Intersystems Flashcards

1
Q

what family is HIV? what typeof nucleic acid?what receptor does it bind to on entry? where is replication? where is assembly?

A

retrovirdae, ss RNA. binds to CD4 receptor on entry, replicates in nucleus, assembles in cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 HIV proteins he didnt shut up about? what are they involved in

A

TAT and REV. TAT involved in transcription. REV - Regulates Expression of Virion proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

name 3 ways HIV avoids immune response

A

high mutation rate, latency, altered antigen presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4 targets for anti HIV drugs

A

fusion/entry inhibitors, reverse transcriptase inhibitors, integrase inhibitors, protease inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where do most lesions arise from in breast path?

A

epithelium of the terminal duct lobular unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

dif b/w fibrocystic change and fibroadenoma in breast path?

A
cyst = benign. multifocal and bilateral. fibrosis with cyst formation.
Adenoma = benign - usually in younger women. solitary well circumscribed mass. presents as lump
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define a carcinoma in situ. name the 2 types.

what are the 2 invasive carcinomas? which is more common

A

Malignant population of cells confined to ducts and/or acini, w/o invasion through basement membrane.
Ductal Carcinoma in Situ.
Lobular Carcinoma in Situ.

same as non-invasive. Ductal and lobular. Ductal much more common (D for Death).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where are most of the accessory cells within the epidermis?

A

stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

skin circulation?

A

2 main plexuses.

Papillary plexus - Beneath papillary dermis.

Cutaneous plexus- At junction of dermis and hypodermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is the thickest skin

A

on back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what type of cell is a merkel cell? role

A

neuroendocrine, somatosensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

pain fibres of the peripheral nerve and their difs?

A

A delta = fast. C = slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 organisms that transmit via airborne

A

TB, measles, Varicella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

type of virus is ebola? countries affected? how long til symptoms appear after infection? when and how can transmission occur?

A

Filovirus, Guniea, Sierra Leone and Liberia. 2-21 days. transmission only during clinical illness via body fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

definition of fever? when is temperature higher? optimum temp for immune response?

A

oral above 37.8 or morning above 37.2. Higher in afternoon. Optimum temp for immune is 39.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4 differentials for PUO

A

infection, connective tissue disorder, malignancies, other (drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in which disease can Pseudomonas Aurigenosa be potentially more virulent

A

Cystic Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which common superficial places can Pseudomonas Aurigenosa infect (2)?

A

skin: wound infection or ottitus externaeye: keratitis(cornea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how do biofilms aid bacterial survival?

A

resist mechanical removal and are less visible to the innate immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

most common cause of fungal meningitis?

A

cryptococcosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what do dermatophytes cause?

A

tinea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

where is candida albicans carried in the body (2)

A

gut and vagina

23
Q

which virus is associated with lymphomas

A

EBV

24
Q

name 3 risk factors for lymphomas

A

immunosuppresion, some autoimmune diseases (hashimotos) and EBV

25
Q

4 eye problems affecting indigenous people

A

trachoma. cataracts, diabetes, refractive error

26
Q

explain what does trachoma cause? how can it be prevented

A

repeated infections causes blindness. can be treated with good facial hygiene.

27
Q

3 ways venom causes death. explain each

A
  1. haemotoxicity - can contain a v powerful pro coagulant → localized clotting → strips the body of clotting factors (fibrin) → vulnerable to catastrophic bleed.
    Can also can also be a very powerful anti-coagulant → vulnerable to catastrophic bleed.
  2. neurotoxicity - paralysis
  3. Myotoxicity - Rhabdomyolosis causing renal failure. (muscle breakdown > increase myoglobin > damage kidney)
28
Q

3 types of haemoglobinopathies - give an example

A
  1. decreased/no synthesis of globin chains (a or b thalassemia).
  2. Structural variation to Hb (sickle cell anaemia).
  3. persistent fetal haemoglobin HbF (not clinical).
29
Q

genetic mutation for each of alpha, beta and sickle cell?

A

alpha = large deletion.

other 2 are point mutations

30
Q

symptoms of beta thalasseima? (4)

A

failure to thrive, anaemic, thinning of long bones & cranial bones(to make more blood cells) ,facial maxillary overgrowth
Hepatosplenomegaly

31
Q

name 3 mechanisms for gene mutation

A

chromosomal translocation, point mutation and viral/bacterial

32
Q

Philadelphia chromosome is involved in which leukaemia? 2 chromosomes and genes involved

A

CML. 22;9 Bcr-Abl

33
Q

Gleevec (imatinib) is a treatment for which leukaemia? what is its MOA

A

CML. A specific Bcr-Abl tyrosine-kinase inhibitor

34
Q

BH-3 only mimetic ABT-199 is a drug in clinical trial for which disease?

A

CLL

35
Q

Main gene involved in CLL? what happens

A

Bcl-2 - over-expression prevents apoptosis

36
Q

miRNA(15,16), ZAP -70 and p53 involved with which cancer?

A

CLL

37
Q

Describe, using examples, how SNPs can change Pharmacokinetic and Pharmacodynamic behavior of drugs.

A

Kinetics - with statins - a SNP in one of the liver transport genes will decrease statin uptake and increase toxicity.

Dynamics - SNP in the 5-lipoxygenase gene is predicitve of poor response to anti-luekotriene therapy in asthma

38
Q

describe why an opioid receptor agonist and antagonist may be combined

A

one for pain relief and one to prevent constipation

39
Q

what happens in folliculitis and what is most common cause?

A

blockage of hair follicle caused by Staph A

40
Q

S. aureus produces a vast array of virulence factors to enable it to overcome immunity. name 5

A
  1. Binds to damaged tissues via adhesins
  2. inhibits chemotaxis
  3. Inhibits phagocytosis
  4. If ingested by PMNs, can resist killing
  5. forms biofilms
41
Q

key feature that differentiates CA-MRSA from HA-MRSA

A

CA-MRSA has the gene for PV-leukocidin

42
Q

M protein is a virulence determinant associated with which organism

A

GAS

43
Q

what is a NET? which bacteria can overcome this and how

A

Neutrophil Extracellular Trap - the neutrophil essentially forms a net of DNA arround the organism.
GAS can overcome this with a DNAse

44
Q

what kind of trauma is pseudomonas infection likely to result (2)

A

diabetic foot ulcer and burn

45
Q

how much blood is made? how often

A

red cell 3-5 x 10^12 p/L. 120 days
White 2-6 x 10^9 p/L. 3-5 days
Platelets 150-400 X 10^9 p/L. 10 days

46
Q

sites of Haemopoiesis throughout life

A

Yolk Sac - first few weeks.
Liver and spleen - 6weeks-7 months.
Bone marrow - 7 months- throughout life

47
Q

name 3 haemantics

A

iron, B12, folate

48
Q

non anaemic sign of iron defficiency

A

pica

49
Q

components of a RBC (3)

A

membrane, haemoglobin, enzymes

50
Q

single most important physiological equation related to blood?
Measurements

A

Tissue oxygen delivery = CO x Hb x %sat x 1.34.

l/min x g/l x % x mls/g = mls/min

51
Q

anaemia is defined…

A

Hb levels below that which is normal for age and gender

52
Q

2 main reasons for microcytic anaemia, one for child and one for adult

A

iron defficiency (diet) and blood loss (colon cancer)

53
Q

lack of B12 or folate can cause macrocytic anaemia, why?

A

they needed for DNA replication. cells grow big coz cannot produce DNA quickly enough to divide at the right time