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UPT 2.5 T-6 > Instrument Test > Flashcards

Instrument Test Flashcards

1
Q

Name the three instrument penetration approach procedures/What are the three types of procedural tracks that may be depicted on an approach?

A

DME/non-DME teardrop, radials (straight in), radials and arcs

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2
Q

How many seconds should you time for every 1000 ft you are low before doing a course reversal?

A

15 seconds

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3
Q

What is the descent rate and pitch for a non-DME teardrop?

A

2600-4000 fpm, 8-10 degrees NL

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4
Q

Who can request an enroute descent?

A

Pilot or ATC

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5
Q

What is the descent rate for an approach surveillance radar (ASR) approach?

A

800-1000 fpm

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6
Q

When do you descend during a Holding-in-lieu-of-PT (HILOPT) approach?

A

From the holding fix or on the inbound leg

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7
Q

What airspeed should you maintain for a high altitude descent?

A

200-250KIAS

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8
Q

What is the turn rate for a no-gyro turn?

A

Standard rate turn in pattern, half rate turn on final

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9
Q

What is the clearance and radius of an emergency minimum sector altitude (EMSA)?

A

1000 ft clearance, 100 NM

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10
Q

When should you not fly a procedure turn on an approach?

A

SNERT rules- Straight-in/No-PT/Established in Holding/Radar Vectors/Timing

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11
Q

You should delay your climbout turn until when?

A

400 ft AGL unless you can see the DER. If you can see the DER, delay turn until you are at the DER

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12
Q

When doing a circling approach, if you can’t maintain a visual with the runway, what should you do?

A

Turn toward the runway of intended landing and intercept the missed approach procedure

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13
Q

Decision altitude is reported in ___ and is used in what types of approaches?

A

MSL; precision

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14
Q

For precision approaches, the MAP is the point at which what occurs?

A

When the decision altitude is reached

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15
Q

When transferring from instrument to visual on landing, when should you start looking for visual references?

A

As you approach the MSL altitude for reported ceilings (usually 100-200 ft prior)

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16
Q

What does a Trouble T indicate?

A

Takeoff minimums to avoid obstacles

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17
Q

When flying an RNAV, the approach must be loaded at least ___ miles from the FAF.

A

2

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18
Q

What are the three types of entries into holding?

A

Direct, parallel, teardrop

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19
Q

How many degrees is the buffer zone when choosing an entry method for holding?

A

5

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20
Q

What is the maximum bank angle for an inbound turn?

A

30 degrees

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21
Q

When would you deselect OBS on an approach when being vectored to final?

A

When you are 90 degrees off the approach course

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22
Q

If the holding pattern is over a NAVAID, what should you use to determine the length of the pattern?

A

Timing

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23
Q

If you want to descend 10,000 feet in 20 NM, what pitch should you use?

A

5 degrees

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24
Q

What is approach speed in any aircraft?

A

1.3 times the stall speed

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25
Q

From what point do procedure tracks originate?

A

The IAF

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26
Q

If a holding fix is a VOR or VORTAC, how do you determine that you are abeam the fix?

A

Cone of confusion or when the aircraft passed 90 degrees off the outbound course

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27
Q

What are the three types of runway lighting systems?

A

HIRL (military airfields)/MIRL/LIRL

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28
Q

What is reported on a runway remaining marker?

A

Runway distance remaining in thousands of feet

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29
Q

What illusion does breaking out of the weather to a wider than usual runway create?

A

You are closer/lower than you actually are

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30
Q

What are weather ceilings reported in?

A

AGL

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31
Q

What is the missed approach point?

A

The last point where a decision is made to land

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32
Q

When should you slow to holding airspeed with regards to the holding fix?

A

Within 3 minutes of the fix

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33
Q

What are the 4 steps to arcing?

A

4 steps
TIM
Determine turn direction
Calculate lead point
Place head of bearing pointer at the 90 degree index

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34
Q

What approach requires more visual cues than a straight in?

A

Circling

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35
Q

When flying a radial approach, what should you do as you pass the FAF?

A

Turn immediately in the shorter direction of the approach course

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36
Q

What are the two approaches the T-6 is not authorized to fly?

A

TACAN/NDB

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37
Q

What clearance does a minimum sector altitude (MSA) or minimum vector altitude (MVA) provide?

A

1000 ft of obstacle clearance

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38
Q

(T/F) The required visibility increases when ALS is inoperative.

A

True

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39
Q

What are the three types of procedure turns?

A

3 types
45/180
80/260
Racetrack method (base turn/teardrop)

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40
Q

If the holding fix is an intersection, when should you start your timing?

A

Wings level outbound

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41
Q

What clearance does the circling MDA provide?

A

300 ft obstacle clearance

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42
Q

When are lost comm instructions given?

A

Radar downwind or base

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43
Q

What are radar approach speeds on downwind/base/final?

A

Radar approach speeds
Downwind: 150-200
Base: 120-150
Final: 110-120

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44
Q

When more than one MSA is required, what is it called?

A

Minimum sector altitude

45
Q

What is circling airspeed and final distance for the T-6?

A

120/ ¼-½ mile final

46
Q

Where is the lighting diagram located?

A

Flight Information Handbook (FIH)

47
Q

Is the MDA used for a precision or non-precision approach?

A

Non-precision

48
Q

When does a precision approach radar (PAR) approach begin?

A

When the aircraft is in range of the precision radar and contact is established with the final controller

49
Q

If you had to make a new inflight clearance, where would you look for guidance?

A

Back of the IFR supplement

50
Q

What is the formula to calculate turn radius?

A

(Airspeed/60)-2

51
Q

What is the maximum airspeed below 10,000 MSL?

A

250 KIAS

52
Q

For non-precision approaches, how is the MAP defined?

A

DME, NAVAID, Timing, or GPS waypoint

53
Q

What is the descent rate for a PAR?

A

400-600 fpm

54
Q

In holding what is the bank angle and rate of turn?

A

30 degrees/ 3 degrees per second

55
Q

What is the holding airspeed in the T-6?

A

150 KIAS

56
Q

What illusion do bright lights around a runway at night give you?

A

The impression of being above glidepath

57
Q

What is the symbol for approach lighting systems and how do you know if it has sequenced flashers?

A

A circled ‘A’ depicts an ALS system. A dot at the top of the circle depicts sequenced flashers. If the symbol is negative, it is pilot controlled lighting.

58
Q

How do you know if an airport has pilot controlled lighting?

A

The colors on the symbol are inverted (black background w/ white writing)

59
Q

What is the formula to calculate VSI?

A

GS x 100 x pitch

60
Q

How many times should you orbit in holding during a HILOPT approach?

A

Once

61
Q

When flying an RNAV approach, what is the sensitivity of the CDI in approach armed and approach active modes?

A

At 30 NM it is +/- 1 NM. At 2 miles prior to FAF, it becomes +/- 0.3 NM

62
Q

If holding is not required, when should you be slowed to maneuvering speed?

A

Prior to the IAF

63
Q

What altitude must you maintain until the red terminating bars are visible?

A

TDZE + 100 ft

64
Q

If you are inside of a DME arc, where should you put the bearing pointer in relation to the 90 degree index to correct your position?

A

10 degrees below the index

65
Q

What should your airspeed in the T-6 be when performing a low altitude approach?

A

120-150 KIAS

66
Q

What are the six T’s? in order

A

Time, Turn, Torque, Twist, Track, Talk

67
Q

Describe touchdown zone/centerline lighting?

A

Lighting
White Lights: Threshold- first 3,000 ft
Red/White: 3,000 ft - 1,000 ft remaining
Red Lights: last 1,000 ft

68
Q

Which takes precedence? ATC vectors or a published route?

A

ATC vectors

69
Q

Where can you find information on holding procedures?

A

AIM

70
Q

Do it you need ATC clearance to perform a sidestep maneuver?

A

Yes

71
Q

What is the minimum descent gradient formula?

A

(100s of feet/NM)

72
Q

What is the lead point radial formula?

A

(airspeed/60 - 2) x (60/DME)

73
Q

How many miles are published lead radials?

A

2 miles

74
Q

Keying the mic for ___ seconds turns on runway lights for ___ minutes.

A

3, 5, or 7 times within 5 seconds
15 minutes

75
Q

At what distance from the FAF does the HSI go from approach armed to approach active on an RNAV approach?

A

2

76
Q

When do you start timing in a procedure turn?

A

Over or outbound and abeam

77
Q

When flying a PAR how often will you receive radio transmissions on vectors and on final? What about for an ASR?

A

For a PAR you will receive transmissions every 1 minute on vectors and every 5 seconds when on final.
For an ASR, you will receive transmissions every 1 minute on vectors and every 15 seconds when on final.

78
Q

What speed should you slow to prior to the FAF?

A

110-120

79
Q

What is the climb gradient on a missed approach?

A

200 ft/NM

80
Q

What is the required visibility for an approach based on?

A

Ability to see the landing environment from the MAP

81
Q

What are the performance flight instruments?

A

Altimeter, VSI, AOA, Turn/bank coordinator, EHSI, Airspeed

82
Q

What are the control instruments?

A

EADI and torque

83
Q

When are you established on a VOR approach?

A

Within one dot (1 mile)

84
Q

Where would you find the altitude that you should be at by the FAF on an ILS approach?

A

Altitude next to lightning bolt (glideslope intercept)

85
Q

Do ILS approaches adhere to step down altitudes after the FAF?

A

No
If it asks what altitude you will be at when flying the LOC, the answer would be 2000 (or whatever) because LOC (and all non-precision approaches) adhere to step downs, ILS’s do not. <- that is from one of the pdfs already in the drive

86
Q

(T/F) Pilots are required to read back all in flight clearance information.

A

False

87
Q

What category aircraft has the largest obstruction clearance radius?

A

Category E

88
Q

What does the runway environment consist of?

A

All of the above
Approach lighting system
Runway end identifier lights
Runway lights
Runway markings
VASI/PAPI
Touchdown zone
Touchdown markings
Touchdown zone lights

89
Q

How long should you time your inbound leg above 14,000 MSL?

A

1.5 minutes

90
Q

How is aircraft category determined?

A

Final Approach speed

91
Q

What is the recommended rate of descent during a low altitude approach?

A

500-2000 fpm

92
Q

What is the first step when performing a missed approach?

A

PCL- MAX

93
Q

The T-6A is a category ___ aircraft because its final approach speed is ___ KIAS.

A

B/110 KIAS

94
Q

What is the range of final approach speeds for a Category B aircraft?

A

91-120 KIAS

95
Q

(T/F) In a nonstandard holding pattern, all turns are made to the right.

A

False

96
Q

(T/F) Approaching the IAF for a procedural track approach, you may use normal lead points to intercept the inbound course.

A

True

97
Q

When loading an approach in the GPS, what is the first step to perform in order to load the approach properly so the waypoints will sequence?

A

Come out of OBS

98
Q

What are the three reasons to execute the missed approach at the MAP?

A

Reasons to go missed
Not enough landing environment visual references to land safely
Not in safe position to land
Directed to do so by the controlling agency

99
Q

(T/F) If the runway is not insight when you reach the VDP, you must go missed.

A

False

100
Q

When may aircrew descend below an MDA or DA?

A

When sufficient visual references with runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing

101
Q

Distances shown in the profile view are given in what units?

A

NM

102
Q

What does the “S” in S-17C for the approach minimums mean?

A

Straight-In

103
Q

What should you review/check before starting a descent? (4 things)

A

Reviews
Instrument procedures
Weather
Heading and attitude systems
Coordinate lost comm procedure if necessary

104
Q

What is the penetration airspeed normally flown in the T-6A?

A

200 KIAS

105
Q

What pitch/power setting should you use for a non-precision descent? What about precision?

A

16%, 1 degree NL
21%, LOL

106
Q

When do you go missed on a VOR approach?

A

DER

107
Q

What is the airport elevation?

A

Highest point on any landing surface

108
Q

When can you descend on an approach?

A

Maintain last known heading/altitude until established and inbound

UPT 2.5 T-6 (10 decks)

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