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ATPL LAW > Air Operations > Flashcards

Air Operations Flashcards

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1
Q

PIC of an air operation must hold what licences/type rating? (3)

A
  • Current ATPL
  • Current Instrument Rating
  • Applicable aircraft type rating
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2
Q

Total Flight time experience for PIC air operation? (2)

A
  • 1500hrs total

- 500hrs in applicable type of operation or equivalent acceptable to the Director

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3
Q

Total instrument time required for AO PIC? (2)

A
  • 100hrs, 50 mus be actual
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4
Q

Total night time required for AO PIC? (1)

A
  • at least 100hrs
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5
Q

Min licence and ratings required for second-in-command? (3)

A
  • CPL
  • Type Rating
  • Instrument Rating
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6
Q

If PIC becomes incapacitated what does Second-In Command must be able to do? (3)

A
  • Operate aircraft safely under prevailing and forecast WX conditions
  • Perform functions of PIC
  • Land aircraft at destination or subtitle alternate
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7
Q

Cruise relief pilot must have what licence/ratings? (3)

A
  • CPL
  • Type rating
  • Instrument Rating
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8
Q

What must cruise relief pilot be capable of doing in event of incapacitated PIC or SIC?

A
  • Operate aircraft safely in cruise phase until SIC gets to flight deck if PIC incapacitated, or PIC gets to flight deck if SIC incapacitated.
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9
Q

Flying time experience required of ‘Crew member introduction segment’ training pilot? (2)

A
  • 500hrs total including 100hrs PIC in AO; or

- 500hrs on multi-engine aeroplane

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10
Q

Rating required of ‘Crew member introduction segment’ training pilot? (1)

A
  • IR
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11
Q

Instrument Flying time experience required of ‘Crew member introduction segment’ training pilot? (2)

A
  • 40hrs instrument time

- 10hrs of which must be under supervision of instructor

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12
Q

Night Flying time experience required of ‘Crew member introduction segment’ training pilot?

A
  • 25hrs
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13
Q

Can anyone act as a flight crew member if they believe they are, or likely will given the circumstances of the flight, be fatigued enough that it could affect safety?

A
  • No
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14
Q
  • Flight/duty time limits for 28 days and 365 days?
A
  • 28 = 100hrs

- 365 = 1000hrs

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15
Q

General normal rest period and duty period limitation?

A
  • 10hrs for any rest period after duty
  • Max 8hr duty period including a period between midnight and 6am at departure can only be flown for max two successive nights in a 7 day period or twice in a 28 day period.
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16
Q

Internal/domestic AO duty period limits? (2)

A
  • 8hrs flying in any one duty period

- Up to 8.5hrs if already started to finish disrupted schedule

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17
Q

Internal/domestic AO flying hour limits? (3)

A
  • 35hrs in 7 consecutive days
  • 100hrs in consecutive 28 days
  • 300hrs in any 90 consecutive days
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18
Q

Min number of flight attendance for AO (Part 121) prescribed by one of 4 things?

A
  • Manufacturer recommended for emergency evac
  • Specified design criteria
  • MinOne attendant at each occupied compartment
  • IAW table
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19
Q

Min Flight Attendant numbers table?

A
  • 15-50 (1)
  • 51-100 (2)
  • 101-150 (3)
  • 151-200 (4)
  • 201-250 (6)
  • 251-300 (7)
  • 301-350 (9)
  • 351-400 (10)
  • 401-450 (11)
  • 451-500 (12)
    More than 500 = 12 plus 1 per 50
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20
Q

Can operate with minus one for table of one sick?

A
  • Yes, provided min to met manufacturers intent, design criteria, 1 present in each occupied compartment
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21
Q

Before appointed PIC of a particular aeroplane must ensure what experience on that particular make and mode? (single engine & multi engine/reciprocating/turbine & turbojet/turbofan) (3)

A
  • SE = 5hrs and 5 take off and landings
  • ME = 10hrs and 8 take offs and landing
  • TJ - 15hrs and 10 take offs and landings
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22
Q

Does this flight experience need to be gained in flight during air operations?

A
  • yes, except can be done in a sim
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23
Q
  • If first of type can this experience be gained during ferry flights or proving flights?
A
  • Yes
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24
Q
  • Part 125 PIC flight time requirements for VFR AO? (total, cross country, and night)
A
  • 500hrs total
  • 100hrs cross country
  • 25hrs night
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25
Q

Part 125 IFR flight time experience before PIC AO? (total, cross country, instrument flight and night)

A
  • 1200hrs
  • 500hrs cross country
  • 75 actual or simulated of which 25hrs can be in a simulator
  • for night operations, 50hrs night flight time
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26
Q

PArt 125 fight time limitations (28 days and 365 days)

A
  • 28 days = 100hrs

365 = 1000hrs

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27
Q

What must operator of SEIFR under Part 125 ensure for aircraft airworthiness? (3)

A
  • Aircraft is certificated as a turbine powered aircraft, certified for IFR flight, and equivalent to at least FAR23
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28
Q

minimum in time service and IFSD rates before aircraft can be used for SEIFR AO? (2)

A
  • 100,000 hours time-in-service

- IFSD rate not more than 1 per 100,000 hours

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29
Q

Passenger seat limitation and payload capacity limitation for SEIFR?

A
  • 14 seats or less, excluding crew members seats

- Payload capacity of 3410kg or less

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30
Q

Does SEIFR operator need to provide a route guide to PIC including contingency options for obstacle clearance for departure/arrival?

A
  • Yes
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31
Q

What must this route guide contain? (2)

A
  • Any alternative routes to intended runway

- min height and glide profile necessary to reach runway

32
Q

Must not operate SEIFR if prior to take off AEDRS ? (3)

A
  • indicates AEDRS failure
  • AEDRS detects engine exceedance
  • engine instruments detect non-normal engine condition
33
Q

If SEIFR PIC detects non-normal engine indication in flight what must they do? (2)

A
  • Report situation to appropriate ATS unit as soon as practical
  • Proceed to nearest suitable aerodrome
34
Q

If SEIFR PIC on passenger operation notes AEDRS failure what must they do after flight?

A
  • record in technical log
35
Q

Can SEIFR with passengers be conducted for a commercial transport operation?

A
  • No
36
Q

Can Part 121 be done VFR at night?

A
  • No
37
Q

Can Part 121 do extended over water VFR ops?

A
  • No
38
Q

For Part 121 age limit of exit row?

A
  • No for under 15 or adults with an infant
39
Q

Difference between Part 121 and 125 for notification to crew members of disabled or escorted person on bard?

A
  • Both cases PIC is notified by for Part 121 the senior flight attendant is too
40
Q

Each AOC holder for each air operation must record? (2)

A
  • Planned aspects of operation

- Actual accomplishment of operation

41
Q

Should AOC air operation record be permanent?

A
  • Yes
42
Q

Under Part 121 & 125 what is the period requirement for a aircraft maintenance review?

A
  • 12 months
43
Q

Under Part 121&125 can you refuel/defuel with pax on board?

A
  • Yes, provided person operating the aircraft ensures safety and aeroplane evacuation precautions are taken in accordance with procedures in their exposition
44
Q

Can Part 121&125 refuel/defuel with propulsion systems running?

A
  • Yes, provided no pax on board and PIC is responsible for every aspect of the fueling operation
45
Q

Who can manipulate controls of Part 121&125? (2)

A
  • Flight crew member, qualified and authorised by AOC holder

- Authorised representative of Director, qualified, who has permission of AOC holder and PIC and is performing a duty

46
Q

Part 121 altitude restriction of relief pilot occupying a pilot seat?

A
  • FL200 or transition level which ever is higher
47
Q

When can cruise relief pilot sit in pilot seat above min height? (2)

A
  • If PIC in other seat
  • If in other seat by a pilot designated by PIC and qualified by the holder to act as PIC during cruise whilst supervising the cruise relief pilot
48
Q

Part 121&125 PIC must not commence AO IFR if destination weather is? Or?

A
  • Destination airport has weather above minimum published for applicable AIP instrument approach; or they have the required alternates
49
Q

Part 121&125 must nominate an alternate if? (2 - not weather related)

A
  • Departure or destination aerodrome is outside NZ FIR

- Destination aerodrome does not have 2 or more physical separate runways that are suitable IAW flight manual

50
Q

Where does Part 121 AOC holder must state their reduced take off minima procedures?

A
  • In their exposition.
51
Q

Part 121 reduced take off minima ops requires what? (6)

A
  • PIC and SIC are qualified
  • runway has centreline marking or lighting
  • minima is published in AIP
  • if twin prop = operative autofeather
  • runway vis is established using RVR
  • method for observing visibility is acceptable to the Director
52
Q

Part 121 VFR air operations met minima outside controlled airspace? (2)

A
  • ceiling not less than 1000ft AGL, vis not less than 5km

- beneath the ceiling, remaining clear of cloud, and in continuous sight of ground or water

53
Q

Part 121&125 VFR air operations in a multi engine aircraft shall not fly above more than scattered clouds unless? (4)

A
  • IFR capable (crew & aircraft)
  • if engine inop maintain positive slope at 1000ft above the cloud
  • Radio nav equipment to proceed IFR to aerodrome for instrument approach
  • Sufficient fuel and reserves to proceed IFR to aerodrome for instrument approach
54
Q

generally can part 125 do VFR at night?

A
  • No
55
Q

When can Part 125 do VFR at night? (7)

A
  • Established procedures
  • Their operations specifications allow it
  • Depart and arrives at same aerodrome
  • Operation is performed within 25nm of aerodrome and not below 3000ft AGL
  • Ceiling at least 3000ft and vis 16km
  • PIC has an ATPL
  • Each flight crew has an IR
56
Q

Part 121 max clearway distance?

A
  • Half of the take off run available
57
Q

Part 121 wet/contaminated take off distance calculated to what height when using reduced V1?

A
  • 15ft above take off surface
58
Q

Part 121 can wet/contaminated runway take off max weight exceed max dry?

A
  • No
59
Q

Part 121 what atmospheric pressure variation from ISA must pressure altitude be used for takeoff calculations?

A
  • 1%
60
Q

Part 121&125 wind component maximums for take off calculations?

A
  • not more than 50% headwind

- not less than 150% tailwind

61
Q

Part 125 must ensure take off distance required does not exceed _____% of take off run available?

A
  • 85%
62
Q

What heights must obstacle be cleared for net flight path for part 121? (intended bank angle <15deg, and >15deg)

A
  • 35ft if <15deg Aob

- 50ft if >15deg AoB

63
Q

Can a track change of more than 15deg be made less than 50ft on take off for Part 121?

A
  • No
64
Q

Part 121 - Unless approved by Director, bank angle of more than ____ deg cannot be made before _____ ft above take off surface and no more than ______ before _____ above take off surface? And after above _____ no more than _____ deg?

A
  • 15deg
  • 50ft
  • 20deg
  • 400ft
  • 400ft no more than 25deg AoB
65
Q

Part 125 requires critical engine inop net flight path all obstacles must be cleared by _____ft?

A
  • 50ft
66
Q

PArt 125 requires no track changes before ____ ft above take off surface?

A
  • 50ft
67
Q

Part 125 - Unless approved by Director, bank angle of more than ____ deg cannot be made before _____ ft above take off surface and no more than ______ before _____ until above take off surface? And after above _____ no more than _____ deg?

A
  • 15deg
  • 50ft
  • 20 deg
  • 400ft
  • 400ft no more than 25deg
68
Q

Part 121 landing threshold crossing height for landing distance calculations?

A
  • 50ft
69
Q

What % or runway landing distance required for DRY runway Part 121? (Turbojet or Propellor = 2)

A
  • Jet = 60%

- Prop = 70%

70
Q

For dispatch of Part 121&125 must assume aeroplane will land on most favourable runway taking into account? (4)

A
  • forecast met conditions
  • surrounding terrain
  • approach and landing aids
  • obstacles within the MAP
71
Q

Can Part 121&125 dispatch if runway landing performance conditions/requirements unfavourable at destination?

A
  • yes if hold an alternate
72
Q

What % landing distance required for DRY runway Part 125? (below 5700kg and above 5700kg = 2)

A
  • Below 5700kg = 85%

- Above 5700kg = 70%

73
Q

Part 121&125 Wet runway factor?

A
  • LDA at least 115% of landing distance required
74
Q

Part 121&125 contaminated runway factor?

A
  • LDA at least 115% of landing distance required

- Or, IAW contaminated landing distance data

75
Q

Part 121&125, if shorter landing distance is permitted by performance data than 115% can it be used?

A
  • Yes, but not less than dry runway requirement
76
Q

Can part 121 do VFR at night?

A
  • No

ATPL LAW (10 decks)

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