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UPT 2.5 T-6 > Instrument Test > Flashcards

Instrument Test Flashcards

(108 cards)

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1
Q

Name the three instrument penetration approach procedures/What are the three types of procedural tracks that may be depicted on an approach?

A

DME/non-DME teardrop, radials (straight in), radials and arcs

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2
Q

How many seconds should you time for every 1000 ft you are low before doing a course reversal?

A

15 seconds

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3
Q

What is the descent rate and pitch for a non-DME teardrop?

A

2600-4000 fpm, 8-10 degrees NL

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4
Q

Who can request an enroute descent?

A

Pilot or ATC

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5
Q

What is the descent rate for an approach surveillance radar (ASR) approach?

A

800-1000 fpm

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6
Q

When do you descend during a Holding-in-lieu-of-PT (HILOPT) approach?

A

From the holding fix or on the inbound leg

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7
Q

What airspeed should you maintain for a high altitude descent?

A

200-250KIAS

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8
Q

What is the turn rate for a no-gyro turn?

A

Standard rate turn in pattern, half rate turn on final

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9
Q

What is the clearance and radius of an emergency minimum sector altitude (EMSA)?

A

1000 ft clearance, 100 NM

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10
Q

When should you not fly a procedure turn on an approach?

A

SNERT rules- Straight-in/No-PT/Established in Holding/Radar Vectors/Timing

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11
Q

You should delay your climbout turn until when?

A

400 ft AGL unless you can see the DER. If you can see the DER, delay turn until you are at the DER

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12
Q

When doing a circling approach, if you can’t maintain a visual with the runway, what should you do?

A

Turn toward the runway of intended landing and intercept the missed approach procedure

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13
Q

Decision altitude is reported in ___ and is used in what types of approaches?

A

MSL; precision

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14
Q

For precision approaches, the MAP is the point at which what occurs?

A

When the decision altitude is reached

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15
Q

When transferring from instrument to visual on landing, when should you start looking for visual references?

A

As you approach the MSL altitude for reported ceilings (usually 100-200 ft prior)

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16
Q

What does a Trouble T indicate?

A

Takeoff minimums to avoid obstacles

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17
Q

When flying an RNAV, the approach must be loaded at least ___ miles from the FAF.

A

2

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18
Q

What are the three types of entries into holding?

A

Direct, parallel, teardrop

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19
Q

How many degrees is the buffer zone when choosing an entry method for holding?

A

5

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20
Q

What is the maximum bank angle for an inbound turn?

A

30 degrees

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21
Q

When would you deselect OBS on an approach when being vectored to final?

A

When you are 90 degrees off the approach course

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22
Q

If the holding pattern is over a NAVAID, what should you use to determine the length of the pattern?

A

Timing

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23
Q

If you want to descend 10,000 feet in 20 NM, what pitch should you use?

A

5 degrees

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24
Q

What is approach speed in any aircraft?

A

1.3 times the stall speed

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25
From what point do procedure tracks originate?
The IAF
26
If a holding fix is a VOR or VORTAC, how do you determine that you are abeam the fix?
Cone of confusion or when the aircraft passed 90 degrees off the outbound course
27
What are the three types of runway lighting systems?
HIRL (military airfields)/MIRL/LIRL
28
What is reported on a runway remaining marker?
Runway distance remaining in thousands of feet
29
What illusion does breaking out of the weather to a wider than usual runway create?
You are closer/lower than you actually are
30
What are weather ceilings reported in?
AGL
31
What is the missed approach point?
The last point where a decision is made to land
32
When should you slow to holding airspeed with regards to the holding fix?
Within 3 minutes of the fix
33
What are the 4 steps to arcing?
4 steps TIM Determine turn direction Calculate lead point Place head of bearing pointer at the 90 degree index
34
What approach requires more visual cues than a straight in?
Circling
35
When flying a radial approach, what should you do as you pass the FAF?
Turn immediately in the shorter direction of the approach course
36
What are the two approaches the T-6 is not authorized to fly?
TACAN/NDB
37
What clearance does a minimum sector altitude (MSA) or minimum vector altitude (MVA) provide?
1000 ft of obstacle clearance
38
(T/F) The required visibility increases when ALS is inoperative.
True
39
What are the three types of procedure turns?
3 types 45/180 80/260 Racetrack method (base turn/teardrop)
40
If the holding fix is an intersection, when should you start your timing?
Wings level outbound
41
What clearance does the circling MDA provide?
300 ft obstacle clearance
42
When are lost comm instructions given?
Radar downwind or base
43
What are radar approach speeds on downwind/base/final?
Radar approach speeds Downwind: 150-200 Base: 120-150 Final: 110-120
44
When more than one MSA is required, what is it called?
Minimum sector altitude
45
What is circling airspeed and final distance for the T-6?
120/ ¼-½ mile final
46
Where is the lighting diagram located?
Flight Information Handbook (FIH)
47
Is the MDA used for a precision or non-precision approach?
Non-precision
48
When does a precision approach radar (PAR) approach begin?
When the aircraft is in range of the precision radar and contact is established with the final controller
49
If you had to make a new inflight clearance, where would you look for guidance?
Back of the IFR supplement
50
What is the formula to calculate turn radius?
(Airspeed/60)-2
51
What is the maximum airspeed below 10,000 MSL?
250 KIAS
52
For non-precision approaches, how is the MAP defined?
DME, NAVAID, Timing, or GPS waypoint
53
What is the descent rate for a PAR?
400-600 fpm
54
In holding what is the bank angle and rate of turn?
30 degrees/ 3 degrees per second
55
What is the holding airspeed in the T-6?
150 KIAS
56
What illusion do bright lights around a runway at night give you?
The impression of being above glidepath
57
What is the symbol for approach lighting systems and how do you know if it has sequenced flashers?
A circled ‘A’ depicts an ALS system. A dot at the top of the circle depicts sequenced flashers. If the symbol is negative, it is pilot controlled lighting.
58
How do you know if an airport has pilot controlled lighting?
The colors on the symbol are inverted (black background w/ white writing)
59
What is the formula to calculate VSI?
GS x 100 x pitch
60
How many times should you orbit in holding during a HILOPT approach?
Once
61
When flying an RNAV approach, what is the sensitivity of the CDI in approach armed and approach active modes?
At 30 NM it is +/- 1 NM. At 2 miles prior to FAF, it becomes +/- 0.3 NM
62
If holding is not required, when should you be slowed to maneuvering speed?
Prior to the IAF
63
What altitude must you maintain until the red terminating bars are visible?
TDZE + 100 ft
64
If you are inside of a DME arc, where should you put the bearing pointer in relation to the 90 degree index to correct your position?
10 degrees below the index
65
What should your airspeed in the T-6 be when performing a low altitude approach?
120-150 KIAS
66
What are the six T’s? *in order*
Time, Turn, Torque, Twist, Track, Talk
67
Describe touchdown zone/centerline lighting?
Lighting White Lights: Threshold- first 3,000 ft Red/White: 3,000 ft - 1,000 ft remaining Red Lights: last 1,000 ft
68
Which takes precedence? ATC vectors or a published route?
ATC vectors
69
Where can you find information on holding procedures?
AIM
70
Do it you need ATC clearance to perform a sidestep maneuver?
Yes
71
What is the minimum descent gradient formula?
(100s of feet/NM)
72
What is the lead point radial formula?
(airspeed/60 - 2) x (60/DME)
73
How many miles are published lead radials?
2 miles
74
Keying the mic for ___ seconds turns on runway lights for ___ minutes.
3, 5, or 7 times within 5 seconds 15 minutes
75
At what distance from the FAF does the HSI go from approach armed to approach active on an RNAV approach?
2
76
When do you start timing in a procedure turn?
Over or outbound and abeam
77
When flying a PAR how often will you receive radio transmissions on vectors and on final? What about for an ASR?
For a PAR you will receive transmissions every 1 minute on vectors and every 5 seconds when on final. For an ASR, you will receive transmissions every 1 minute on vectors and every 15 seconds when on final.
78
What speed should you slow to prior to the FAF?
110-120
79
What is the climb gradient on a missed approach?
200 ft/NM
80
What is the required visibility for an approach based on?
Ability to see the landing environment from the MAP
81
What are the performance flight instruments?
Altimeter, VSI, AOA, Turn/bank coordinator, EHSI, Airspeed
82
What are the control instruments?
EADI and torque
83
When are you established on a VOR approach?
Within one dot (1 mile)
84
Where would you find the altitude that you should be at by the FAF on an ILS approach?
Altitude next to lightning bolt (glideslope intercept)
85
Do ILS approaches adhere to step down altitudes after the FAF?
No If it asks what altitude you will be at when flying the LOC, the answer would be 2000 (or whatever) because LOC (and all non-precision approaches) adhere to step downs, ILS’s do not. <- that is from one of the pdfs already in the drive
86
(T/F) Pilots are required to read back all in flight clearance information.
False
87
What category aircraft has the largest obstruction clearance radius?
Category E
88
What does the runway environment consist of?
All of the above Approach lighting system Runway end identifier lights Runway lights Runway markings VASI/PAPI Touchdown zone Touchdown markings Touchdown zone lights
89
How long should you time your inbound leg above 14,000 MSL?
1.5 minutes
90
How is aircraft category determined?
Final Approach speed
91
What is the recommended rate of descent during a low altitude approach?
500-2000 fpm
92
What is the first step when performing a missed approach?
PCL- MAX
93
The T-6A is a category ___ aircraft because its final approach speed is ___ KIAS.
B/110 KIAS
94
What is the range of final approach speeds for a Category B aircraft?
91-120 KIAS
95
(T/F) In a nonstandard holding pattern, all turns are made to the right.
False
96
(T/F) Approaching the IAF for a procedural track approach, you may use normal lead points to intercept the inbound course.
True
97
When loading an approach in the GPS, what is the first step to perform in order to load the approach properly so the waypoints will sequence?
Come out of OBS
98
What are the three reasons to execute the missed approach at the MAP?
Reasons to go missed Not enough landing environment visual references to land safely Not in safe position to land Directed to do so by the controlling agency
99
(T/F) If the runway is not insight when you reach the VDP, you must go missed.
False
100
When may aircrew descend below an MDA or DA?
When sufficient visual references with runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing
101
Distances shown in the profile view are given in what units?
NM
102
What does the “S” in S-17C for the approach minimums mean?
Straight-In
103
What should you review/check before starting a descent? (4 things)
Reviews Instrument procedures Weather Heading and attitude systems Coordinate lost comm procedure if necessary
104
What is the penetration airspeed normally flown in the T-6A?
200 KIAS
105
What pitch/power setting should you use for a non-precision descent? What about precision?
16%, 1 degree NL 21%, LOL
106
When do you go missed on a VOR approach?
DER
107
What is the airport elevation?
Highest point on any landing surface
108
When can you descend on an approach?
Maintain last known heading/altitude until established and inbound

UPT 2.5 T-6 (10 decks)

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