Infectious Disease topics Flashcards

1
Q

Pharmacotherapy treatment of choice for gonococci

A

Ceftriaxone (3rd gen cephalosporin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common pathogen for osteomylitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Beefy red throat, minimal exudates, cervical adenopathy, fever

A

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

White curd-like vaginal discharge should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Vaginal candida infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Owl eye inclusion bodies should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If you have a patient with positive blood cultures for candida, what is the first line drug?

A

Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the treatment for pertussis?

A

Erythromycin x 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A leukemia patient has a CT of the liver which shows punched out lesions. What diagnosis should you be thinking of?

A

Hepatosplenic candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What disease does Rickettsia rickettsii cause?

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An India ink stain showing cysts should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Cryptococcosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A COPD patient has apical cavities and calcified nodes on his CXR. You also discover he has a pet bat and a few birds. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An HIV patient present with a nonproductive cough and a CXR showing diffuse interstitial infiltrates. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCJ). Formerly known as Pneumocystis pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Honey and babies should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of organism causes botulism?

A

A Gram(+) rod. Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment for botulism?

A

Antitoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A patient presents to the ER with acute progressive weakness, diplopia and a very dry mouth. What organism may be causing this?

A

Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rice water stool should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is diphteria a Gram-positive or Gram-negative organism?

A

Gram-positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A stuck-on grey membrane in the pharynx should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Diphteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are four steps in treating diphteria?

A

Antitoxin, penicillin, remove the membrane, report the case to the CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the clinical name for whooping cough?

A

Pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of organism causes tetanus?

A

A gram-positve rod, Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A patient ate out last night and today has cramping and bloody diarrhea. What is the most likely organism?

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Diarrhea with blood and mucus should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the best test to diagnose malaria?

A

Peripheral blood smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What organism causes Lyme Disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the minimum amount of time needed for a tick to transfer Lyme disease to a human?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat Lyme disease in kids or pregnant women?

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat C. dificile?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A patient was in the woods yesterday and now has a rash that began on his wrists and ankles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of syphilis?

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Any reference to dark field microscopy should make you think of what organism?

A

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is staph gram-positive or gram-negative?

A

Gram-positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A patient being treated with penicillin for a syphilis infection develops fever, chills, muscle pain, and headaches. Do you stop treatment?

A

No. This is Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction. The patient must be closely monitored, but it is a response to released endotoxin from the death of the spirochetes and not an allergic reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What organism is believed to be the main culprit in creating peptic ulcers?

A

Helicobacter pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A painless, clean base chancre should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Primary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is pseudomonas gram-positive or gram-negative?

A

Gram-negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A patient complains of a rash on his palms and soles. He has a fever and chills. In conversation, he mentions a strange painless chancre he had a few weeks ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Secondary syphilis. This is the most contagious stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the treatment of choice for cholera?

A

Fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the current drug of choice for the cytomegalovirus?

A

Ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which herpes virus causes Epstein-Barr?

A

Herpes 4

43
Q

A 16 year old girl presents with an exudative sore throat and general malaise. On physical exam, you observe some posterior chain lymphadenopathy and mild splenomegaly. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Epstein-Barr virus

44
Q

What are two important pieces of patient education for anyone diagnosed with mononucleosis?

A

No contact sports (splenic rupture) and no kissing (highly contagious)

45
Q

What is the first symptom of a rabies infection?

A

Pain and anesthesia at the site of the bite

46
Q

How do you definitively diagnose rabies?

A

Pathology of the brain of the animal that performed the bite using fluorescent antibody stain

47
Q

A patient is bitten by a rabies infected raccoon. On what days do you give human diploid cells?

A

0, 3, 7, 14, 28

48
Q

A diaper rash with satellite lesions should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Candida

49
Q

Name three serious reactions a patient may have with the use of vancomycin?

A

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome

50
Q

What tests are done to screen for HIV?

A

ELISA and if positive, diagnosis is confirmed with a Western Blot Test

51
Q

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of Lyme Disease?

A

Doxycycline

52
Q

What does trismus mean?

A

Lock jaw, often secondary to tetanus

53
Q

How do you treat amebiasis?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

54
Q

How do you treat pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCJ) formerly known as pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)?

A

Bactrim

55
Q

What is the treatment for a tetanus infection?

A

Penicillin, immune globulin and supportive care (especially respiratory support)

56
Q

How do hookworm larvae enter the body?

A

They penetrate the skin, usually through the soles of the feet

57
Q

How do you treat hookworm?

A

Azoles

58
Q

What type of mosquitoes carry malaria?

A

Anopheles

59
Q

How do you treat white oral plaques that can be scraped off?

A

This is most likely candida. Topical nystatin or oral fluconazole 1mg are first line choices

60
Q

What is the drug of choice for toxoplasmosis?

A

Bactrim

61
Q

What organism causes toxoplasmosis?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

62
Q

What drug do you use to treat pinworm?

A

You treat everyone in the house with albendazole. Two weeks later you treat them again

63
Q

The scotch tape test is used to diagnose what disease?

A

Pinworm

64
Q

Is neisseria gram-positive or gram-negative?

A

Gram-negative

65
Q

Syphilis is caused by what organism?

A

Treponema pallidum

66
Q

A gram-positive organism in chains should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Strep

67
Q

A gram-negative diplococci should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Neisseria

68
Q

What is the most common prophylactic antibiotic used preoperatively?

A

Cefazolin = Ancef
Keflex = Cefalexin
The answer is Cefazolin

69
Q

What oral antibiotic can be used for pseudomonas?

A

Ciprofloxacin

70
Q

What is the suffix used for most fluoroquinolones?

A

Oxacin

71
Q

Why aren’t fluoroquinolones used more frequently?

A

They have lots of side effects

72
Q

A patient presents with a ruptured Achilles tendon. He states that he was recently in the hospital for a “blood infection and on a ton of antibiotics.” What antibiotic class may he have been on?

A

Fluoroquinolones

73
Q

Why can’t you give fluoroquinolones to kids?

A

They can cause cartilage development problems

74
Q

What class of antibiotics should you start with for community-acquired pneumonia?

A

Macrolides

75
Q

List two macrolides

A

Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

76
Q

What antibiotic class is the class of choice for chlamydia?

A

Macrolides

77
Q

What class of antibiotics is sometimes prescribed specifically for its effects on increasing GI motility?

A

Macrolides

78
Q

Which medication is worse to give to a pediatric patient, tetracycline or an aminoglycoside?

A

Tetracycline

79
Q

Pizza pie retinopathy should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

80
Q

A patient presents complaining of a metallic taste in her mouth and dark brown urine. What antibiotic might she be on?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

81
Q

What antibiotic is most likely to cause C. diff?

A

Clindamycin

82
Q

What is the current drug of choice for treating MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

83
Q

You place a patient on rifampin. What side effect should you warn her about?

A

Orange-red discoloration of body fluids

84
Q

What might happen is you infuse vancomycin too fast?

A

Red Man Syndrome

85
Q

Name one oral medication that can be used for MRSA

A

Linezolid (Zyvox) and Bactrim

86
Q

What organism is most commonly responsible for community-acquired penumonia?

A

Strep pneumonia

87
Q

What organism is the most common cause of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection?

A

E. coli

88
Q

Gummas or granulomatous nodules should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Tertiary syphilis

89
Q

Bloody stool with cysts and trophozoites should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Amebiasis

90
Q

Community-acquired carditis is most often caused by one of the HACEK organisms, List the HACEK organisms

A

Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella

91
Q

What are the three medications often combined as a first line treatment for H. pylori?

A

Omeprazole, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin (PPI and 2 abx)

92
Q

What is the prophylactic antibiotic most commonly given before a dental procedure if one is necessary?

A

Amoxicillin 2gm PO 1 hour before procedure

93
Q

A pregnant woman and cat litter should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Toxoplasmosis

94
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat urethritis caused by neisseria?

A

Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

95
Q

Is Klebsiella gram-positive or gram-negative?

A

Gram-negative

96
Q

A gram-positive organism in clusters should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

Staph

97
Q

What is the best test for diagnosising Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Indirect immunofluorescent antibodies

98
Q

A gram-negative coccobaccili found in the sputum of a patient with pneumonia should make you think of what diagnosis?

A

H. flu

99
Q

What medication is used as prophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis?

A

Rifampin

100
Q

What is the next step in treatment for a patient who has failed outpatient doxycycline for Lyme disease and is allergic to penicillin?

A

Ceftriaxone 1gm IV q24hrs

101
Q

Your patient is positive for Dientamoeba fragilis and Balantidium coli but they are allergic to metronidazole. What do you prescribe?

A

Tetracycline hydrochloride

102
Q

What pathogen is isolated on Skirrow’s medium? It is gram-neg, catalase and oxidase positive.

A

Campylobacter jejuni

103
Q

List 2 abx most commonly associated pseudomembraneous colitis and c diff.

A

Fluoroquinolones, clindamycin, broad spectrum penicillins, broad spectrum cephalosporins