Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Peds > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

CSF with lymphocytic predominance and significantly low glucose suggests?

A

TB meningitis

Listeria meningitis in neonates, elderly, pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does Toxoplasmosis present in immunocompetent children?

A

Disseminated LAD
Chorioretinitis
Fever

CNS involvement unusual outside of neonatal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Severe myalgia with poor perfusion, rapid progression over 12-24 hours is concerning for what?

A

Meningococcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nonspecific signs of congenital infection

A

Jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly (reticuloendothelial activation)
Blueberry muffin rash (extramedullary hematopoiesis; also rubella)
Symmetric growth restriction (suggestive of 1st trimester transmission)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Congenital syphilis symptoms

A

Desquamating maculopapular rash (palms/soles)
Rhinorrhea
Skeletal long bone anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What would you see on bone x-ray of congenital syphilis?

A

Bilateral and symmetric metaphyseal erosions and periosteal inflammation of long bones
Pathologic fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are sequelae of untreated congenital syphillis?

A

Saddle nose
Perioral fissures
Hutchinson teeth (bite out of bottom of front upper teeth)
Saber shins (twirled fibula)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Congenital CMV symptoms

A

Periventricular calcifications
Microcephaly
Sensorineural hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Congenital toxoplasmosis symptoms

A

Chorioretinitis
Hydrocephalus
Diffuse intracranial calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is toxoplasmosis transmitted?

A

Exposure to cat feces (litter or unwashed fruits/vegetables)
Undercooked meat from infected animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Congenital rubella

A

Cataracts (white pupillary reflex (leukocoria)
Sensorineural hearing loss
Heart defects (PDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Congenital Zika

A

Microcephaly
Intracerebral calcifications (not periventricular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should not be given for bloody diarrhea in well-appearing low-fever children?

A

Empiric antibiotics - increased risk of HUS if pathogen is high-risk STEC (E coli O157:H7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mucus and blood in stool raise concern for viral or bacterial gastroenteritis?

A

Bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nontender, violaceous cervical lymphadenitis
Chronic

A

Mycobacterium avium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the empiric antibiotic therapy for acute, unilateral cervical lymphadenitis?

A

Clindamycin - good activity against MRSA and S pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Small white spots of buccal mucosa, paired with centrifugal spread of maculopapular rash

A

Koplik spots - Measles (rubeola)

Rash will coalesce into dark-brown color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where do Herpangina (Coxsackievirus A) and HSV 1 oral lesions differ?

A

Coxsackievirus A: posterior oropharynx, gray vesicles/ulcers
HSV1: anterior oral mucosa/lips, clusters of vesicles/ulcers, erythematous and edematous gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is age and seasonality of Coxsackievirus A?

A

3-10 yo
Late summer/early fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do Herpangina and hand-foot-and-mouth disease differ?

A

Herpangina is not associated with rash

Both caused by Coxsackievirus A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis) cause? Treatment?

A

Perianal pruritus, especially at night
Nematode eggs ingested and develop into adult worms in SI
Treat with pyrantel pamoate or albendazole for everyone around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What treatment for Candida infection of perianal area?

A

Clotrimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does Strongyloides cause? Treatment?

A

Urticaria, respiratory problems, abdominal pain

Treat with ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does onchocerciasis present? Treatment?

A

River blindness: ocular lesions, dermatitis
Treat with ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment for scabies

A

Permethrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does schistosomiasis present? Treatment?

A

Urticarial rash on lower legs/feet –> diarrhea, weight loss, RUQ pain
Hematuria with eosinophilia
Associated with swimming in fresh water
Treat with praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What bacteria are often seen with AOM with perforation?

A

Group A Strep
Typically resistant to Bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What antibiotic is S pneumo typically resistant to?

A

Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pediatric septic arthritis - which bacteria likely responsible, by age?

A

Age <3 months: S. aureus, Group B strep, Gram– bacilli
Age >=3 months: S. aureus, Group A strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What virus causes erythema infectiosum?

A

Parvovirus B19 - fifth disease

May also cause arthralgia, arthritis, and myocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Congenital parvovirus can cause what?

A

Severe fetal anemia; hydrops fetalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What virus causes roseola?

A

Herpes virus 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the D-test?

A

Tests for inducible resistance to clindamycin by exposure to macrolides (erythromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Name the 3 stages of pertussis

A

Catarrhal: Mild cough and clear rhinorrhea
Paroxysmal: Whooping cough with posttussive emesis
Convalescent: Resolution over weeks/months

Fever is uncommon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the most common cause of death in pertussis?

A

Pneumonia due to secondary bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treatment for Bordetella pertussis

A

Macrolides - can always prevent carriage/transfer; can reduce severity if given in first 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Children with Dengue fever are at greater risk for what?

A

Dengue hemorrhagic fever - epistaxis, mucosal bleeding, platelets <100,000
May progress to dengue shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Symptoms of Dengue

A

Fever, severe headache, retro-orbital pain, fatigue, severe myalgias or arthralgias
Leukeopenia, thrombocytopenia, mild elevation of hepatic transaminases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Leptospira spirochetes are acquired from where?

A

Animal contact or water/soil contaminated by urine of animals
More common after heavy rainfall or flooding
Incubation up to 1 month
Self-limited in 90% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the phases of leptospira?

A

Septicemic:
Fever, chills, headache, transient rash
Severe myalgias of calves and lumbar area
Conjunctivitis without purulent discharge
Symptoms last up to 1 week, improve 1-4 days, then proceed

Immune-mediated: Vasculitis
Aseptic meningitis
Weil syndrome - jaundice, nonoliguric renal failure, hemorrhage due to thrombocytopenia
Pulmonary hemorrhage with hemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Neonatal treatment for CMV

A

Valganciclovir - treat for 6 months if started in 1st month of life
Only if symptomatic (SGA, microcephaly, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are common causes of aseptic meningitis with lymphocytic predominance?

A

Enterovirus (with maculopapular rash)
Lyme disease (disseminated)
Acute HIV (2-4 weeks after transmission), along with fever, generalized LAD, and maculopapular rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are most common causes of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A

Nontypeable H flu
S pneumo
Moraxella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should Augmentin be used for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A

If symptoms are severe or worsening. Mild disease may be observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Diagnostic criteria (1 of 3) of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

A

Persistent symptoms >=10 days without improvement
Severe onset (fever >39 + drainage) >=3 days
Worsening symptoms following initial improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Fungal URI would be suspected based on what symptoms?

A

Epistaxis
Turbinate destruction
Palatal eschars
Maxillary cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Epiglottitis symptoms and cause

A

Distress (tripod position, sniffing position, stridor)
Dysphagia, dysphonia
Drooling
High fever

H flu type b
Streptococcal species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cellulitis of the submandibular space (Ludwig angina)

A

Tender bilateral induration of the submandibular area
Elevation of the floor of the oropharynx

Fever
Drooling
Muffled voice
Stridor
Dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is chemosis?

A

Swelling of the tissue that lines the eyelid and surface of eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Treatment for Bartonella henselae

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Congenital Chlamydia

A

Conjunctivitis
Pneumonia

52
Q

What does Rubella have that measles doesn’t

A

Arthralgias are possible in adolescents and adults

53
Q

Congenital Listeria

A

Disseminated abscesses
Fever
Skin lesions

54
Q

Acute rheumatic fever carditis shows what on EKG?

A

Prolonged PR interval
Diffuse ST elevations

Friction rub

55
Q

What kind of murmur can acute rheumatic fever cause?

A

Blowing, systolic mitral regurgitation murmur

56
Q

Diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever

A

Joints (migratory arthritis)
Carditis
Nodules (subcutaneous)
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham chorea

Minor: Fever, arthralgia, ESR/CRP, prolonged PR interval

Carditis or chorea alone are sufficient

57
Q

What is most common pathogen for pericarditis and myocarditis?

A

Coxsackie (which can also cause posterior pharyngitis)
Adenovirus

58
Q

Viral myocarditis treatment

A

Supportive (e.g. diuretics, inotropes)
IVIG

Admit to ICU for risk of shock, fatal arrhythmias

59
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi

A

Chagas disease:
Perimyocarditis myocardiopathy
Achalasia

60
Q

Which infections cause subglottic narrowing?

A

Bacterial tracheitis
Croup

Stridor, fever common to both

61
Q

What bacteria has sulfur granules?

A

Actinomyces
Can cause lymphadenitis in neck with sulfur granules

62
Q

What is a cystic hygroma

A

Lateral cystic mass in posterior triangle of neck, usually present at birth

63
Q

Treatment for chronic otitis media with TM perforation?

A

Topical fluoroquinolone
Most commonly Pseudomonas, S aureus
Can occur after weakened TM from negative middle ear pressure (Eustachian tube dysfunction, cholesteatoma)

64
Q

Empiric antibiotics for neonatal sepsis

A

Ampicillin and gentamicin

65
Q

Treatment for Bordetella pertussis

A

Azithromycin

66
Q

What weight requirement for newborn Hep B vaccine?

A

> =2000 g

67
Q

What drug is prophylactic for RSV in those <2 yo and high-risk of complications?

A

Palivizumab

68
Q

Which newborns are most at risk for necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

<32 week premature infants with NG tube and formula feed
Tense and erythematous abdominal distention
Thrombocytopenia and metabolic acidosis are associated with severe disease

69
Q

What is indicated by air within bowel wall (pneumatosis intestinalis) on abdominal X-ray?

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

70
Q

When is drainage indicated in children with parapneumonic effusion?

A

Moderate-large size, respiratory distress

In adults, it is based on fluid analysis

71
Q

How does Zika virus affect the ventricles?

A

Ventriculomegaly

72
Q

What antibiotic for UTI in children?

A

Empiric 3rd-gen cephalosporin - cefixime

73
Q

What is the limited use of ciprofloxacin in children?

A

Pseudomonas UTI

74
Q

What are the different possible manifestations of mumps?

A

Parotitis
Meningitis
Orchitis

75
Q

What is the most common cause of nonhereditary sensorineural hearing loss in children? What is treatment?

A

Congenital CMV infection
Antiviral treatment is indicated for symptomatic infants
Treatment not recommended for asymptomatic patients with isolated SNHL

76
Q

How do serum sickness and serum sickness-like reaction differ?

A

SS - triggered by foreign proteins in antitoxin, antivenom, or mAb; more severe immune complex titer and deposition, complement activation

SSLR - triggered by beta-lactam or sulfa antibiotics (due to genetic deficiencies in eliminating metabolic by-products –> hapten-mediated cytotoxicity T-cell injury or direct cytotoxicity)

77
Q

Serum sickness and serum sickness-like reaction signs/symptoms

A

Mildly pruritic urticarial rash >24h
Multiarticular arthralgia but usually no arthritis
Low-grade fever and generalized LAD

Typically 5-14 days after medication initiation

78
Q

Serum sickness is what kind of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex-mediated)

79
Q

What is trismus?

A

Inability to open mouth fully due to inflammation of pterygoid muscles, seen in peritonsillar abscess

80
Q

What bacteria should be covered for peritonsillar abscess?

A

Group A hemolytic Strep, respiratory anaerobes

81
Q

Patients with sickle cell anemia should be given what kind of prophylaxis?

A

Prophylactic penicillin 2x/day until they reach 5 yo

82
Q

Strawberry tongue is present in what infections?

A

Scarlet fever
Kawasaki disease
Toxic shock syndrome

83
Q

What does anti-DNase B antibody indicate?

A

Post-streptococcal GN

Also low C3, elevated antistreptolysin-O, and positive streptozyme test

84
Q

Reye syndrome pathophysiology

A

Aspirin for viral illness –> mitochondrial dysfunction –> impaired fatty acid metabolism and acute hepatic steatosis –> hepatomegaly

Ammonia accumulates –> cerebral edema –> encephalopathy
ICP - vomiting, lethargy –> seizure, coma, death

85
Q

What are complications of Campylobacter gastroenteritis?

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome
Reactive arthritis

Don’t need to provide antibiotics except severe or high-risk cases (>7d, high fever, bloody stools, patients who are pregnant or immunocompromised or elderly)

86
Q

Toxoplasmosis is from what sources?

A

Cat feces or undercooked meat of infected animals or unwashed produce

87
Q

Beefy red plaques with satellite lesions in groin area

A

Candida dermatitis

88
Q

What infection may present similarly to appendicitis? What differs?

A

Campylobacter gastroenteritis - pseudoappendicitis/infectious ileocecitis

Campylobacter jejuni may initially infect jejunum before spreading to ileum and cecum –> RLQ pain

89
Q

Cystic fibrosis - which bacteria most involved?

A

S aureus at younger ages, especially iso concurrent influenza
Pseudomonas in at older ages

90
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Fulminant meningococcemia causing adrenal hemorrhage:
Sudden vasomotor collapse
Skin rash - Large purpuric lesions on flanks

91
Q

LAD in HIV typically affects which nodes?

A

Axillary, cervical, and occipital

92
Q

Tuberculosis histology

A

Caseating granulomas
Multinucleated giant cells

93
Q

Nontuberculous mycobacterial lymphadenitis - sign, treatment

A

Chronic, violaceous, nontender cervical node
Rifampin + azithromycin

94
Q

Can splenomegaly be present in subacute infective endocarditis?

A

Yes

95
Q

Subacute infective endocarditis glomerulonephritis has what kind of urinalysis?

A

Moderate blood, 2+ protein, RBC casts

96
Q

Infective endocarditis treatment

A

Acute: Empiric vancomycin
Subacute: Based on culture results

97
Q

Does neonatal sepsis cause hypotonia or hypertonia?

A

Hypotonia

98
Q

What are risk factors for AOM?

A

Age 6-18 months
Lack of breastfeeding
Daycare
Cigarette smoke

99
Q

Which of toxoplasmosis vs CMV can cause either macrocephaly or microcephaly and not just microcephaly?

A

Toxoplasmosis

100
Q

Infant botulism presents with what neuronal dysfunctions?

A

Symmetric descending paralysis - affects cranial nerves first, oculobulbar palsy
Autonomic dysfunction - fluctuating HR/BP, decreased salivation
Constipation, poor feeding, hypotonia

101
Q

How does botulism toxin work?

A

Inhibits presynaptic ACh release into neuromuscular junction

102
Q

Tinea corporis - treatment

A

Most commonly Trichophyton rubrum
First-line/localized - topical - clotrimazole, terbinafine
Second-line/systemic - oral - terbinafine, griseofulvin

103
Q

What viruses classically cause parotitis?

A

Mumps - along with fever, myalgias, fatigue
EBV

HIV can cause it

104
Q

Mumps causes what potential sequelae?

A

Orchitis in boys
Sensorineural hearing loss (transient but can lead to deafness
Aseptic meningitis
Pancreatitis

Severe symptoms are more common in older than younger

105
Q

What is empiric treatment for cervical lymphadenitis?

A

Clindamycin - empiric coverage of Gram+, MRSA, and anaerobes
Augmentin - may be used if not concerned about MRSA

106
Q

Cat scratch disease - treatment

A

Azithromycin

106
Q

TB sample gathering in young children with insufficient sputum

A

Early morning gastric lavage to get swallowed tracheal secretions

107
Q

What infection causes morbilliform rash?

A

Roseola - high fever followed by blanchable, macular or maculopapular rash

108
Q

Staphylococcal pustulosis - what is it? Treatment?

A

Localized erythematous pustules, vesicles, bullae that rupture to form erosions and honey-colored crusts
Seen in neonates in diaper area or prior wound (e.g. circumcision site)

Treat with topical mupirocin

109
Q

How does GBS pneumonia appear on x-ray?

A

Diffuse alveolar densities with pleural effusions

Treat with ampicillin and gentamicin, then narrow to penicillin G once GBS isolated from blood

110
Q
A
111
Q

Neonatal Listeria has which focal infection in early vs late onset sepsis?

A

Early: Respiratory distress
Late: Meningitis

112
Q

What prophylaxis is required for secondary prevention of rheumatic heart disease?

A

Penicillin G benzathine q3-4 weeks, duration dependent, whichever is longer:
Uncomplicated: 5 years or until age 21
Carditis without valves: 10 years or until age 21
Carditis with valves: 10 years or until age 40

113
Q

Hallmark of tetanus and other signs

A

Opisthotonus (diffuse hypertonicity)
Trismus
Stridor and respiratory failure

114
Q

Does Shiga toxin E. coli produce high fever?

A

No

115
Q

Which bloody bacterial gastroenteritis can cause seizures?

A

Shigella

Also watch for bacteremia, rectal prolapse

116
Q

Which part of intestines does Shigella prefer?

A

Rectosigmoid colon; watch for rectal prolapse

117
Q
A
118
Q

Bullous impetigo

A

Staph aureus -> vesicles and bullae erupting to exudates and crust
Little to no surrounding erythema
Limited to children unless immunocompromised

119
Q

Measles vs Rubella

A

Worse rash, worse constitutional symptoms
Koplik spots, photophobia, cough

Rubella has tender LAD

120
Q

Croup (e.g. parainfluenza) - trratment

A

Mild (no inspiratory stridor at rest) - single dose dexamethasone)

Moderate/severe - glucocorticoids + nebulized racemic epinephrine, observe for few hours

Admit if recurrent epinephrine needed or supplemental O2 or poor oral intake

121
Q

When is dexamethasone given with antibiotics for meningitis?

A

Hib - to prevent sensorineural hearing loss

In adults, Strep pneumo - decreases morbidity/mortality

122
Q

Acute otitis media - what to use in case of penicillin allergy

A

Azithromycin or clindamycin

123
Q

Varicella postexposure prophylaxis protocol

A

Immunocompetent: give vaccine if <=5 days since last exposure; otherwise, recommend vaccine for future infection

Immunocompromised, pregnant, newborn (5 days prior to 2 days after delivery): Varicella Ig within 10 days of exposure

124
Q

Adenovirus vs RSV vs parainfluenza

A

Adenovirus would have conjunctivitis
RSV has LRI signs (bronchiolitis)
Parainfluenza has barking cough

125
Q

Does Varicella affect palms/soles?

A

No

Peds (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions