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ATPL LAW > Air Traffic Services > Flashcards

Air Traffic Services Flashcards

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1
Q

Generically what 3 callsigns can be used?

A
  • Operator agency followed by flight identification
  • Operator agency followed by last three letters of registration
  • Manufacturer, or model followed by last three letters of registration
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2
Q

When can callsign be abbreviated after initial contact?

A
  • Can just do last three letters of registration
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3
Q

When can operator agency or manufacturer callsigns be approved for? (4)

A
  • regular air transport service
  • SAR
  • medical transfer or medical emergency flight
  • Police operation authorised by Commisioner
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4
Q

When position reporting on departure at procedural airport do you need to have to also give altitude passing to nearest 100ft?

A
  • yes
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5
Q

Position reporting requirement enroute if not defined by reporting points?

A
  • 30min
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6
Q

In controlled airspace when report when holding? (4)

A
  • first crossing aid/fix to enter
  • when established after sector 1 or 2 entry
    Training - when inbound and requesting onwards or approach
  • when crossing fix or vacating
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7
Q

When need to call at Intermediate approach fix in controlled aerodrome?

A
  • GNSS approach
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8
Q

When do you not need to call at FAF at controlled aerodrome?

A
  • When already called visual to tower
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9
Q

When can you call visual at a controlled aerodrome IFR?

A
  • When ground or water becomes continually visible and flight by reference to instruments no longer required.
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10
Q

Do you need to call current altitude on fist contact with tower when on visual approach?

A
  • Yes
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11
Q

Altitude and radius within to talk to aerodrome with AFIS/uncontrolled?

A
  • 3000ft and 10nm
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12
Q

What calls need to be made at AFIS aerodrome/uncontrolled when on the ground intending to take off? (2)

A
  • when about to taxi to the take off position

- immediately before take off, and if vacating, direction of flight

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13
Q

If in transit what distance need to talk to AFIS/uncontrolled?

A
  • 5-10nm
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14
Q

Steady green? (2)

A
  • F = cleared to land

- G = cleared for take off

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15
Q

Steady Red? (2)

A
  • F = Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

- G = Stop

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16
Q

Series of green flashes? (2)

A
  • F = Return for landing (clearance to land will be given in due course)
  • G = Cleared to taxi
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17
Q

Series of red flashes? (2)

A
  • F = Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

- G = Taxi clear of landing area in use

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18
Q

Flashing white? (2)

A
  • F = Land at this aerodrome and proceed to landing

- G = Return to start point on aerodrome

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19
Q

Alternating red and green flashes? (2)

A
  • F = Danger, be on alert

- G = Danger, be on alert

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20
Q

When given steady red in flight what does it mean when it says continue circling?

A
  • Continue tracking via aerodrome traffic circuit - do not orbit in position
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21
Q

How long before entering TIBA airspace should the listening watch commence?

A
  • 10min
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22
Q

When TIBA broadcast be made for takeoff?

A
  • As soon as appropriate prior to or after take off
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23
Q

How many minutes prior to a reporting point, crossing, and intervals between points should TIBA broadcasts be made?

A
  • 10min
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24
Q

How many minutes prior to or crossing an ATS route should TIBA broadcast be made?

A
  • 10min
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25
Q

When should altitude or FL change be broadcast on TIBA? (3)

A
  • Where possible 2-5min prior
  • When changing
  • When levelling
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26
Q

Should TIBA broadcasts be acknowledged?

A
  • No unless potential collision risk is perceived.
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27
Q

Do normal position reporting procedures apply under TIBA?

A
  • yes
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28
Q

When can you not comply with an ATC clearance or instruction? (2)

A
  • When responding to an ACAS resolution advisory or GPWS/TAWS
  • If complying will break a rule
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29
Q

When is a clearance in effect?

A
  • When it is read back
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30
Q

When a clearance is done electronically when is it in effect?

A
  • Acknowledgment of receipt
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31
Q

Who requires a clearance to operate within manouevering area at a controlled aerodrome?

A
  • Pretty much everyone!
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32
Q

What does a clearance not absolve a pilot from? (2)

A
  • compliance with rules

- applying procedures for safety of flight

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33
Q

Does IFR need a clearance before operating an IFR flight in controlled airspace?

A
  • Yes (hence IFR plan you request airways clearance).
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34
Q

Do you need to maintain two way comms when operating within vicinity of AFIS aerodrome if equipped with a radio?

A
  • yes
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35
Q

When do you need to advise AFIS aerodrome your intended use of that aerodrome? (3)

A
  • prior to taxiing on maneuvering area
  • prior to landing or taking off
  • entering aerodrome traffic circuit
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36
Q

If no radio when need to talk to AFIS and advise intentions? (2)

A
  • prior to taxiing on maneuvering area

- entering aerodrome traffic circuit

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37
Q

Does VFR need clearance into class e?

A

No

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38
Q

When IFR flights not separated in Class D?

A
  • When flights have been cleared to climb or descend maintaining own separation VMC
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39
Q

Are IFR & VFR separated in Class D?

A
  • not by day
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40
Q

When are SVFR flights separated?

A
  • When reported visibility less than 5km
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41
Q

If VFR aircraft on common airspace level in Class D and IFR above at lowest applicable cruising level in Class C are they separated?

A
  • No
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42
Q

When can vertical separation be reduced to 500ft in controlled airspace?

A
  • Both aircraft are medium or light, and lower is VFR or SVFR operating at 4500ft or below
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43
Q

Min vertical sep above special use airspace?

- Danger/Restricted/MOA established for IMC or SVFR activity?

A
  • 1000ft (2000ft above FL290)
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44
Q

Min vertical sep above special use airspace?

- Danger/Restricted/MOA established for VMC activity?

A
  • 500ft (1000ft above FL290)
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45
Q

Min vertical sep above special use airspace?

- Danger/Restricted/MOA not established for aircraft activity and Volcanic hazard areas?

A
  • no minimum
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46
Q

Types of horizontal separation? (4)

A
  • Longitudinal
  • Lateral
  • Radar
  • Geographic
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47
Q

How is longitudinal separation expressed as? (2)

A
  • distance

- time

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48
Q

Definition of longitudinal separation?

A
  • spacing between estimated positions of aircraft concerned is never less than prescribed minimum
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49
Q

How achieve longitudinal separation? (4)

A
  • depart specified time
  • lose time to arrive over specific location at specified time
  • hold at a specific location until a specified time
  • insuring aircraft are never less than specified distance apart
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50
Q

How can longitudinal separation be reduced on aircraft on reciprocal tracks outside of radar cover? Who’s responsible for ensuring correct identification?

A
  • Report sighting and passing aircraft, by day or night,

- PIC

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51
Q

How is lateral separation area of conflict define?

A
  • Apply navigation tolerance for navaid being used for track guidance, plus a buffer area, where they overlap is lateral separation point
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52
Q

If distance reference cant be used for lateral separation how can it be done other than by radar? (2)

A
  • Determined by a point using NAVAID

- Visual reference (day only)

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53
Q

What height can geographic separation be used up to in TMAs and CTRs?

A
  • 6000ft
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54
Q

How is separation by GNSS or DME usually applied?

A
  • by direct speech by ATC
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55
Q

When can visual separation be used to reduced separation in class C and D? (8)

A
  • daylight
  • pilot request
  • both on same freq (except adjacent radar sectors)
  • both remain VMC
  • no possibility of incorrect identification
  • each continuously visible
  • both pilots concur
  • pilot of succeeding has preceding in sight and can maintain it
56
Q

When can ‘in vicinity of aerodromes’ be used to reduced separation? (3 different times)

A
  • controller has each aircraft in continuous sight
  • each pilot can see each other and report so
  • succeeding pilot has preceding in sight and can maintain visual separation
57
Q

When can ‘composite visual separation’ be used to reduced separation?

A
  • when tower controller can see on, and knows where the other one is in both position and track and geographic separation is not practicable.
58
Q

When can tower controller issue composite visual separation? (3)

A
  • one aircraft continuously in sight within 10nm
  • route and intentions of other is known and position confirmed via radar or other means
  • instructions, when required, are issued to aircraft in sight to ensure adequate separation.
59
Q

If aircraft instructed to maintain visual separation and lose sight what must pilot do?

A
  • notify ATC
60
Q

When told to follow visually what must pilot do? (2)

A
  • ensure a safe landing interval

- accept noise compliance and wake turbulence

61
Q

As part of establishing a safe landing interval when following visually what must pilot do? (3)

A
  • recognise or request approach characteristics of that aircraft
  • establish aircraft in configuration and speed that will preserve spacing
  • go direct to aerodrome traffic circuit and not deviate from final approach or runway centreline without ATC clearance
62
Q

Can night visual separation at night?

A
  • Yes, only within vicinity of aerodromes
63
Q

What does term ‘adequate separation’ mean when visually following?

A
  • Spacing required for safe operation, or to achieve runway separation, without need for sudden or violent manouevres
64
Q

When can own separation VMC be requested IFR? (3)

A
  • Class D, daylight, and only when not under radar service
65
Q

Conditions when operating under own separation VMC when IFR? (6)

A
  • all essential pilots must agree
  • all on same freq
  • clearance will be for a specific period
  • Alternate instructions given if maintaining VMC may not be possible
  • Must inform ATC if unlikely to maintain IMC and get alternate instructions before IMC
  • essential traffic passed to all affected flights
66
Q

Min normal radar horizontal separation? When reduced?

A
  • 5nm
  • Reduced to 3nm inside 60nm Auckland, Ohakea, Wellington, CH, Te Weraiti
  • Or when aircraft on reciprocal tracks have radar symbols separated
67
Q

What is essential traffic?

A
  • traffic where provision of separation is applicable but it has been reduced and is not separated by prescribed minima e.g. flights maintaining own separation VMC
68
Q

Min lat/ & long separation for RNP10?

A
  • 50nm
69
Q

What phases of flight is distance based wake turbulence separation applied? (3)

A
  • Directly behind within 0.5nm (laterally) and at same level or less than 1000ft below
  • aircraft is crossing behind another aircraft at same level or less than 1000ft below
  • both using same runway or parallel runways less than 760m behind
70
Q

Distance wake turb behind A380? (3)

A
  • A380 = 4nm
  • Non A380 Heavy = 6nm
  • Medium = 7nm
71
Q

Distance wake turb behind Heavy? (2)

A
  • Heavy - 4nm

- Medium - 5nm

72
Q

In distance based wake turb if the distance is achieved but within _____ minutes what will ATC say?

A
  • 2min

- Caution wake turb

73
Q

Time based wake turb - same direction runway - are applied when? (3)

A
  • Same runway
  • parallel less than 760m
  • where possible projected flight paths will cross at same altitude or less than 1000ft
74
Q

Time based wake turb same direction runway - arriving flights behind A380? (3)

A
  • A380 = 2min
  • Non A380 Heavy = 2min
  • Medium = 3min
75
Q

Time based wake turb same direction runway - arriving flights behind Heavy? (2)

A
  • Heavy = 2min

- Medium = 2min

76
Q

Time based wake turb same direction runway - departing flights behind A380? (3)

A
  • A380 = 2min (3min intermediate t/o)
  • Non A380 Heavy = 2min (3min intermediate t/o)
  • Medium = 3min (4min intermediate t/o)
77
Q

Time based wake turb same direction runway - departing flights behind Heavy? (2)

A
  • Heavy = 2min (3min intermediate t/o)

- Medium = 2min (3min intermediate t/o)

78
Q

Arriving/departing flights awake turb only applied when?

A
  • When arriving going through departing flight path - i.e. arriving aircraft has displaced threshold
79
Q

Arriving/departing flights wake turb generally anything behind A380 arriving or departing? Heavy arriving or departing?

A
  • 3min A380 arriving or departing

- 2min Heavy arriving or departing

80
Q

Time based wake turb - opposite direction ruwnay - are applied when? (3)

A
  • Same runway
  • parallel less than 760m
  • where possible projected flight paths will cross at same altitude or less than 1000ft
81
Q

Arriving and departing - opposite direction - A380 leading aircraft (take off or landing or low or missed approach? (4)

A
  • A380 = 2min
  • Non A380 heavy = 3min
  • Medium = 3min
82
Q

Arriving and departing - opposite direction - Heavy leading aircraft (take off or landing or low or missed approach? (2)

A
  • Heavy = 2min

- Medium = 2min

83
Q

In a crossing or non-intersecting runway with crossing flight paths wake turb aircraft lands prior to the intersection does wake turbulence need to be applied?

A
  • no
84
Q

For crossing wake turb general time behind A380 and Heavy? (2)

A
  • 3min

- 2min

85
Q

When can go above 250kts when otherwise expected to? (2)

A
  • min safe speed in AFM is more than 250kts

- aviation event

86
Q

Min descent height IMC at unattended aerodrome where conflict may exist?

A
  • 1200ft above aerodrome elevation
87
Q

How MSA derived?

A
  • Controlling obstacle within Nav tolerance and buffer area

- 1000ft or 2000ft (mountainous) and if controlling obstacle not surveyed then added 100ft

88
Q

VORSEC and VORTAC charts show higher of which two?

A
  • MSA or MRA
89
Q

Can VORSEC charts be used by ATC to separate?

A

Yes

90
Q

Can a holding aircraft use VORSEC charts?

A

No

91
Q

Before an aircraft leaves a VORSEC chart they must be? (3)

A
  • on a promulgated route at or above MSA
  • Radar control
  • above 13000ft AMSL
92
Q

What distance do TAAs extend out to?

A
  • 25nm
93
Q

To use a TAA must you be travelling to that fix?

A
  • Yes
94
Q

When is radar responsible for terrain clearance?

A

when an aircraft is being vectored

95
Q

If travelling along a boundary line between adjacent or radial between two sectors in a VORSEC, TAA, or 25nmMSA which MSA applies?

A
  • The lowest one
96
Q

How can radar provide terrain clearance? What methods? (5)

A
  • contour levels on display (1000ft, 2000ft, or 3000ft volcanic alert level 1)
  • MSA for route, including descent on VORSEC
  • approved area MSA
  • 25nm sector alt
  • TAA
97
Q

When can “maintain terrain clearance visually” be given?

A
  • In VMC by day IFR arriving or departing on arrangement by pilot
98
Q

Can radar descend to a level lower than we navigation tolerance may be jeopardised?

A
  • Yes
99
Q

Radar vectoring for a departing flight will not be terminated until?

A
  • Aircraft is above MSA for the route
100
Q

For general terrain monitoring how far ahead does radar look for actual versus predicted position and possible terrain infringement?

A
  • 40sec
101
Q

When can MSAW be turned off? (3)

A
  • servicing
  • QNH not available
  • nuisance alerts
102
Q

Which airspace is MSAW generally available in?

A
  • operative controlled airspace
103
Q

What is MSAW configured for? (4)

A
  • where radar services being provided
  • general monitoring in terminal airspace with reliable SSR down to 1000ft AGL
  • Instrument approach path monitoring to within 2nm of threshold provided SSR coverage exists
  • Monitoring suppressed if visual manouevres of leaving controlled airspace
104
Q

Look ahead time for approach path monitoring?

A
  • 15sec
105
Q

What term used when priority is required for weather deviation?

A

“Weather deviation required”

106
Q

How else can get priority for weather deviation?

A
  • Pan call
107
Q

If ATC has conflicting traffic for a request to deviate for weather what will they do?

A
  • advise pilot unable due conflicting traffic and request pilot’s intentions
108
Q

If pilot does not get clearance due to traffic for weather avoidance what must/can pilot do? (4)

A
  • ADVISE ATC of intentions
  • COMPLY with clearance, OR
  • Execute procedures in 2.11.4
  • ESTABLISH voice comms with ATC to expedite dialogue on the situation
109
Q

Is a radar service available in Class G?

A
  • Yes, radar FIS within radar coverage
110
Q

What are radar services limited to VFR in class G? (2)

A
  • Emergency aircraft

- Navigational assistance

111
Q

What should radar speed control be kept within?

A
  • 10kts
112
Q

What distance from touchdown can speed control be maintained to? (2)

A
  • 5nm in instrument approach

- 4nm on visual approach

113
Q

When can ATC vector for a visual approach? (2 - CH)

A
  • day only, vis >16k, reported ceiling at least above applicable minimum radar vectoring altitude
  • by night only at CH for runways 11 or 29 provided visibility is at least 16km and there is no cloud below 5000ft.
114
Q

When is an unknown aircraft considered to be on a conflict path?

A
  • when in opinion of radar controller the projected tracks would reduce separation to less than 3nm
115
Q

If need to deviate from track oceanic without a clearance what must turn angle be done at and maintain a lateral track deviation by?

A
  • 45deg

- 15nm

116
Q

If deviation for weather inside 10nm what altitude must be at?

A
  • stay at assigned
117
Q

If need to deviate due weather more than 10nm and no clearance what must do with height? (NZZO and NZZC)

A 
NZZO
- East/Left=Descend300/Right=Climb300
- West/Left=Climb300/Right=Descend300
(Descend to equator, climb to pole)
NZZC
- North/Left=Descend300/Right=Climb300
- South/Left=Climb300/Right=Descend300
(Descend to Australia, climb to Chile)
118
Q

If deviating due weather oceanic without a clearance what should you squawk?

A
  • 7700
119
Q

Should turn on exterior lights when deviating without clearance oceanic?

A

Yes

120
Q

When finished deviating from track for weather without clearance and returning to track when must be back at assigned flight level?

A
  • within side 10nm
121
Q

When deviating without clearance oceanic what broadcast on 121.5 and 123.45? (4)

A
  • Flight ID
  • Flight level
  • position (including route or track code)
  • intentions
122
Q

When unable to maintain assigned flight level when deviating (without clearance) the pilot should minimise aircraft descent rate until established at ______nm offset at which point climb/descend _____ft different to those levels normally used.

A
  • 15nm

- 300ft

123
Q

If unable to meet RNP criteria when must notify ATC? (2)

A
  • 30min prior to entering

- immediately, if within 30min

124
Q

When report on uncharted oceanic routes?

What about diagonal routes?

A
  • 5deg or 10deg of latitude or longitude
  • Use 10deg if it is traversed in 1hr20min or less
  • Diagonal routes - intervals not less than 1hr20min
125
Q

IFR GPS ole means needs what approval level? (form)

A
  • level 1 on CAA form 2129 and is endorsed as such
126
Q

If aircraft operating in NZFIR IFR sole means GPS what must it be equipped with for ATO and non ATO?

A
  • ATO - at least TWO operable sole means nav systems other than GPS receivers (appropriate for route being flown)
  • Non ATO - at least ONE operable sole means nav systems other than GPS receivers (appropriate for route being flown)
127
Q

What are the 4 nav system performance requirements for sole means navigation?

A
  • accuracy
  • integrity
  • availability
  • continuity of service
128
Q

What is the restriction on use of sole means GPS within NZ FIR?

A
  • Not under IFR using a sole means navigation system which uses only GPS sensors.
129
Q

If operating more than 10 min en-route with RAIM or in GPS DR mode for more than 1 minute what must you do? (2)

A
  • advise ATC

- Verify position every 10min using another IFR approved navigation system

130
Q

Can you commence an instrument approach when RAIM is displayed?

A
  • No
131
Q

Where in NZFIR can pilot operate random routing with GPS primary means navigation?

A
  • Above FL160 within 20nm Mt Cook

- Any other airspace above FL150

132
Q

Can operate random routing GPS primary means without ATC clearance?

A
  • No
133
Q

Can random routing GPS primary means below FL150 be done?

A
  • Yes, AC clearance and ATC continuously monitor for adequate terrain clearance
134
Q

For GPS primary means IA when must RAIM prediction be done and how?

A
  • prior to departure

- Using onboard GPS receiver or approved air traffic service organisation (Part 172)

135
Q

For GPS primary means enroute and terminal navigation must be conducted? (2)

A
  • current GPS database with respect to enroute and area charts
  • cross checking database selected track and distance for accuracy and reasonableness compared to charts
136
Q

If GPS is used as primary means and and alternate is needed what must the alternate have?

A
  • NAVAID with promulgated approach and aircraft is equipped to use it

ATPL LAW (10 decks)

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