Instruments II Flashcards

1
Q

Define Holding:

A

A holding procedure is a predetermined maneuver due to unexpected or expected delays which keeps aircraft within specified airspace while awaiting further clearance from ATC

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2
Q

Reasons for Holding

Unexpected:
Expected:

A

Unexpected:

  • Sequencing
  • Emergency
  • WX

Expected:

  • Pilot request for practice holding
  • Contained in original IFR clearance
  • Course Reversal
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3
Q

4 Types of Holding:

A
  • Arrival (Solid Thin Line)
  • In Lieu of Procedure Turn (Solid Bold Line)
  • Missed Approach (Segmented Line)
  • Enroute
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4
Q

Banks in Holding

A
  • Use whichever requires the least bank angle:
    3° Per Second
    30° Bank angle
    25° Bank angle provided a Flight Director System is used
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5
Q

Airspeeds in Holding

A

Copter - 90 KIAS
0 - 6000 MSL - Max 200 KIAS
6,001 - 14,000 MSL - Max 230 KIAS

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6
Q

An ATC clearance requiring an aircraft to hold at a fix WITH a charted holding pattern will include:

A
  • Aircraft ID
  • Charted holding direction from fix
  • The statement “as published”
  • Expect Further Clearance (EFC) time
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7
Q

An ATC clearance requiring an aircraft to hold at a fix WITHOUT a charted holding pattern will include:

A
  • Aircraft ID
  • Direction of holding from the fix
  • Name of the holding fix
  • Holding radial, course, bearing, airway, or route on which to hold
  • Leg length in time or miles
  • Direction of turns
  • Expect Further Clearance (EFC) time
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8
Q

Required radio calls for a holding pattern

A
  • Entering Holding (Time and Altitude)
  • Exiting Holding (Report Departure)
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9
Q

Abeam

A

Being approximately 90° left or right of something

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10
Q

Inbound Timing Factor

A
  • 1 minute unless otherwise directed
  • Wings level
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11
Q

Outbound Timing Factor

A
  • 1 minute unless otherwise directed
  • When abeam the fix or if unable to accurately verify, than wings level
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12
Q

Wind Drift Correction in Holding Pattern

A
  • Only on Inbound and Outbound Legs
  • Triple Inbound heading to receive the Outbound heading and opposite direction
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13
Q

MDA

A

Minimum Decent Altitude

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14
Q

VASI

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator

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15
Q

LPV

A

Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance

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16
Q

LNAV

A

Lateral Navigation

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17
Q

VNAV

A

Vertical Navigation

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18
Q

GLS

A

GPS Landing System

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19
Q

ILS Approach Type

A

Precision

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20
Q

LOC Approach Type

A

Non-Precision

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21
Q

NoPT

A

No Procedure Turn

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22
Q

NA vs N/A

A

Not Authorized
Non-Applicable

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23
Q

TAA

A

Terminal Arrival Area

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24
Q

MAP

A

Missed Approach Point

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25
Q

DA

A

Decision Altitude

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26
Q

LNAV+V

A

Lateral Navigation with Vertical Guidance

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27
Q

IAP

A

Initial Approach Procedure

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28
Q

HAT

A

Height Above Touchdown

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29
Q

HAA

A

Height Above Airport

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30
Q

HAL

A

Height Above Landing Area

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31
Q

What does a “T” in a black triangle mean?

A

Airport has non-standard takeoff minimums

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32
Q

Arrows on a MSA symbols

A

Identify sectors

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33
Q

What does a Feeder Route provide?

A
  • Altitude
  • Heading
  • Distance
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34
Q

What are Airport Diagrams specifically designed to assist the pilot with?

A

It assist pilots in the movement of ground traffic at locations with complex runway/taxiway configurations

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35
Q

What are the 6 categories published for IFR Landing Minima?

A

A, B, C, D, E and COPTER

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36
Q

What category of IFR Landing minimums can helicopters use in the absence of COPTER minima?

A

Category A

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37
Q

How is the ceiling computed in Weather Planning Minimums (radar minima):

A

By subtraction the field elevation from the DA or MDA and, if not in even hundreds (of feet), this value will be rounded off upwards to the next hundred foot.

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38
Q

What is an Airport Surface Hot Spot?

A

A location on an aerodrome movement area with a history of potential risk of collision or runway incurision, and where hightened attention by pilots/drivers is necessary

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39
Q

What is a Hot Spot?

A

A runway safety related problem on an airport that present increased rish during surface operations

40
Q

What is the difference between category A, B, C, and D approaches?

A

Airspeed limitations and visibility

41
Q

Name all the sections of an approach plate

A
  • City and State
  • Procedure Information
  • Airport Identifier
  • FAA Chart Reference Number (Approving Authority)
  • Lat/Long Coordinates
  • Amendment Effective Date
42
Q

Where would you look on the approach chart to find information concerning runway, dimensions, approach lighting, and runway lighting?

A

Pilot Briefing Section

43
Q

What section of the approach cahrt do you find the Final Approach Fix (FAF)?

A

Profile View

44
Q

Departure locations from an airport for IFR

A
  • Runway
  • Takeoff Pads
45
Q

Two ways to get IFR clearance from an airport with tower

A
  • Clearance Delivery
  • Ground Control
46
Q

Four ways to get IFR clearance from an airport without tower

A
  • Contact ATC by Phone via Remarks
  • Radio (FFS) by Remote Communication Outlet (RCO)
  • Telephone (1-800-WXBRIEF)
47
Q

IFR clearance Items

A
  • Aircraft identification
  • Clearance Limit
  • SID (if requested or assigned)
  • Route of Flight
  • Altitude Data in the order flown
  • Holding Instructions (As necessary)
  • Any Special Information (i.e. Radar Vectoring Info)
  • Frequency (Who to contact after departure)
  • Transponder beacon code information
48
Q

Takeoff minimums for a pilot on controls who has logged <50 hours of actual weather hours as PiC

A
  • 100ft Ceiling
  • 1/4 SM Visibility
49
Q

Types of Departures

A
  • Diverse Departure
  • ODPs
  • SIDs
  • Radar Departure
  • VFR Departure
50
Q

Two depictions of SIDs

A
  • Text
  • Graphical
51
Q

Diverse Departure Requirements

A
  • Airport has at least 1 Instrument Approach
  • Maintain runway heading after takeoff
  • Minimum Rate of Climb is 200FPNM
  • No turn until passing 400ft above DER or Field Elevation
52
Q

Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)

A

Preplanned IFR departure procedure that provides obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area to the appropriate enroute structure

53
Q

ODPs may require

A

Greater than standard takeoff and ceiling and or vis
A specified altitude before turning
Greater than 200 f/Nm climb rate

54
Q

SIDs are primarily designed to

A
  • Expedite Traffic Flow
  • Reduce Pilot Workload
55
Q

Radar Controlled Departure

A

Departing via IFR in Congested Areas

56
Q

What can be utilized along with SIDs to expedite traffic flow or avoid comgestion?

A

Radar Vectoring

57
Q

Instrument Approaches Include

A
  • Lateral Guidance
  • Vertical Guidance
  • Range Information
  • Visual Information
58
Q

4 Instrument Approach Procedure Segments

A
  • Initial Approach
  • Intermediate Approach
  • Final Approach
  • Missed Approach
59
Q

2 Things all Non-precision Approaches have

A
  • No Electronic Glideslope (Vertical Guidance)
  • Minimum Descent Altitude
60
Q

Course Reversal Names

A
  • Procedure Turns
  • Holding in Lieu of Procedure Turn
61
Q

Common Techniques for a Procedure Turn

A
  • Teardrop Pattern
  • Standard 45-Degree Turn (45 / 180)
  • 80 / 260 Course Reversal
  • Holding/racetrack pattern
62
Q

Procedure Turn Restrictions

A
  • ATC Clears straight-in-approach
  • Flying approach via No PT route
  • When established in holding and subsequently cleared for the approach and the holding course and PT course are the same
  • When ATC provides Radar Vectors
  • ATC Clears the aircraft for timed approach
63
Q

Course Reversal Restrictions

A
  • Do not exceed the remain within distance
  • Maintain minimum altitude or higher until established on the inbound segment of the approach
64
Q

Occasionally, this specific flight path is required for a course reversal

A

Procedure Track

65
Q

Initial Approach Fix

A

The beginning of the Initial Approach Segment

66
Q

Final Approach Fix

A

The beginning of the Final Approach Segment

67
Q

Before you may begin your descent from FAF to the DA/MDA you must be

A
  • Cleared for the approach
  • Established on the Final Approach Course
  • Within the distance specified in the profile view
68
Q

Missed Approach Climb Rates

A
  • Copter - 400FPNM
  • All Others - 200FPNM
69
Q

Missed Approach Options

A
  • Require new ATC clearance
  • Request additional approaches provided fuel, including reserve, is adequate
  • Holding for improved weather conditions
  • Proceeding to your alternate airfield
70
Q

Which segment accommodates Course Reversals?

A

Intermediate Segment

71
Q

Three things that denote the Final Approach Fix

A
  • Glide Slope Intercept
  • Maltese Cross
  • Final Approach Point
72
Q

Only time you can fly below MDA

A
  • The approach of the runway, lights or other markings must be visible to the pilot
  • Aircraft must be in a position from which a safe approach to the runway or landing area can be made
73
Q

Visual Descent Point

A

Defined point on a final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure

74
Q

3 Additional IFR Approach Procedures

A
  • Visual Approach
  • Contact Approach
  • Charted Visual Approach
75
Q

Fully operable Instrument Landing System (ILS) provides

A
  • Lateral Guidance Information
  • Vertical Guidance Information
  • Range Information
  • Visual Information
76
Q

GCA

A

Ground Controlled Approach

77
Q

GCA Defined

A

A radar approach system operated from the ground by air traffic control personel transmitting instructions to the pilot by radio

78
Q

2 Types of GCA

A
  • PAR (Precision Approach Radar)
  • ASR (Airport Surveillance Radar)
79
Q

PAR is a Precision Approach that provides

A
  • Precise Course
  • Glide Slope
  • Range Information
80
Q

ASR is a Non-precision Approach that provides

A
  • Lateral Course Guidance
  • Range Information
  • Altitude Recommendations
81
Q

ASR Radar Distance and Degree Coverage

82
Q

When doing a PAR what runway MDA do you use?

A

The runway you are shooting the approach to

83
Q

Radar monitoring of approaches is automatically provided when?

A
  • Weather less than 1000’ and 3SM Visibility
  • When requested by the pilot
  • At night (N/A at U.S. Army Airfields)
84
Q

How often must you hear from PAR final controller?

A

Every 5 seconds

85
Q

How often must you hear from PAR final controller?

A

Every 15 seconds

86
Q

How often must you hear from ATC final controller?

A

Every 1 minute

87
Q

Which DoD FLIP provides information on different book information?

A

General Planning - Chapter 1

88
Q

Which DoD FLIP provides definitions?

A

General Planning - Chapter 2

89
Q

Which DoD FLIP provides pilot procedures?

A

Area Planning 1 - Chapter 6

90
Q

Which DoD FLIP provides airport information?

A

Enroute IFR Supplement

91
Q

Which DoD FLIP aids the IFR Supplement with more airport information?

A

Area Planning 1

92
Q

Which DoD FLIP provides airborne VOR checkpoints?

A

Area Planning 1

93
Q

Which DoD FLIP provides flight hazards?

A

Area Planning 1

94
Q

Which DoD FLIPs provides graphic visualization of different types of lightning?

A
  • General Planning
  • Terminal Procedures Publication
  • Flight Information Handbook
95
Q

Which DoD FLIP provides information about special use airspace?

A

Enroute Low Altitude

96
Q

Which DoD FLIP provides information on approaches?

A
  • Terminal Low Altitude
  • Terminal Procedures Publication
97
Q

Non-precision Approaches (RNAV) that look similar to Precision Approaches

A

Approach with Vertical Guidance