infectious disease incorrects Flashcards

1
Q

positive IGRA means?

A

new TB infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fever of unknown origin can be due to what?

A

malignancy
infection
rheumatic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

workup of FUO?

A

blood cultures
chest radiograph
urinalysis
LFT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

best treatment for community acquired lobar pneumonia with recent antibiotic use?

A

fluoroquinolones such as levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

best treatment for lobar pneumonia in regular patients?

A

azithro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how pinworm infections occur?

A

inhaling

ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

whats most likely to cause perianal itching in kids?

A

pinworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is tubeculin skin test positive?

A

more than 15 cm induration in anybody
more than 10cm in thse with exposure risk
more than 5cm in immuno compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

neurosyphilis presents as

A
anytime during infection
symptoms of meningitis
chancre
rash
can cause personality changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does rabies travel?

A
sensory nerve to
posterior root ganglion to
spinal cord to
ascending neurons to
CNS to
sensory nerves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

whats moa of penicillin?

A

binds to transpeptidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what antibiotics bind to 30s subunit?

A

aminoglycosides

tetrascyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what antibiotics bind to d alanine?

A

vanco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what antibiotics bind to dna gyrase

A

quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

symptoms of flu?

A

severe fatigue
headache
myalgias
sudden onset of fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

first thing to do when bacterial meningitis suspected?

A

2 blood cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

order of meningitis treatmetn?

A

2 blood cultures
lumbar puncture if not contraindicated
dexamethasone and antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

most common cause of viral pharyngitis?

A

adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

acute otitis media in kids often presents as

A

otalgia, fever, bulging TM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

hallmark of cutaneous anthracis?

A

lymphangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

diphteria can lead to

A

neuropathy
myocarditis
paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment for aom?

A

amoxicillin oral

23
Q

treatmetn for otitis externa?

A

otic cipro

24
Q

what does JC virus cause in HIV patients

A

PML
usually tcells under 50
demyelinating lesions, ataxia, visual symptoms, weekness

25
in hiv, toxoplasma causes
ring enhancing lesions, seizures, headaches | tcell under 100
26
histoplasma presentation?
budding yeast on silver stain pulmonary infiltartes, hilar lymphadenopathy in midwest, near a chicken coup fever, cough, dysypnea
27
rota viruses are
non enveloped
28
symptoms of allergy?
itchy eyes coughing sneezing nasal congestion
29
sumptoms of viral uri?
nasal congestion inflammation headache, sneezing, malaise
30
treatmetn for taenia solium?
praziquantel
31
what is mebendazole used for?
roundworms
32
what is ivermectin used for?
strongyloides onchocerciasis
33
bacillus cereus infection, what happens?
vomiting 1-6 hours after eating diarrhea too
34
MAC presents with
dyspnea chest discomfort, fever, weight loss, fatigue | chest cavitations
35
treatment of MAC
azithro rifampin etham amikacin
36
west nile virus symptoms
fever, malaise, myalgias, anoroexia, self limiting | western us
37
ssalmonella enterica typhi symptoms?
stomach and fever pain 1-2 weeks after travelling to area | rash too
38
what does cryptosporiasis look like?
7 day incubation period diarrhea, fever, nausea, spores 8-10 mcm diameter LA, Asia, AIDS
39
treatment salmonella enterica?
fluoroquinolones or azithro
40
salmonella enterica symptoms?
1 week incubation 9-10 stools per day fever, headache, abdominal pain, diarrhea salmon colored macules, south asia
41
what causes vibrio parahaemoliticus? what happens
seafood | watery diarrhea, cramps, nausea
42
shigella sonnei causes enteritis by
spreading through childcare facilities
43
pain, shortness of breath, 48 hours after after hospitilzation, sputum, whats the infecion?
s. aureus
44
most common hospital acquired pneumonia infections?
pseudomonas | s aureus
45
ate wheat, got necrosis of fingers, what is associated with it and how does it happen?
claviceps purpurea, | through ergot alkaloids
46
toxoplama goondi can present as
mono like syndrome fever , cervical lymphadenopathy follicular hyperplasia no lymphocytosis
47
most common cause of bacterial sinusitis?
strep pneumoniae then | h flu
48
less than 2 weeks of symptoms for osteomyelitis?
MRI
49
10-14 days of osteomyelitis?
CT
50
how does rubella present?
starts with mild fever, lymphadenopathy, conjunctivitis after 24 hours maculopapular rash appears on face then spreads, lasts 3 days
51
roseola presentation?
high fever of 3-5 days, goes away then rash comes, starts at neck and moves down
52
treatment for chronic rhinusitis?
oral glucocorticoid
53
symptoms of chronic rhiusitis?
symptoms more than 12 weeks mucopurulent discharge nasal obstruction facial pain/pressure decreased sense of smell