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ATPL LAW > Airspace and Aerodromes > Flashcards

Airspace and Aerodromes Flashcards

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1
Q

Generally what altimeter must be set if in Auckland Oceanic (outside of Raro, Samoa and Norfolk QNH Zones?

A
  • 1013.2
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2
Q

When should non-QNH aerodromes within NZZO change between 1013.2 and appropriate aerodrome QNH value?

A
  • Within 10nm and below 3000ft
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3
Q

What altimeter setting in between 13000ft and FL150 in the NZZC?

A
  • area QNH as advised by ATC
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4
Q

Min FL when QNH below 980?

A
  • FL160
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5
Q

How set altimeter if departing an aerodrome with no QNH?

A
  • Set aerodrome elevation on the altimeter and obtain appropriate setting as soon as possible and in any case before entering IMC
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6
Q

Can you set on QNH from aerodrome elevation before entering IMC?

A
  • No
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7
Q

How many QNH zones in NZFIR?

A

-12

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8
Q

Below what latitude do you need to use grid track, not mag track, to determine IFR crusing levels?

A
  • 60deg South
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9
Q

When can 14000ft non standard be issued by ATC?

A
  • emergency or hazardous weather
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10
Q

Outside controlled airspace when can operate in transition layer?

A
  • if unable to operate at any other layer, established no conflict, given prior notification to ATS unit
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11
Q

Lowest odd/even FL/Altitude available IFR in NZZO and NZZC?

A
  • FL30/3000ft and FL40/4000ft
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12
Q

Can you use oceanic cruising levels in NZZC?

A
  • yes, if international flights leaving or transiting NZFIR
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13
Q

What mode must transponder be on in mandatory airspace?

A
  • A and C, or Mode S
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14
Q

Who assigns Mode S code?

A

state of registry

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15
Q

Do you need specific approval to operate in TM airspace without an operable one? Who from?

A
  • Yes

- The ATC unit who has jurisdiction of that airspace

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16
Q

How man aircraft need to have transponder on in formation?

A

Only 1

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17
Q

How many times must ATC verify altitude from a transponder before they can use it for separation purposes?

A
  • Once
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18
Q

What SSR code to be set if IFR (including Oceanic) but not assigned a code by ATC yet?

A
  • 2000
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19
Q

What difference between reported altitude and coded altitude will ATC ask pilot to check altimeter setting? If in error what will ATC ask them to do?

A
  • 200ft

- Turn off mode C

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20
Q

If a transponder fails what will ATC let the aircraft do? (partial and complete failures)

A
  • Partial = allow to continue with minimum restriction to final destination and thereafter to repair base
  • Complete = some restrictions to destination. not allowed to continue until repaired. May get special approval to go to repair base (restricted to periods of low density and alternate routes).
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21
Q

Is IFR separated from VFR in class D?

A
  • No
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22
Q

Is IFR separated from SVFR in class D?

A
  • Yes
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23
Q

Any speed limits IFR class D?

A
  • Yes
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24
Q

What must upper limit of a control zone be matched to?

A
  • A VFR cruising level
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25
Q

What must control zone be as small as practical to accommodate?

A
  • Protecting the flight paths of IFR arriving and departing flights
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26
Q

When may director designate a control zone? (2)

A
  • determines an aerodrome control service or approach control service is required
  • traffic density and pattern requires controlled airspace
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27
Q

How far out in direction of instrument approaches must a control zone go?

A
  • At least 5nm
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28
Q

What must a CTRconsider with regard to aircraft when determining the lateral limits?

A
  • The category of IFR aircraft
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29
Q

Should lateral limits of CTR use prominent geographical features in its design?

A
  • Yes
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30
Q

Upper limit of a CTA?

A
  • FL660
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31
Q

Lower limit of CTA must? (3)

A
  • be at least 500ft below the flight paths of IFR flights that director determines to require an air traffic control service
  • established at highest practical altitude
  • not less than 700ft above the earth
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32
Q

When lower level of CTA is higher than 3000ft what must in coincide with?

A
  • A VFR cruising level
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33
Q

IF one airspace is above another must the lower one be extended upwards to meet the bottom of the other one?

A
  • Yes
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34
Q

When may director specify a CTA? (3)

A
  • A terminal area where approach control service required at confluence of ATS routes
  • Upper area if determines an area control service is required
  • Oceanic, if an area control service is required
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35
Q

Purpose of VFR transit lane? (2)

A
  • Separate VFR from departing/arriving IFR

- Permit transiting VFR to operate without ATC clearance

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36
Q

Must VFR transit lane be clear of IFR airspace that encompasses IFR arrival/departure procedures?

A
  • Yes
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37
Q

Must VFR transit lane have buffer zones for IFR arrival/departure procedures?

A
  • Yes
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38
Q

What class airspace is VFR transit lane?

A
  • G
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39
Q

When can VFR transit lane be active?

A
  • Day only
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40
Q

What letter identifies a VFR transit lane?

A
  • T
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41
Q

Do VFR need clearance to operate in GAA?

A
  • No
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42
Q

When can GAA be activated? (3)

A
  • Permanently during the day; or
  • by approval of ATC unit; or
  • by prior notification from an airspace user to the ATC unit responsible for the airspace
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43
Q

What class airspace is GAA?

A
  • G
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44
Q

If the GAA is made active by the ATC unit can pilot still occupy it without approval?

A
  • Need ATC approval and need to leave when asked
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45
Q

Do you need to follow VFR cruising levels in GAA?

A
  • No
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46
Q

Should you make entry and exit reports and maintain listenout when using a GAA?

A
  • Yes
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47
Q

What SSR code should be used for VFR using a GAA?

A
  • 1400
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48
Q

‘ATS Notification’ GAAs may require ____ min delay to vacate IFR aircraft using that airspace.

A
  • 10min
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49
Q

Purpose of visual reporting points? (2)

A
  • facilitate ATS requirements for information regarding progress of aircraft, or
  • facilitate safe conduct of flight by visual reference
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50
Q

Director must ensure visual reporting points are based on prominent geographical features and are identified by names or identifiers that? (3)

A
  • recognisable
  • not confused with other points in same area
  • don’t create confusion
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51
Q

When ATC goes off watch and a remote ATS unit is provided for communications, what level of service will they provide?

A
  • FIS only
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52
Q

What must administering authority of a restricted area must manage? (3)

A
  • Entry of aircraft
  • Operation of aircraft within
  • Exit of aircraft
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53
Q

Can director impose conditions under which aircraft may operate in restricted area?

A
  • yes
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54
Q

If restricted area activated by NOTAM what min period must be given to activate? unless?

A
  • 24hrs

- Emergency

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55
Q

Pilot may not use restricted area unless? (3)

A
  • Has approval of administering authority
  • complies with promulgated conditions
  • complies with and conditions imposed by administering authority
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56
Q

Are non-NZ registered aircraft subject to entry control into MOA?

A
  • No, but should comply in interests of aviation safety
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57
Q

Letter identifying a MBZ?

A
  • B
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58
Q

When must broadcast position and intentions in MBZ? (4)

A
  • entry
  • joining aerodrome traffic circuit
  • prior to entering runway
  • regular specified intervals
59
Q

What must be done for extra safety measures in MBZ?

A
  • landing lights or anti col used when fitted
60
Q

Can NORDO use MBZ?

A
  • Yes, only if another station such as ATS or another aircraft does required broadcasts and complies with lights/anti col if fitted
61
Q

Do aircraft in formation need to make all the MBZ broadcasts?

A
  • Only the lead aircraft
62
Q

Volcanic zone letter?

A
  • V
63
Q

Must not operate in a VHZ when? (2)

A
  • night

- IMC

64
Q

Can operate in VHZ by day VMC if after considering all of the following will not affect safety? (3)

A
  • relevant met information contained in NOTAM
  • SIGMET info
  • other info provided for this purpose by part 174 organisation
65
Q

ATC will not clear an aircraft to operate on any route or procedure that infringes a VHZ unless?

A
  • specifically requested by pilot during daylight hours
66
Q

Will ATC separate from an ash cloud as determined by a SIGMET or reported by pilots?

A
  • No, responsibility of pilot to evaluate and adjust route accordingly
67
Q

VHZ alert level radius from vent and upper limit?

A 
1/3nm/###
2/8nm/FL150
3/16nm/FL330
4/27nm/FL480
5/50nm/FL660
68
Q

Can a pilot operate in a danger area?

A
  • Yes, if they determine that the activity associated with the danger will not affect the safety of the aircraft
69
Q

Are CFZ’s mandatory?

A
  • No, advisory in nature
70
Q

What/when should pilots transmit in CFZ?

A
  • Position/Altitude/Intentions relevant to prominent reporting points or features at entry, or at other times for traffic safety
71
Q

How are temporary hazards notified? (2)

A

Notam or SUP

72
Q

Hi high can kites/kytoons fly away from an active movement area of an aerodrome without advice outside controlled airspace?

A
  • 400ft
73
Q

For RNP ops do you need to carry RNP ops manual?

A
  • Yip
74
Q

For RNP ops each crew member must have adequate knowledge and familiarity with? (3)

A
  • the aircraft
  • aircraft navigation system
  • procedures to be used, including contingency procedures
75
Q

Must PIC ensure for RNP ops that aircraft and nav systems are both approved and RNP performance can be met for planned route?

A
  • Yes
76
Q

Letters in flight plan for approved RNP and GNSS? (2)

A
  • R & G
77
Q

What must operator of an aircraft have at their principal base and available for inspection for RNP ops?

A
  • the current RNP ops procedure manual
78
Q

Each RNP procedure manual shall contain? (5)

A
  • Name of operator
  • registration/make/model of aircraft
  • type/manufacturer/model of nav system
  • maintenance program (test and inspection, and recording discontinued RNP operations because of malfunction)
  • Procedures
79
Q

Should RNP procedures include in flight drills that include cross checking to catch deviations before inadvertent deviation from ATC cleared routes?

A
  • mitigation of large scale errors due to malfuncntion

-

80
Q

How many independent LRNS must be serviceable and accurate prior to entering RNP airspace? Unless? When must they be serviceable by? (2)

A
  • two, unless authorised by ATC

- 30 min prior to entry and upon entry

81
Q

if within RNO airsapce or within 30min of entry what must do if aircraft cannot meet RNP or down to single LRNS?

A
  • Notify ATC
82
Q

Operators wishing to access 30/30 separation minima must annotate what in their flight plan? (10. Equipment, 10. Surveillance, and 18.)

A
  • J, R, and Z
  • D in surveillance
  • NAV/RNP4
83
Q

RNP 10 and RNP4 lateral separation?

A
  • RNP10 = 50nm

- RNP4 = 30nm

84
Q

No one can use a place as an aerodrome unless that place is?

A
  • Suitable for the purposes of taking off or landing of the aircraft concerned
85
Q

Must you comply with any limitations and operational conditions on the use of a aerodrome notified by the operator?

A
  • Yes
86
Q

Use or runway/water channel for take off or landing at night must lights be activated if installed?

A
  • yes
87
Q

What must runway be clear of during take off or landing? Unless?

A
  • persons, animals, vehicles, vessels, or other obstructions unless persons, vessels, or vehicles essential to the operation
88
Q

No pilot may operate in aerodrome traffic circuit unless aircraft can be manouevred? (2)

A
  • clear of obstructions

- without conflicting aerodrome traffic circuit

89
Q

Define movement area?

A
  • part of aerdrome intended for take off and landing and surface movement of aircraft, includes maneuvering area, maintenance areas, and aprons.
90
Q

‘A’ aerodrome signal?

A
  • Ag ops (including training). May not be conforming to circuit direction. Unattended or FIS aerodrome only
91
Q

White dashed arrow?

A
  • Glider ops, in direction of take off, tow lines like on ground
92
Q

White cross on runway extremities?

A
  • Runway unfit for use
93
Q

White crosses on maneuvering area?

A
  • Ground on which they are displayed is unfit for use
94
Q

Colour of mandatory signs? Need what before proceeding?

A
  • White letter on red background

- ATC clearance to proceed

95
Q

Two types of information signs?

A
  • Location (black background)

- Direction (yellow background

96
Q

Where are intersection take off signs located (Inset Takeoff position)? What do they display?

A
  • Opposite an intermediate taxiway

- Takeoff run available from that point

97
Q

Is a displaced landing threshold also a displaced take off threshold?

A
  • No
98
Q

What height should aircraft fly across the threshold markings?

A
  • 50ft AGL
99
Q

What do the aiming point markers on a runway look like and what are they abeam?

A
  • Two large rectangular stripes

- Abeam PAPI to desired indicate touchdown location

100
Q

What do fixed distance markers look like and what are they for?

A
  • Two large rectangular blocks 300m from threshold each block made up of thin stripes
  • Should touch down here if crossing threshold at 50ft
101
Q

Touchdown zone markers are where and what for?

A
  • on runways with instrument approaches and several pairs of rectangular blocks at 150m intervals from threshold to reference pilots their progress to the fixed distance markers
102
Q

Which hold point position marking is closer to the runway, type A or type?

A
  • A
103
Q

How is highest elevation on aerodrome chart depicted?

A
  • An arrow
104
Q

Runway edge lighting (REDL) should be provided when? (3)

A
  • Runway intended to be used at night
  • A precision approach runway intended to be used by day or night
  • For a runway intended for take off with an operating minima below RVR of 800m by day
105
Q

How far should REDL be maximum apart?

A
  • 60m (100m for non instrument runway)
106
Q

When do REDL go yellow?

A
  • 600m or one third of runway left (whichever is less)
107
Q

3 types of light intensity?

A
  • Low, medium, high
108
Q

On precision approach runways what lighting system is provided and how many stages of intensity control?

A
  • High

- 5

109
Q

Number of intensity settings at non-precision runways?

A
  • 2
110
Q

What are runway threshold lights?

A
  • Green lights extending across the runway threshold
111
Q

RENL (Runway end lighting) are what colour? At least how many?

A
  • red

- at least 6 of them

112
Q

When should runway centreline lighting be used? (4)

A
  • Cat II or II runway
  • Cat 1 particularly when aircraft high speeds or where width between REDL >50m
  • runway used for take offs below RVR 400m
  • runway used for take offs >400RVR if aircraft high speeds or REDL >50m apart
113
Q

How far apart Cat III RCLL?

A
  • 7.5 or 15m
114
Q

How far apart Cat II RCLL?

A
  • 7.5, 15m, or 30m
115
Q

Max off centreline RCLL can be?

A
  • 0.6m
116
Q

Colours of RCLL?

A
  • white to 900m to run
  • red and white 900-300m to run
  • red <300m to run
117
Q

If RCLL spaced 7.5m then how are the red/white alternated between 900-300m?

A
  • in pairs
118
Q

How far does touchdown zone lights extend into the runway?

A
  • 900m
119
Q

Colour of REIL and do they flash?

A
  • Yes, 60-120 flashes per min
120
Q

4 types of approach lighting systems?

A
  • Low intensity ALS (1 red bar)
  • Low intensity ALS (2 red bar)
  • High intensity (Cat I)
  • High intensity (Cat II or III)
121
Q

ALS may be augmented by what (3)

A
  • RLLS - runway lead-in lights
  • CGL - Circle guidance
  • REIL
122
Q

What ALS should be at a domestic precision approach CAT I? International Cat I?

A
  • Low intensity ALS (2 bar) (domestic)

- High intensity (CAT 1) (International)

123
Q

When are circle guidance lights used?

A
  • When existing approach and runway light systems don’t permit ident of runway or appch area, to a circling aircraft. Or terrain and obstacles restrict circuiting area.
124
Q

Where should CGL lights start?

A
  • Downwind
125
Q

What colour CGL? Flashing?

A
  • Amber

- Can be

126
Q

When runway lead in lighting be used? Max distance apart?

A
  • to provide visual guidance along a specified approach path for avoiding hazards such as terrain or noise or for take off.
  • 1600m
127
Q

When should lead in lights extend to?

A
  • Until ALS or runway lights in view
128
Q

How long PAL on when activated?

A
  • 20min
129
Q

How activate PAL?

A
  • 5 transmissions in 3 sec
130
Q

How change PAL intensity?

A
  • Same as activation but after 10 sec warm up hold down last transmission (will cycle through intensity), release at desired level
131
Q

How keep PAL going?

A
  • Resets the 20min every time a transmission is made
132
Q

Any warning when PAL goes off?

A
  • No
133
Q

How many lights on VASIS?

A
  • eight - 2 pairs of two each side
134
Q

On glideslope for VASIS?

A
  • Top pairs (each side) red/ bottom pairs (each side) white
135
Q

How many lights for T-VASIS?

A
  • 20
136
Q

On G/S for T-VASIS?

A
  • wing bar white, all else off
137
Q

Below and above slope for T-VASIS?

A
  • Below = wing bar white, and 1, 2, or 3 fly up lights white. Or when well below wing bars and fly up lights red
  • Above - wing bars white and 1,2 or 3 fly down lights white .
138
Q

What side of runway should PAPA be?

A

Left

139
Q

On glide slope for PAPI which side should red lights be?

A
  • runway side
140
Q

Frequency of white flashes for an aerodrome beacon?

A
  • 12-30 per minute
141
Q

When should an aerodrome beacon be provided?

A
  • for an aerodrome intended to be used at night unless deemed unnecessary
142
Q

What colour aerodrome identification beacon? How identification transmitted? Min angle up?

A
  • Green
  • Morse code
  • Up min 45deg
143
Q

When use aerodrome identification beacon?

A
  • At aerodrome intended for use at night and cannot be easily identified from the air by other visual means.

ATPL LAW (10 decks)

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