if 2+ criteria then risk of sepsis

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9
Q

what are the criteria for SIRS

A

HR
RR
fever
inc or dec in WBCs

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10
Q

why might WBCs be elevated

A

infection or non infection (leukemia/steroids)

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11
Q

mature neutrophils do what

A

most common WBC
fight infection
(first responders)

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12
Q

immature neutrophils are called what

A

bands

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13
Q

an increase in bands would indicate what

A

left shift
released by bone marrow
increased in infection

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14
Q

eosinophils are what

A

allergic reactions, parasites
(more specialized defense)

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15
Q

basophils are what

A

hypersensitivity reactions, release histamine
(alarm system)

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16
Q

lymphocytes are what

A

B and T cells

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17
Q

B cells do what

A

blueprint to create antibodies

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18
Q

T cells do what

A

assassins, kill affected cell

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19
Q

what are monocytes

A

macrophages, search for foreign material
(take out the trash)

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20
Q

leukocytosis is an increase in what

A

neutrophils +/- bands

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21
Q

leukocytosis indicates what kind of infection

A

bacterial

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22
Q

leukopenia is what

A

low WBC count, could be sign of overwhelming infection and poor prognosis

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23
Q

what is lymphocytosis

A

increased B and T cells

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24
Q

what kind of infection do we see lymphocytosis

A

viral, fungal, TB

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25
Q

what is an ANC

A

absolute neutrophil count
seggs + bands

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26
Q

what is neutropenia

A

ANC < 500
ANC < 100 is profound

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27
Q

when do we start to worry about opportunistic organisms with ANC decreasing

A

< 1000

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28
Q

what are the acute phase reactants we can use to check for infection?

A

ESR
CRP
procalcitonin

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29
Q

ESR normal values

A

male : 0-15 mm/hr
female: 0-20 mm/hr

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30
Q

CRP normal value

A

< 0.5mg/dL

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31
Q

can we use CRP and ESR to confirm infection

A

NO, non-specific
we use to monitor over time and check trends

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32
Q

procalcitonin normal value

A

< 0.05 mcg/L

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33
Q

procalcitonin used for what

A

more specific bacterial
serial measure every 1-2 days to assess response to therapy and de-escalate

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34
Q

when do we want to sample infected body materials?

A

before initiation of antibiotic therapy

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35
Q

what is contamination

A

introduction of an organism into the clinical specimen during sample collection or process

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36
Q

who do we want to obtain blood cultures in and how

A

all acutely ill febrile patients
1 set on each arm (aerobic and anaerobic)
preferably 1 hr apart

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37
Q

what would happen if organism grew in both aerobic and anaerobic

A

might be a contaminant

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38
Q

colonization vs infection

A

colonization is a potentially pathogenic organism presnet but not invading host andnot iliciting a response so NO symptoms

infection is damaging and eliciting a host response

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39
Q

what is MIC

A

minimum inhibitory concentration
lowest concentration that prevents visibile growth

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40
Q

what is a breakpoint

A

highest possible plasma concentration of drug that is safe

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41
Q

what does suseptible mean

A

MIC is less than the breakpoint, likely efficacious

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42
Q

what does intermediate men

A

MIC approaching the breakpoint, might be effective at higher doses

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43
Q

what does resistant mean

A

MIC greater than breakpoint
can’t achieve safe concentrations

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44
Q

what is non suseptible

A

does not respond to the antibiotic, no MIC

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45
Q

what is suseptible dose dependent

A

have to use higher doses than normal to achieve efficacy

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46
Q

gold standard for MIC testing

A

broth dilution

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47
Q

Kirby Bauer disk testing does what

A

can not show us MIC
measures zone of inhibition and we can see suseptibility

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48
Q

what can we find from gradient test strips

A

MIC
where ellipse intersects
(used with newer agents,expensive)

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49
Q

what is empiric therapy

A

targets the typical pathogens
before we have identification and suseptibility of organism
usually very broad

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50
Q

what is targeted or directed therapy

A

once we have identified the organism and suseptibility is known we switch the therapy

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51
Q

de-escalation

A

going from empiric to targeted
want the narrowest spectrum of activity
can be stepwise or all at once

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52
Q

what is a spectrum of activity

A

what bugs does the drug cover

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53
Q

definition of antibimrobial stewardship

A

interventions defined to improve appropriate use of antibiotics by promoting selection of optimal drug regimen, dosing, duration of therapy, and route of admin

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54
Q

what color is gram positive

A

purple

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55
Q

what color is gram negative

A

pink

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56
Q

characteristics of cell wall gram positive

A

thick cell wall

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57
Q

characteristics of cell wall gram negative

A

thin cell wall

58
Q

how do atypical bacteria stain

A

they dont stain

59
Q

what are acid fast bacilli

A

resistant to acids/ethanol
mycobacterium species

60
Q

what is alpha hemolysis

A

partial hemolysis

61
Q

what is beta hemolysis

A

full hemolysis

62
Q

what is gamma hemolysis

A

no hemolysis

63
Q

most medically important pathogens are what for gram positive

64
Q

which bacteria form clusters

65
Q

which bacteria form pairs/chains

A

strep + entero

66
Q

what does catalase differentiate?

A

clusters from chains/pairs
(staph from strep)

67
Q

what does coagulase differentiate

A

staph aureus from CoNS

68
Q

alpha hemolysis represents which flora

A

oral flora

69
Q

beta hemolysis represents which flora

A

skin, pharynx, genitourinary

70
Q

gamma hemolysis represents which flora

71
Q

what can oxidase test do

A

distinguish enteric vs non

72
Q

what are fastidious organisms

A

slow growers
require special supplemental media

73
Q

gram positive cell wall structure

A

thick cell wall
periplasmic space

74
Q

gram negative cell sructure

A

thin cell wall
lipopolysaccharides
porins

75
Q

what are penicillin binding proteins

A

vital for cell wall synthesis, shape, structure
ex. transpeptidases

76
Q

what do transpeptidases do

A

final cross linking in the peptidoglycan structure

77
Q

what do lipopolysaccharides do

A

mediator of immune response

78
Q

what do porins do

A

hydrophillic channels that permit diffusion of essential nutrients and hydrophillic molecules

79
Q

what does the periplasmic space do

A

bacterial protien secretion, folding

80
Q

where is the periplasmic space

A

gram +: between cell wall and cell membrane
gram - : between cell membrane and outer membrane

81
Q

mechanisms of intrinisc resistnace

A

absence of target site
bacterial cell impermeability

82
Q

mechanisms of acquired resistance

A

mutation in bacteria
acquisition of new DNA

83
Q

what is a plasmid

A

DNA that is transferable between organisms

84
Q

what is a transposon

A

move from plasmid to chromosome

85
Q

what is a phage

A

virus that can transfer DNA from organism to organism

86
Q

what is conjugation

A

trade bracelets
most common
direct contact

87
Q

what is transduction

A

transver of genes between bacteria by phages
(give a bracelet and run away)

88
Q

what is transformation

A

picks up DNA from environment
pick up a bracelet

89
Q

4 mechanisms of antibiotic resistance

A

efflux pumps
decreased porin production
drug inactivating enzyme
modified drug target

90
Q

what are beta lactamases

A

enzyme tht hydrolyze the beta lactam by splitting amide bond and opening the ring

91
Q

types of beta lactamases

A

serine and metallica

92
Q

Ambler class A beta lactamases

A

ESBLs
serine carbapenemases

93
Q

Ambler class B beta lactamase

A

metallo beta lactamase

94
Q

Ambler class C beta lactamase

A

cephalosporinases

95
Q

Ambler class D beta lactamases

96
Q

examples of beta lactams

A

penicillins
cephalosporins
carbapenems
cephamycins
monobactams
clavams

97
Q

ESBL enzyme

98
Q

serine carbapenemase enzyme

99
Q

metallo beta lactamse enzyme

100
Q

cephalosporinase enzyme

101
Q

OXA-type enzyme

102
Q

ESBLs most prevalent in which bacteria

A

e. coli
Klebsiella pnemoniae / oxytoca
proteus mirabilis

103
Q

treatment for ESBLs

A

carbapenems

104
Q

carbapenemase most prevalent in which bacterias

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae / oxytoca
e. coli
proteus mirabilis
e. coloacae
e. aerogenes

105
Q

treatment for carbapenemase

A

meropenem + bactam

106
Q

metallo beta lactamases treatment

A

aztreonam + ceftazidine /avibactam
very limited, we cant inhibit with beta lactamase inhibitors
cefiderocol is trojan horse

107
Q

OXA- type found in what bacteria

A

acinetobacter aumannii
pseudomonas aeruginosa

108
Q

treatment for OXA type

A

cefiderocol
sulfabactam

109
Q

treatment for ESBL urinary

A

piperacillin/tazobactam

110
Q

which beta lactamase is inducible

111
Q

AmpC inducer organisms

A

Hafnia alvei
Enterobacter cloacae
Citrobacter freundii
Klebsiella aerogenes
Yersinia enterocolitica
Serratia marcescens
Morganella morganii
Aeromonas hydrophila
heck yes maam

112
Q

which common drug is high risk suseptibility to AmpC hydrolysis

A

ceftriaxone

113
Q

what do we give if stably depressed mutants? if initially suseptible and then resistant

A

cefepime 1st

carbapenem
non beta lactams

114
Q

aminoglycoside resistance happens how

A

aminoglycoside modifying enzymes
acetylation
nucleotidylation
phosphorylation
impairs cellular uptake and binding

115
Q

vancomycin resistance looks like what on a test

A

Van A or VanB present
produces vancomycin resistant enterococccus (VRE)

116
Q

treatment for vancomycin resistant enterococcus

A

linezolid
daptomycin

117
Q

how does vancomycin resistance work

A

altered target site

118
Q

penicillin binding protein resistance happens how

A

decreased affinity of PBPs for antibiotic or decreased PBPs produced by bacteria

119
Q

would a beta lactamase inhibitor help with penicilinn binding protein resistance

A

no since it is an altered target not an enzyme

120
Q

how would we know if someone had methicillin resistance staph aureus?

A

mecA or PBP2A gene

121
Q

what does the mecA gene mean

122
Q

treatment for MRSA

A

ceftaroline
ceftobiprole
vancomycin
linezolid
daptomycin

123
Q

efflux resistance important for what

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa against carbapenems
sterp nerumonia against macrolides

124
Q

porin channel resistnace important for what

A

seen in enterobacterales and carbapenem resistnt pseduomonas aeurginosa

125
Q

bacteriocidal

A

bacteria actively being killed

126
Q

bacteriostatic

A

inhibiting bacterial replication without killing the organism

127
Q

which classes exhinit PAE (post antibiotic effect)

A

concentration dependent
(aminoglycosides and fluroquinolones)
also vanc

128
Q

aminoglycosides activity measured how

A

Cmax/MIC
AUC/MIC

129
Q

fluroquinolones activity measured how

130
Q

optimal dose of aminoglycosides found how

A

high dose and extended interval
therapeutic drug monitoring

131
Q

which drug classes are time dependent

A

beta lactams

132
Q

which drug classes are concentration dependent

A

aminoglycosides
fluroquinolones

133
Q

how are time dependent drugs optimized

A

fT>MIC
time above MIC

134
Q

do beta lactams have PAE

A

no, time dependent

135
Q

dosing optimization for carbapenems

136
Q

dosing optimization for penicillins

137
Q

dosing optimization for cephalosporins

138
Q

how can we maximize ft>MIC

A

increase the dose and keep same interval
same dose shorter interval
continuous infusion
prolonged infusion

139
Q

is vancomycin time dependent or concentration dependent

A

both - more time dependent tho

140
Q

PD target for vanc

141
Q

what is the PAE like for vancomycin

A

very long for gram positivw

142
Q

prolonged and elevated AUC in vancomycin patients can lead to what