Cushman Flashcards

1
Q

What are the differences between Gram-(+) and Gram-(–) bacteria regarding drug penetration?

A

Molecules penetrate Gram+ readily, while Gram- requires porins for polar molecules

Gram+ has a thicker peptidoglycan layer compared to Gram-.

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2
Q

How do beta-lactamases distribute in Gram+ and Gram- bacteria?

A

In Gram+, beta-lactamases are excreted into the solvent; in Gram-, they are confined to the periplasmic space

This affects the quantity needed for effectiveness.

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3
Q

What is the peptidoglycan layer composition difference between Gram+ and Gram- bacteria?

A

Gram+ contains lysine residues; Gram- contains diaminopimelic acid (DAP) residues

This difference contributes to their structural integrity.

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4
Q

What is the role of transpeptidase in bacterial cell walls?

A

Transpeptidase cross-links peptidoglycan strands, forming a stable structure

It is essential for maintaining cell wall integrity.

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5
Q

How do beta-lactams affect transpeptidases?

A

Beta-lactams inhibit transpeptidases by forming a stable acyl-enzyme complex

This leads to weakened cell walls and bacterial death.

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6
Q

What are the mechanisms of bacterial resistance to penicillins?

A

Resistance mechanisms include:
* Decreased cellular uptake
* Mutation of penicillin binding proteins
* Efflux pumps
* Beta-lactamase hydrolysis

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7
Q

How does penicillin act as an allergen?

A

Penicillin acts as a hapten, acylating host proteins and raising antibodies

This can lead to allergic reactions in sensitive individuals.

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8
Q

What conditions affect penicillin stability?

A

Penicillin is less stable under acidic conditions due to nucleophilic attacks on the carbonyl

This results in hydrolysis and loss of antibiotic activity.

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9
Q

What chemical feature of penicillins confers resistance to acid degradation?

A

An electronegative side chain increases stability under acidic conditions

This affects the drug’s bioavailability.

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10
Q

How does serum protein binding affect penicillin bioavailability?

A

Higher protein binding reduces bioavailability by lowering effective drug concentration

More lipophilic penicillins tend to bind more to serum proteins.

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11
Q

What are the major penicillin excretion mechanisms?

A

Penicillin is primarily excreted through:
* 90% tubular secretion
* 10% glomerular secretion

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12
Q

How does renal disease affect the half-life of penicillins?

A

Half-lives of penicillins are increased in patients with renal failure

This necessitates dosage adjustments in such patients.

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13
Q

What is the effect of probenecid on penicillin half-life?

A

Probenecid prolongs penicillin half-life by competing for tubular secretion

This can enhance penicillin’s therapeutic effects.

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14
Q

What characterizes beta-lactam nomenclature?

A

Beta-lactam nomenclature involves classifying antibiotics based on their structure and resistance profiles.

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15
Q

What chemical features stabilize penicillins against beta-lactamase hydrolysis?

A

Two ortho methoxy groups create steric hindrance, conferring stability

This makes certain penicillins more resistant to breakdown.

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16
Q

Characterize penicillin G in terms of antimicrobial spectrum and precautions.

A

Antimicrobial spectrum: Gram+
Beta-lactamase sensitivity: Yes
Administration: Parenteral
Toxicity: Acute allergic reactions
Precautions: Caution in individuals with allergies/asthma

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17
Q

What distinguishes penicillin V from penicillin G?

A

Penicillin V has an electronegative oxygen, making it more stable in acid and suitable for oral administration

This enhances its bioavailability.

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18
Q

Classify major penicillins based on their beta-lactamase resistance.

A

Beta-lactamase resistant parenteral: Methicillin, Nafcillin
Beta-lactamase resistant oral: Oxacillin, Cloxacillin, Dicloxacillin
Beta-lactamase sensitive broad-spectrum oral: Ampicillin, Amoxicillin
Beta-lactamase sensitive broad-spectrum parenteral: Piperacillin

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19
Q

What feature of methicillin confers resistance to beta-lactamases?

A

Methicillin’s two ortho methoxy groups create steric hindrance

This structure makes it resistant to hydrolysis.

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20
Q

Explain why methicillin is unstable in acidic conditions.

A

Methicillin’s amide carbonyl oxygen becomes more nucleophilic due to electron donation from ortho methoxy groups

This instability leads to hydrolysis in stomach acid.

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21
Q

Characterize methicillin with respect to its antibiotic spectrum.

A

Spectrum: Narrow
Many bacteria are resistant, leading to its discontinuation
MecA mutation in Staphylococcus aureus confers resistance

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22
Q

Characterize nafcillin regarding beta-lactamase sensitivity and acid stability.

A

Beta-lactamase sensitivity: Not sensitive
Acid stability: Slightly more stable than methicillin

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23
Q

Identify structural similarities among oxacillin, cloxacillin, and dicloxacillin.

A

They are all isoxazoles with a NO ring connected to a benzene ring

This structure contributes to their beta-lactamase resistance.

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24
Q

Characterize the antibacterial spectrum of ampicillin.

A

Ampicillin is sensitive to Gram-negative organisms.

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25
Q

Explain why ampicillin is stable in acid.

A

The primary amino group is protonated at physiological pH, making it less nucleophilic and more electronegative

This enhances oral absorption.

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26
Q

What is the main difference between amoxicillin and ampicillin regarding absorption?

A

Amoxicillin is better absorbed orally.

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27
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of beta-lactamase inhibitors like clavulanic acid.

A

Inhibitors acylate the serine group of beta-lactamase, inactivating it.

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28
Q

What structural feature of acylureidopenicillins enhances their antibacterial activity?

A

The urea moiety resembles a longer section of the peptidoglycan chain, increasing potency

This allows for activity against both Gram+ and Gram- bacteria.

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29
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of cephalosporins.

A

Cephalosporins react with transpeptidases, inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking

They have a six-membered ring structure.

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30
Q

How are cephalosporins affected by beta-lactamase?

A

Cephalosporins are hydrolyzed by beta-lactamase.

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31
Q

How do cephalosporins compare with penicillins in terms of allergenicity?

A

Cephalosporins are less likely to cause allergic reactions than penicillins.

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32
Q

Outline the main classification scheme for cephalosporins.

A

Cephalosporins are classified from 1st to 5th generation, with higher generations showing more Gram-negative activity and less Gram-positive activity.

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33
Q

What distinguishes orally active cephalosporins from parenteral ones?

A

Orally active cephalosporins have non-reactive side chains; parenteral agents have good leaving groups

Example: Cefazolin (parenteral) vs. Cephalexin (oral).

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34
Q

What C-3 side chain feature confers acid stability to cephalosporins?

A

Bad leaving groups enhance acid stability.

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35
Q

How do syn and anti oxime ethers on C-7 side chains differ in hydrolysis by beta-lactamases?

A

Syn ethers are more resistant to hydrolysis; anti ethers are less resistant.

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36
Q

Describe how acetate vs. carbamate side chains at C-3 differ in enzymatic hydrolysis.

A

Carbamates are not good leaving groups, making them less susceptible to hydrolysis.

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37
Q

What is the effect of the large oxime ether functionality of ceftazidime on stability?

A

It enhances stability against beta-lactamases due to steric hindrance.

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38
Q

How does the charged pyridinium ring of ceftazidime affect its reactivity?

A

It increases solubility and facilitates treatment of Gram-negative bacteria.

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39
Q

What effect does the charged N-methylpyrrolidine moiety of cefepime have on reactivity?

A

It increases activity against Gram-negative bacteria.

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40
Q

How does the syn methoximino group on cefepime affect stability?

A

It stabilizes cefepime against beta-lactamases due to steric hindrance.

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41
Q

Why can’t thienamycin be used as a drug?

A

It interacts with the beta-lactam ring of another molecule, making it unstable

This interaction has limited its clinical use.

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42
Q

What is the main caution when using cephamycin drugs?

A

Do not drink alcohol

Cephamycin drugs release N-methylthiotetrazole, which can cause adverse reactions with alcohol.

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43
Q

What structural feature of cephamycin contributes to its broad spectrum activity?

A

OH group on far left side is negatively charged at physiological pH

This charge allows interaction with a wider range of bacteria.

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44
Q

How does the 7 alpha methoxy group affect cephamycin?

A

Causes stability against beta lactamases

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45
Q

Why can’t thienamycin be used as a drug?

A

Primary amino group NH2 interacts with the beta lactam ring of another molecule, making it too unstable.

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46
Q

What is imipenem and how does it overcome the instability of thienamycin?

A

Imipenem is an N-formiminoyl derivative that lacks a primary amino group.

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47
Q

What effect does replacing the sulfur atom with a methylene group have on carbapenems?

A

Increases the reactivity of the beta-lactam ring.

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48
Q

What unique feature does imipenem have regarding beta lactamases?

A

Imipenem inhibits beta lactamases.

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49
Q

What is the role of renal enzyme dehydropeptidase-1 on imipenem?

A

It hydrolyzes imipenem, but this is overcome by cilastatin sodium.

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50
Q

What is the antibiotic spectrum of imipenem?

A

Broad spectrum activity including serious infections of gut, GI, bone, skin, and endocardium.

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51
Q

How is imipenem administered?

A

Parenterally.

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52
Q

How do monobactams differ in origin from penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

Monobactams are synthetic agents inspired by monocyclic beta-lactam natural products.

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53
Q

What structural feature allows monobactams to be biologically active despite lacking a carboxylic acid group?

A

Sulfamic acid group that is electronegative and reacts.

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54
Q

What is the antibiotic spectrum of monobactams?

A

Almost completely gram negative; used for penicillin-resistant organisms.

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55
Q

How do monobactams react with penicillin-binding proteins?

A

Sulfamic acid activates the beta lactam ring towards hydrolysis and reaction with transpeptidases.

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56
Q

What is the cross allergenicity of monobactams with penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

No cross allergenicity except for ceftazidime.

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57
Q

What effect does the sulfamic acid moiety have on the reactivity of the beta-lactam ring in monobactams?

A

Makes it more reactive and resistant to beta lactamases due to the oxime ether side chain.

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58
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin?

A

Inhibits transpeptidation by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala.

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59
Q

What is the antibiotic spectrum of vancomycin?

A

Gram positive organisms only.

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60
Q

What is the mechanism of bacterial resistance to vancomycin?

A

Mutation of D-Ala-D-Ala to D-Ala-D-Lactate.

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61
Q

What is the main route of administration for vancomycin?

A

IV administered.

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62
Q

What are the main therapeutic uses of vancomycin?

A

C. diff pseudomembranous colitis, methicillin-resistant Staph aureus.

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63
Q

What are the main toxic effects of vancomycin?

A

Hypersensitivity reaction, red man syndrome, nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity.

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64
Q

What is the half-life of vancomycin?

A

4-11 hours.

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65
Q

What distinguishes lipoglycopeptides like Oritavancin from vancomycin?

A

They have lipid side chains.

66
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Oritavancin?

A

Inhibits transpeptidation and transglycosylation, disrupts membrane of gram positive bacteria.

67
Q

What is the half-life of Dalbavancin?

A

204 hours.

68
Q

What is the route of administration for streptogramin?

A

Parenterally.

69
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Dalfopristin?

A

Inhibits peptidyl transferase and alters ribosome structure.

70
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of Synercid?

A

Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus faecium infections, MRSA skin infections.

71
Q

What is the main side effect of Synercid?

A

Pain at injection site, nausea, diarrhea.

72
Q

What is the mechanism of action of linezolid?

A

Inhibits formation of the 70S complex by interacting with the 50S subunit.

73
Q

What are the main therapeutic uses of linezolid?

A

Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus faecium, MRSA skin infections.

74
Q

What are the main side effects of linezolid?

A

GI issues, tongue discoloration, thrombocytopenia.

75
Q

What is the potential for drug interactions with linezolid?

A

Reversible nonselective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase.

76
Q

How does tedizolid phosphate compare to linezolid?

A

More potent against MRSA, same mechanism of action.

77
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A

Bind to the 16S rRNA and 30S ribosomal subunit to block formation of the initiation complex

Also elicit premature termination and impair proofreading function of the ribosome.

78
Q

How do aminoglycosides affect translation?

A

Block further translation and cause premature termination

This leads to the formation of nonsense proteins that impair the bacterial cell wall.

79
Q

What occurs as a result of aminoglycoside action on the ribosome?

A

Leakage of ions and disruption of the cytoplasmic membrane resulting in cell death

80
Q

What is the mechanism of aminoglycoside uptake?

A

Positively charged aminoglycosides displace Mg+ and Ca+ ions in the membrane, allowing entry through active transport

This process requires energy.

81
Q

What are the main bacterial metabolic pathways of aminoglycosides?

A

Acetylation, adenylation, phosphorylation

82
Q

How do bacteria develop resistance to aminoglycosides?

A

Through metabolism (acetylation, adenylation, phosphorylation), altered ribosome, and altered aminoglycoside uptake

83
Q

What are the toxicities associated with aminoglycosides?

A

Ototoxic (irreversible), nephrotoxic (reversible)

Respiratory paralysis can be reversed by neostigmine or calcium gluconate.

84
Q

What are the symptoms of aminoglycoside ototoxicity?

A

Tinnitus, high frequency hearing loss, vertigo, loss of balance, ataxia

85
Q

Which aminoglycoside toxicities are reversible?

A

Nephrotoxicity, respiratory paralysis

86
Q

Which drugs can potentiate nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides?

A

Loop diuretics, vancomycin, amphotericin

87
Q

What is the potential toxic effect of aminoglycosides on respiration?

A

Respiratory paralysis, which can be reversed by neostigmine or calcium gluconate

88
Q

What are the risk factors for aminoglycoside toxicity?

A

Elderly, renal impairment, treatment duration of 5 days or more, higher doses

89
Q

How can aminoglycoside toxicity be minimized?

A

Use sparingly for specific indications, minimize duration of therapy, monitor serum concentrations

90
Q

What are the main clinical uses of aminoglycosides?

A

Treatment of gram-negative bacteria, administered with penicillins for bacterial endocarditis

91
Q

Why should aminoglycosides and penicillins not be administered together?

A

Penicillin beta-lactam reacts with aminoglycoside amino groups, inactivating both drugs

92
Q

What is an aminoglycoside-induced frameshift?

A

Affects the 30S subunit, causing formation of altered proteins due to a different anticodon

93
Q

What are the clinical uses of streptomycin?

A

Tuberculosis, bubonic plague

94
Q

What are the clinical uses of gentamicin?

A

UTIs, burns, pneumonia, joint and bone infections caused by gram-negative bacteria

95
Q

What makes amikacin less susceptible to bacterial metabolism than kanamycin?

A

Amikacin has a side chain that inhibits bacterial metabolism

96
Q

What are the features of gentamicin that contribute to its widespread use?

A

Low cost and reliability against most gram-negative organisms

97
Q

What is the polyketide biosynthesis pathway?

A

Sequential addition of propionate groups to a growing chain results in methyl groups on alternate carbon atoms in the macrolide ring

98
Q

What structural feature is characteristic of macrolide antibiotics?

A

14 membered lactone rings with desosamine sugar important for activity

99
Q

What happens to the biological activity of macrolide antibiotics when carbohydrate residues are removed?

A

Activity is decreased

100
Q

How do macrolide antibiotics work?

A

Inhibit peptide bond formation by binding reversibly to the P site of the ribosome, preventing translocation

Mainly bacteriostatic but can be bacteriocidal in high concentrations.

101
Q

What are the mechanisms of bacterial resistance to macrolide antibiotics?

A

Lactone ester hydrolase degradation, RNA methylase production, adenine to guanine mutation, efflux pump activation

102
Q

How can macrolide resistance be minimized?

A

Careful stewardship of antibiotics

103
Q

Why is resistance to macrolides by Pseudomonas spp. and Enterobacter spp. unavoidable?

A

Intrinsic resistance due to inability to allow drug entry

104
Q

How do acidic conditions inactivate erythromycin?

A

6-OH and 12-OH groups can form ketals that inactivate the drug

105
Q

What modifications in newer macrolide antibiotics prevent erythromycin inactivation in acid?

A

Methyl group added to 6-OH group in clarithromycin; methyleneamino added at C9 in azithromycin

106
Q

What is the metabolism of erythromycin?

A

Demethylation in the liver, half-life of 1.5 hours

107
Q

Which macrolides are more likely to cause drug interactions?

A

Erythromycin and clarithromycin, as they inhibit CYP3A4

108
Q

What is the antibiotic spectrum of macrolides?

A

Effective against skin and soft tissues Gram-positive bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella, Campylobacter

Clinical uses include bacterial bronchitis, otitis media, acne, and prophylaxis for endocarditis.

109
Q

What are the main side effects of macrolide antibiotics?

A

GI activity (vomiting, cramps), skin reactions (urticaria, hives), cholestatic hepatitis

110
Q

Why are erythromycin dosage forms for oral administration enteric coated?

A

To protect from inactivation by gastric acids

111
Q

How do phagocytes deliver erythromycin to the site of action?

A

Erythromycin diffuses into phagocytes, which release it at the site of infection

112
Q

What makes clarithromycin stable under acidic conditions?

A

Methyl group at 6-OH position prevents ketal ring formation

113
Q

How does clindamycin’s mechanism of action compare to erythromycin?

A

Clindamycin binds to the 50S ribosome’s peptidyl transferase center, while erythromycin binds the P site

114
Q

What are the main clinical uses of clindamycin?

A

Aerobic gram-positive cocci, anaerobic gram-negative bacilli, treats bone infections, severe acne, bacterial vaginosis, lung abscesses

115
Q

What is the main side effect of clindamycin that limits its use?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea

116
Q

How are clindamycin and its metabolites processed in the body?

A

Metabolized by CYP450 in the liver to inactive sulfoxide and demethylated derivatives

117
Q

What is the absorption and elimination profile of clindamycin?

A

90% absorbed orally, penetrates CNS, half-life 1.5-5 hours, excreted in urine and bile

118
Q

What are the main adverse effects of clindamycin?

A

Diarrhea, pseudomembranous colitis, nausea/vomiting, rash

119
Q

What is pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Potentially lethal condition due to C. diff overgrowth, treated with metronidazole or vancomycin

120
Q

How do tetracyclines bind to heavy metals?

A

They chelate and form a cyclic derivative at the bottom of structure 10 position OH

121
Q

Why should tetracyclines not be taken with calcium-rich foods?

A

Calcium chelates prevent absorption from the GI tract

122
Q

What is the preferred route of tetracycline administration?

123
Q

Why should children avoid tetracycline during teeth formation?

A

It chelates calcium and can stain teeth gray or brown

124
Q

What is tetracycline epimerization?

A

Creates an inactive product by changing the position of a proton on the 4 position

125
Q

At what pH is tetracycline epimerization most rapid?

126
Q

What occurs during tetracycline dehydration?

A

Hydroxyl group at C6 is protonated and undergoes dehydration, forming a double bond

127
Q

What is the toxicity of epianhydrotetracycline?

A

Toxic to kidneys and can produce fatal reabsorption syndrome

128
Q

Why do minocycline and doxycycline lack renal toxicity?

A

They do not have the 6-OH group, preventing dehydration

129
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

A

Bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and block attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, inhibiting protein synthesis

130
Q

What is the basis for selective toxicity of tetracyclines to bacteria?

A

The host does not have the same ribosomal structure as bacteria

131
Q

What occurs to tetracyclines under basic conditions (pH 8.5 or above)?

A

Cleavage of a ring which is inactive

132
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the tetracyclines?

A

Bind the 30S site of the ribosomal subunit and block attachment of the aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site of the ribosome

133
Q

What is the basis for selective toxicity of tetracyclines to bacteria?

A

The host does not have an uptake mechanism for tetracyclines

134
Q

List the main therapeutic uses of tetracyclines.

A
  • Broad spectrum
  • Acne
  • Chlamydia
  • Rickettsia
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  • Lyme Disease
135
Q

What are the advantages of using tetracycline itself rather than other antibiotics in the tetracycline class?

A

Generic and inexpensive

136
Q

Why is demeclocycline more stable to dehydration than tetracycline?

A

Secondary hydroxyl group at C6 instead of a tertiary

137
Q

Why do minocycline and doxycycline not undergo dehydration?

A

Lacks a C6 hydroxyl group

138
Q

What are the unique toxicities of minocycline compared to other tetracyclines?

A
  • Vestibular toxicities
  • Vertigo
  • Ataxia
  • Nausea
139
Q

How does doxycycline compare with other tetracyclines in terms of toxicity?

A

No potential for toxicity and fewer GI symptoms

140
Q

Why is doxycycline considered the tetracycline of choice?

A

No potential for toxicity and fewer GI side effects

141
Q

Why does tigecycline have no potential for 4-epianhydrotetracycline-mediated toxicity?

A

Lacks a C6 hydroxyl group

142
Q

What are the potential toxic effects of tigecycline?

A
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Pancreatitis
  • Anaphylactoid reactions
143
Q

What are the main therapeutic uses of sarecycline and omadacycline?

A
  • Moderate to severe acne
144
Q

Why should sarecycline and omadacycline not be administered to pregnant women?

A

Can cause fetal harm

145
Q

What is the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?

A

Binds reversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit to inhibit peptidyl transferase activity

146
Q

What is chloramphenicol sodium succinate?

A

A prodrug hydrolyzed to chloramphenicol in the liver

147
Q

What are the main therapeutic uses of chloramphenicol?

A
  • Bacterial meningitis
  • Typhoid fever
  • Rickettsial infections
  • Intraocular infections
148
Q

What are the main bacterial resistance mechanisms to chloramphenicol?

A
  • Acetylation on either of the OH groups
  • Reduced membrane permeability
  • Mutation of the 50S ribosomal subunit
149
Q

What is the most serious potential toxicity of chloramphenicol?

A

Aplastic anemia

150
Q

Is chloramphenicol bone marrow suppression a predictor of aplastic anemia?

151
Q

What is the relationship between chloramphenicol bone marrow suppression and cumulative dose?

A

Occurs when a cumulative dose of 20 g has been given

152
Q

What is the risk of drug interactions with chloramphenicol?

A

CYP450 interactions

153
Q

How does inflammation of the meninges affect brain concentrations of chloramphenicol?

A

Inflammation can raise concentration to 89% in the brain and CSF

154
Q

What are the characteristics of first generation quinolone antibiotics?

A
  • Gram - activity
  • Lower UTIs
155
Q

What defines second generation quinolone antibiotics?

A
  • Fluorine at C6
  • Piperazine ring at C7
  • Gram + and - activity
156
Q

What is the function of topoisomerases and gyrases?

A

Untangle DNA by cutting one or two of the strands

157
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the quinolones?

A

Quinolones bind to the cleavage complex and inhibit DNA religation

158
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of ciprofloxacin?

A
  • UTI
  • Prostatitis
  • STIs
  • Shigellosis
  • Diabetic foot infections
159
Q

What are the main adverse effects of the quinolone antibiotics?

A
  • Tendonitis
  • Tendon rupture
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • CNS effects
  • N/V diarrhea
160
Q

What should quinolone antibiotics not be administered with?

A

Foods that have heavy metals