Internal Medicine_Infectious Diseases_8 Flashcards

Bacteria_Listeria, Actinomyces, Nocardia, Acinetobacter, Bartonella, Francisella, Pasteurella, Coxiella (Q fever), Rickettsia, Ehrlichiosis

1
Q

What type of bacteria is Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Listeria monocytogenes is a gram-positive bacillus.

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2
Q

What type of hemolysis does Listeria monocytogenes exhibit?

A

Listeria monocytogenes is beta-hemolytic, often producing narrow zones of hemolysis on blood agar.

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3
Q

What type of motility is characteristic of Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Tumbling motility in broth cultures and “actin rocket tails” for intracellular movement.

When inside a cell, Listeria monocytogenes is propelled by a process called actin polymerization, which pushes the bacterium forward, allowing it to traverse the cellular environment.

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4
Q

What is the habitat of Listeria monocytogenes in cold environments?

A

Listeria monocytogenes can survive and multiply in near-freezing temperatures, allowing it to contaminate refrigerated foods.

Listeria monocytogenes is resistant to freezing.

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5
Q

What foods are commonly associated with Listeria outbreaks?

A

Unpasteurized milk, soft cheeses, packaged meat, and refrigerated foods.

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6
Q

Why are pregnant women at higher risk for Listeria infections?

A

Pregnant women are 20 times more likely to contract listeriosis due to immunologic changes during pregnancy. Infection can lead to early termination or newborn disease (Amnionitis, sepsis, abortion).

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7
Q

What conditions can Listeria monocytogenes cause in newborns?

A

Neonatal sepsis and meningitis.

Diffuse pyogenic granulomas (granulomatosis infantiseptica).

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8
Q

Congenital listeriosis can lead to …

A

Congenital listeriosis (Neonatal listeriosis) is a neonatal infection with Listeria monocytogenes.

Significant risk factors include maternal exposure to unpasteurized dairy.

Intrauterine infection causes early-onset severe systemic infection with respiratory distress syndrome and skin lesions (granulomatosis infantiseptica).

Peripartum infection causes meningitis/encephalitis at ~ 3 weeks of age.

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9
Q

What population, besides neonates, is most susceptible to Listeria meningitis?

A

Adults over 60 years and immunocompromised individuals are most susceptible to infection with Listeria monocytogenes.

In healthy patients infection is usually self-limited with minor gastroenteritis.

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10
Q

What enzyme does Listeria monocytogenes produce?

A

Listeria monocytogenes produces catalase, which converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.

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11
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Listeria monocytogenes infections?

A

Ampicillin or Penicillin G (IV).

Gentamicin for severe cases (can cause ototoxicity).

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12
Q

What type of bacteria is Actinomyces israelii?

A

Actinomyces israelii is a gram-positive bacillus with a filamentous, branching structure.

Most Actinomyces spp. are facultative anaerobes, meaning they can survive in both oxygenated and deoxygenated environments; however, some species are obligate anaerobes, requiring an oxygen-free environment for growth and survival.

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13
Q

Where is Actinomyces israelii typically found as part of the normal flora?

A

Actinomyces israelii is part of the normal flora of the oral cavity.

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14
Q

What condition is commonly caused by Actinomyces israelii following jaw trauma or dental procedures?

A

Actinomyces israelii can cause cervicofacial actinomycosis, characterized by slow progression, jaw lump, abscess formation, sinus tracts, and yellow sulfur granules. Lesions form sinus tracts, which emit a purulent discharge containing yellow sulfur granules. Lesions can become fibrotic.

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15
Q

What OBGYN condition is caused by Actinomyces israelii?

A

Pelvic actinomycosis from IUDs.

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16
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Actinomyces israelii infections?

A

The treatment of choice is penicillin G (IV), often requiring prolonged therapy.

Alternative antibiotics are ampicillin or erythromycin.

Surgical drainage may be needed in complicated cases.

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17
Q

What type of organism is Nocardia asteroides?

A

Nocardia asteroides is an obligate aerobic, gram-positive, branching rod found in soil.

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18
Q

What staining characteristics are seen with Nocardia asteroides?

A

It stains weakly acid-fast due to the presence of mycolic acids in its cell wall.

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19
Q

What is the relevance of carbol fuchsin in diagnosing Nocardia asteroides?

A

Carbol fuchsin is utilized in acid-fast staining to identify mycolic acids in its cell wall.

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20
Q

What are the key enzymes produced by Nocardia asteroides?

A

It produces catalase and urease.

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21
Q

Which populations are most at risk for Nocardia infections?

A

Immunocompromised patients, especially those with impaired cell-mediated immunity (e.g., HIV, transplant patients, glucocorticoid users).

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22
Q

What are the primary clinical manifestations of Nocardia asteroides infection?

A

Pulmonary nocardiosis – manifests as pneumonia with lung abscess formation.

CNS nocardiosis – causes brain abscesses and multiple ring-enhancing lesions.

Cutaneous nocardiosis – results in indurated lesions.

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23
Q

How does pulmonary nocardiosis resemble tuberculosis?

A

It manifests with multiple solid nodules and cavities, similar to TB.

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24
Q

What is a rare manifestation of cutaneous nocardiosis?

A

It can present with indurated lesions or pyogenic responses due to skin exposure to dirt.

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25
Q

What is the gender predilection for Nocardia infections?

A

It is more common in men than in women (approximately 2:1-3:1).

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26
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Nocardia asteroides infections?

A

Sulfonamides, specifically trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX).

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27
Q

Acinetobacter baumannii most commonly affects … ?

A

hospitalized patients

patients usually develop pneumonia or bacteremia

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28
Q

Why is Acinetobacter baumannii hard to treat?

A

often this bacteria multidrug resistant

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29
Q

How is Acinetobacter baumannii treated?

A

carbapenem

polymyxin

cefepime

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30
Q

What type of bacteria is Bartonella henselae, and how is it visualized?

A

Bartonella henselae is a gram-negative bacillus and is visualized using the Warthin-Starry silver stain.

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31
Q

How is cat-scratch disease primarily transmitted?

A

Cat-scratch disease is transmitted through cat scratches, bites, or bites from infected fleas.

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32
Q

What is a common clinical presentation of cat-scratch disease?

A

A common presentation includes erythematous painful axillary lymphadenopathy following a cat scratch or bite, this is after a papule or nodule is at the inoculation site.

Fever could be present or not.

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33
Q

Who is most commonly affected by cat-scratch disease?

A

Cat-scratch disease predominantly affects immunocompetent individuals but can occur in immunocompromised patients with more severe symptoms.

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34
Q

What condition does Bartonella henselae cause in immunocompromised individuals?

A

In immunocompromised individuals, Bartonella henselae causes bacillary angiomatosis.

The skin lesions often start as small reddish papules and can progress to larger, highly vascular nodules.

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35
Q

What are the primary treatments for Bartonella henselae infections?

A

Bartonella henselae infections are treated with doxycycline or a macrolide antibiotic (azithromyocin or erythromycin).

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36
Q

How is cat-scratch disease diagnosed?

A

Clinically and confirmed with serology.

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37
Q

What is the causative agent of brucellosis?

A

Brucella spp., a gram-negative coccobacillus.

Facultative intracellular bacteria capable of surviving within host macrophages.

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38
Q

How is brucellosis primarily transmitted to humans?

A

Through direct contact with infected farm animals (cows, pigs, sheep, goats) or consumption of improperly handles unpasteurized dairy products of infected animals.

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39
Q

What are the characteristic symptoms of brucellosis?

A

Brucellosis is characteristically associated with undulant fever, marked by fever intensification and remission.

Other symptoms include night sweats and anorexia.

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40
Q

Which organ systems are commonly affected by Brucella spp.?

A

The reticuloendothelial system, including the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes, often causing hepatosplenomegaly.

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41
Q

What are potential complications of chronic brucellosis?

A

Osteomyelitis and other musculoskeletal complications such as sacrolitis or spondylitis.

Endocarditis

Meningitis

Encephalitis

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42
Q

What is the standard treatment for brucellosis?

A

Combination therapy with tetracycline (doxycycline) and rifampin, or doxycycline and streptomycin.

43
Q

How is brucellosis diagnosed?

A

culture or serology

44
Q

What is the classification and shape of Francisella tularensis?

A

Francisella tularensis is a gram-negative coccobacillus.

45
Q

What animals serve as reservoirs for Francisella tularensis?

A

Rabbits, rodents, and other mammals are common reservoirs for Francisella tularensis.

46
Q

How is Francisella tularensis transmitted to humans?

A

Transmission occurs through arthropod vectors like ticks, deer flies, horse flies, and mosquitoes or direct contact with infected animals.

47
Q

What notable virulence feature allows Francisella tularensis to survive inside hosts?

A

Francisella tularensis is a facultative intracellular pathogen, capable of surviving within macrophages.

48
Q

What is a hallmark cutaneous presentation of tularemia?

A

Painful skin ulcers with necrosis, often occurring at the site of infection (e.g., tick bite).

49
Q

Through which system does Francisella tularensis spread within the body?

A

It disseminates through the lymphatic system to the reticuloendothelial organs, causing inflammation and necrosis.

50
Q

What is a key clinical sign of tularemia involving lymph nodes?

A

Painful regional lymphadenopathy is a characteristic feature.

Non-specific symptoms include fever, malaise, and myalgia.

51
Q

How is tularemia diagnosed?

A

serology

52
Q

What antibiotics are effective in treating tularemia?

A

Aminoglycosides, particularly streptomycin and gentamicin, are effective against tularemia.

Also Fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines.

53
Q

What type of bacterium is Pasteurella multocida?

A

Pasteurella multocida is a gram-negative coccobacillus that is oxidase-positive, catalase-positive, and demonstrates bipolar staining.

54
Q

How is Pasteurella multocida typically transmitted?

A

Pasteurella multocida is transmitted through animal bites and scratches, particularly from dogs and cats.

55
Q

What are the common clinical features of Pasteurella multocida infection?

A

Infections can lead to rapid-onset cellulitis, often within 24 hours, and complications such as necrotizing fasciitis and osteomyelitis.

56
Q

What is the role of the polysaccharide capsule in Pasteurella multocida?

A

The polysaccharide capsule enhances the bacterium’s virulence by aiding in immune evasion.

57
Q

What are the ideal growth conditions for Pasteurella multocida in the lab?

A

Pasteurella multocida grows readily on 5% sheep blood agar and exhibits bipolar (safety-pin) staining under light microscopy.

58
Q

What is the treatment of choice for infections caused by Pasteurella multocida?

A

Penicillin G, often combined with a beta-lactamase inhibitor (AUGMENTIN which has Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid).

59
Q

What type of bacterium causes Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii, an obligate intracellular, gram-indeterminate bacterium.

60
Q

How is Coxiella burnetii transmitted?

A

Aerosol transmission from animal droppings, particularly farm animals
(e.g., cattle, sheep, goats).

Spore-like structures facilitate its survival and transmission.

61
Q

What are the common reservoirs for Coxiella burnetii?

A

Farm animals, especially cattle, sheep, and goats.

Often via bodily fluids (animals giving birth).

62
Q

What are the primary symptoms of Q fever?

A

High-grade fever.
Fatigue, headache, myalgias.
Dry cough and mild pneumonia.
Distinguishing feature: Hepatitis (granulomatous inflammation in the liver).

Rarely endocarditis.

63
Q

What makes Q fever different from other zoonotic infections like Rickettsia or Ehrlichia?

A

Q fever typically does not present with a rash.

64
Q

What diagnostic test is used for Q fever?

A

Serology is the standard diagnostic method.

65
Q

How is Q fever treated?

A

Doxycycline is the treatment of choice.

66
Q

Is Q fever self-limiting?

A

Yes, in mild cases, Q fever can be self-limiting, often resolving within two weeks without antibiotics.

67
Q

What severe complications can arise from Q fever?

A

Rarely, Q fever can lead to:

Chronic granulomatous hepatitis.
Endocarditis.
68
Q

Why does Coxiella burnetii survive harsh environments?

A

It forms spore-like structures that are resistant to environmental conditions.

69
Q

What is the structure and staining characteristic of Rickettsia spp.?

A

Obligate intracellular coccobacilli.
Stain weakly gram-negative.
Can be visualized using Giemsa or Gimenez stain.

70
Q

What metabolic deficiencies do Rickettsia spp. have, and how do they survive?

A

Lack the ability to produce CoA and NAD+.
Depend on eukaryotic host cells for these molecules to support growth and reproduction.

71
Q

What test was historically used to diagnose Rickettsial infections?

A

The Weil-Felix test, an agglutination assay, but it has been largely replaced by serology.

72
Q

Early rickettsial infections typically present with _________ symptoms like ____ and ____ ?

A

Early rickettsial infections typically present with nonspecific symptoms like headaches and fever.

73
Q

Progression of rickettsial infections cause _________ .

A

Progression of rickettsial infections cause small-vessel vasculitis.

These cause distinct petechial or maculopapular rashes.

74
Q

How is Rickettsia rickettsii transmitted, and where is it common?

A

Transmitted by the Dermacentor tick.
Occurs primarily in the eastern United States.

75
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) is caused by

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

76
Q

What are the early symptoms of RMSF?

A

Fever, chills, headache, myalgias, arthralgias.

77
Q

Describe the rash progression in RMSF.

A

Starts on wrists and ankles.
Spreads centripetally to the trunk.
Appears 2–5 days after symptom onset.

78
Q

What complications can occur in RMSF?

A

Small-vessel vasculitis.
Thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and transaminitis.

79
Q

What is the treatment for RMSF?

A

Doxycycline is the drug of choice, including for children

Alternative: Chloramphenicol, especially for pregnant women

80
Q

Epidemic Typhus is caused by

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

81
Q

How is Rickettsia prowazekii transmitted?

A

Through louse feces, with infection occurring via scratching the site of louse feeding and defecation.

82
Q

Where is Epidemic Typhus common, and who is at risk?

A

Found in rural areas of Africa, Asia, and South America.
Common in military recruits, prisoners of war, refugee camps, and crowded unsanitary conditions.

83
Q

Describe the rash in Epidemic Typhus.

A

Usually occurs following the nonspecific symptoms.

Starts centrally on the trunk.
Spreads outward to extremities.
Spares face, palms, and soles.

Commonly accompanies CNS findings like confusion and encephalopathy due to CNS manifestations occurring later in the disease process.

84
Q

What are the early symptoms of Epidemic Typhus?

A

Acute onset of fever, malaise, headache, myalgias.

Severe cases may involve encephalitis and pulmonary complications like pneumonia.

85
Q

A mild recrudescence of Epidemic Typhus, occurring years after initial infection is called … ?

A

Brill-Zinsser disease.

86
Q

What is the treatment for Epidemic Typhus?

A

Doxycycline. Alternative: Chloramphenicol.

87
Q

Endemic (Murine) Typhus is caused by … ?

A

Rickettsia typhi

88
Q

How is Rickettsia typhi transmitted?

A

Via flea bites.

89
Q

What are the symptoms of Endemic (Murine) Typhus?

A

Acute flu-like illness with fever, headache, and malaise.
A rash may be present.

90
Q

What is the treatment for Endemic Typhus?

A

Doxycycline. Alternative: Chloramphenicol.

91
Q

What is the treatment for Rickettsial infections in pregnant patients?

A

For pregnant women, Chloramphenicol is typically used as an alternative due to concerns about tetracycline toxicity, unless the disease is severe (e.g., Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever), where doxycycline may still be preferred.

92
Q

What type of bacteria are Anaplasma phagocytophilum and Ehrlichia chaffeensis?

A

Gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacteria.

93
Q

What is the primary vector for Anaplasma phagocytophilum transmission?

A

Black-legged tick (Ixodes spp.).

94
Q

Which tick transmits Ehrlichia chaffeensis?

A

Lone star tick (Amblyomma americanum).

95
Q

What are the reservoir hosts for Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

White-footed mouse.

96
Q

Which animal serves as a reservoir host for both Anaplasma phagocytophilum and Ehrlichia chaffeensis?

A

White-tailed deer.

97
Q

What are the hallmark symptoms of anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis?

A

Flu-like symptoms (fevers, chills, headache, myalgias, fatigue) and gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain).

98
Q

Ehrlichia chaffeensis is commonly found where in the US?

A

Southern US.

99
Q

What laboratory abnormality is commonly associated with anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis?

A

Pancytopenia (leukopenia and thrombocytopenia)

Elevated AST and ALT

100
Q

ehrlichiosis is considered _________ while anaplasmosis is considered _________

A

ehrlichiosis is considered monocytic (infects monocytes for Ehrlichia)

anaplasmosis is considered granulocytic (infects granulocytes for Anaplasma)

101
Q

How are the morula visualized for anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis?

A

Presence of morulae within leukocytes are identified on a Wright-Giemsa stained smear.

102
Q

What is the treatment of choice for anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis?

A

Doxycycline.

103
Q

How is anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis diagnosed?

A

Serology (ELISA or IFA) or PCR

104
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient that presents with flu-like symptoms without a rash after being bitten by a tick two weeks ago? Laboratory exam reveals leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated LFTs.

A

Ehrlichiosis