Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATPL LAW > Instrument Departures and Approaches > Flashcards

Instrument Departures and Approaches Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Civil Procedure 1L flashcards MBE flashcards MPRE flashcards
1
Q

if IFR departure minima not prescribed on chart what is minima for take off?

A
  • 300ft 1500m vis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Reduced take off minima?

A
  • zero cloud 800m vis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What must have to conduct reduced minima take off? (5)

A
  • centre line marking or lighting
  • take off visibility is confirmed by the pilot by observing runway centre line marking or lighting
  • reduced take off minima on runway to be used are published in applicable AIP
  • any obstacles in take off flight path are taken into account
  • if aircraft two engine propellor, then equipeed with operative auto feather or auto coarse system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Min height for turn after departure?

A
  • 400ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Climb on what before min turn at 400ft?

A
  • runway centreline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unless specified, SID climb gradient = ?

A
  • 3.3% or 200ft/nm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do SIDS terminate?

A
  • When aircraft is on cleared route
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If given a departure instruction containing an initial altitude restriction under radar when can an amended clearance be expected to be received?

A
  • when clear of conflicting traffic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When need to make departure calls at an unattended aerodrome? (2)

A
  • When about to taxi to the take off position

- Immediately before takeoff, with direction of flight if leaving the circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When can a visual departure be made? (2)

A
  • day only

- due regard prevailing met conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What height need to climb to visually when doing visual departure?

A
  • Route MSA; or

- specified upper limit or set heading point or altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When no published departure and flying the other departure options as listed in AIP, what can pilot do for departure?

A
  • Ensure aircraft is adequate to provide terrain clearance to reaching MSA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Max speed in enroute holding pattern?

A
  • 280kts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Max hold speed 14000ft and below? (turb + non turb)

A
  • 230kt (unless followed by initial segment of IAP and calls for higher)
    170kt CAT A/B
    Turb conditions -280 (170 Cat A+B)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Max hold speed 14000-20000ft and below? (turb + non turb)

A
  • 240

- Lesser 280/0.8 (turb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Max hold speed 20000-34000ft and below? (turb + non turb)

A
  • 265

- Lesser 280/0.8 (turb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Max hold speed Above 34000ft and below? (turb + non turb)

A
  • 0.83

- 0.83 (turb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What flexibility either side of a hold pattern entry?

A
  • 5 deg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Names of each sector for a hold

A
  • 1 = Parallel
  • 2 = Offset
  • 3 = Direct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What time outbound for hold entry? (2)

A
  • 1min below 14k

- 1m30sec above 14k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When will an expected approach time be given if an aircraft is instructed to hold at an initial approach fix?

A
  • if delay will exceed 5min
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Holding pattern pattern AoB?

A
  • 25DEG OR 3DEG PER SECOND, WHICHEVER REQUIRES LESSER BANK
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If within 10nm of aid or fix which is intended to conduct an IAP what can you descend to? (3)

A

higher of

  • min holding altitude
  • procedure commencement altitude
  • MSA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If outside controlled airspace what must comply with when descending IFR below MFA?

A
  • IFR table of crusing levels.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What optimum descent gradient needs when descending below MFA?

A
  • 5% 300tt/nm to the first distance or VORSEC step
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What counts as a positive fix when descending below MFA prior to first distance or VORSEC step?

A
  • unambiguous readout for at least 15sec or use of off track VOR or NDB provided intersect angle is 45 or greater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Does a STAR clearance include a clearance for the approach?

A
  • No
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Does a level requirement depicted on a STAR authorise a pilot to meet that requirement?

A
  • No, ATC will assign descent to permit compliance with vertical navigation requirements or advise otherwise.
29
Q

What derives the minimum initial approach altitude? (2)

A
  • min procedure commencement altitude shown on instrument approach chart
  • MSA for the route sector
30
Q

What can be used to determine the MSA used for minimum initial approach altitude? (4)

A
  • MSA for the route including distance steps
  • VORSEC charts
  • 25nm sector altitude
  • TAA for GNSS
31
Q

Can VFR aircraft flying an approach commence from a height lower than the minimum initial approach altitude?

A
  • Yes
32
Q

Do LNAV/VNAV approaches use MDA or DA?

A
  • DA
33
Q

Can you land an aircraft if the flight visibility is less than that prescribed in the applicable AIP?

A
  • No
34
Q

If within _____ deg you can go straight outbound when commencing an approach from the overhead?

A
  • 30deg
35
Q

Can be cleared for an approach with a descent restriction (due to separation with aerodrome vicinity traffic), provided what? (3)

A
  • reported/known cloud base at least 1000ft above the restriction
  • vis >= 8km
  • reason for restriction is passed to pilot
36
Q

When can get visual approach (4)

A
  • request it
  • maintain visual ref to terrain
  • reporting ceiling not below initial approach level for aircraft
  • pilot reports at initial approach level or any time during approach that conditions will permit and reasonable assurance that landing can be accomplished
37
Q

What must pilots have in sight at night to request visual approach?

A
  • runway lights
38
Q

When will ATC advise of visual approach on ATIS? (incl CH)

A
  • day only, 16km, ceiling at least 1000ft above min radar vectoring or applicable IAP commencement altitude
  • CH 11/29 night 16km 5000ft
39
Q

What need for visual approach uncontrolled aerodrome?

A
  • maintain visual ref to terrain
  • ceiling not below initial approach level for aircraft
  • pilot has reasonable assurance at initial approach level or any time during approach that met conditions will permit visual approach and landing to be accomplished.
40
Q

Do normal separation apply when IFR aircraft on visual approach?

A
  • Yes
41
Q

Aircraft category Vat speed ranges? (5)

A
  • A = less than 91
  • B = 91- less than 121
  • C = 121- less than 141
  • D = 141- less than 166
  • E = 166- less than 211
42
Q

Cat B Initial Appch/final/circling/MAP

A
  • Initial = 120-180 (140 reversal)
  • Final = 85-130
  • Circling = 135
  • MAP = 150
43
Q

Cat C Initial Appch/final/circling/MAP

A
  • Initial = 160-240
  • Final = 115-160
  • Circling = 180
  • MAP = 240
44
Q

Do not continue instrument approach at unattended aerodrome unless pilot sure of?

A
  • integration with traffic circuit operating with visibilities down to 1500m
45
Q

If traffic conflict with circuit traffic when conducting IAP unattended what must limit descent to?

A
  • 1200ft above aerodrome elevation
46
Q

If flying a non-DME IAP at unattended aerodrome when should you descend to MDA inbound?

A
  • as soon as possible after base turn to help integrate with traffic as VFR aircraft may be operating up to cloud base
47
Q

When flying an IAP at an uncontrolled aerodrome and have become visual and proceeding visual what rules then apply?

A
  • visual flight rules
48
Q

Remote QNH calc?

A
  • 5ft for every 1nm past 5nm
49
Q

Can remote QNH be used for Baro-VNAV/ or LNAV/VNAV?

A
  • No
50
Q

What things must be visible to descend below MDA/DA? (9) (all or)

A
  • ALS
  • threshold markings
  • threshold lights
  • REIL
  • VASI
  • touchdown zone or zone markings
  • touchdown zone lights
  • runway or runway markings
  • runway lights
51
Q

When must do MAP when circling?

A
  • When any identifiable part of aerodrome not distinctly visible
52
Q

If MAP commenced prior to MAP point what must pilot do?

A
  • Fly to/over the MAP pt then follow MAP
53
Q

If a MAP requires a minimum altitude before turning can ATC (in controlled airspace), direct aircraft to climb to a higher altitude on same track?

A
  • yes
54
Q

Min bank angle for MAP?

A
  • 15deg
55
Q

Can ATC ask aircraft to climb at max rate during MAP to ensure separation from traffic?

A
  • Yes
56
Q

What terrain clearance does MAP offer?

A
  • 98ft at 2.5% (150ft/nm)
57
Q

If NAVAID failure during IAP before visual reference when can you continue using a suitable alternative aid or procedure? (2)

A
  • prevailing met conditions suitable for alternative approach
  • in controlled airspace, position and intentions advised to ATC
58
Q

When, in controlled airspace, can ATC terminate the missed approach and instruct an aircraft to fly a procedure other than the MAP? (2)

A
  • when under radar control and is at or above min radar terrain contour level
  • when aircraft has reached minimum missed approach holding altitude.
59
Q

When can ATC protect the MAP by getting aircraft to circle?

A
  • day or night
  • weather above circling minima (for Cat of aircraft)
  • not to Cat D
  • Cat C must have 2000ft 8km
  • WN by night, only to Cat A and B
60
Q

When will circling not be used by ATC for a MAP?

A
  • met conditions are such there may be doubt aircraft can do it
  • pilot unfamiliar
  • when pilot advises approach control on first contact they dont want to
61
Q

If oceanic comm failure how long hold last assigned speed/level?

A
  • 60min
62
Q

How long hold radar vectors following comm failure?

A
  • 2min
63
Q

What will ATC aircraft will climb to in comm failure?

A
  • flight planned or last level assigned and acknowledged by ATC
64
Q

If given a level restriction how long hold it for before climbing to flight plan specified level in event comms failure?

A
  • 5min
65
Q

If on radar vectors on arrival with comm failure what do?

A
  • hold vector for 2 min, if on initial or intermediate approach maintain last level and intercept final approach track. If outside initial/intermediate then climb to MSA and proceed to aid/fix
66
Q

Can a second attempt at approach and landing at an airport be made with comms failure?

A
  • yes within 30min of expected approach time or ETA
67
Q

What does ‘Cancel Speed Restriction” only refer to?

A
  • Speed restrictions on a SID or STAR, not other published speed restrictions.
68
Q

What hold entry must be used off an Arc?

A
  • 1 or 3

ATPL LAW (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions