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Kaplan Step 1 > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Meningitis is commonly caused by what organism?

A

Neisseria meningitis

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2
Q

Type of vaccine for N. meningitis

A

Polysaccharide conjugate

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3
Q

Who is at greater risk of right sided endocarditis?

A

IVDU

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4
Q

Presentation of right vs left sided endocarditis

A

Right sided: pulmonary embolism. Left sided has more systemic symptoms of emboli going to hands/feet, nail bed hemorrhages, ossler’s node etc

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5
Q

Most common bacterial cause of acute endocarditis

A

Staph aureus

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6
Q

Which organism would cause endocarditis in abnormal valves?

A

Strep viridans

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7
Q

What is the next step that should be taken for septic arthritis?

A

Arthrocentesis of the fluid

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8
Q

What vision problem should be of concern in AIDS?

A

CMV retinitis: pizza pie appearance of red and white lesions. Red are retinal hemorrhages, white are granular opacities

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9
Q

Treatment and therapy for EBV infection

A

Supportive therapy. Excuse from sports (hepatosplenomegaly)

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10
Q

What microbial culture should be done towards the end of pregnancy?

A

GBS swab to check for S. agalacticea in the vagina

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11
Q

Parvovirus B19 causes what disease? What rash? Patients with sickle cell are at increased risk for ______ if they acquire it.

A

Erythema infectiosum (Fifth Disease). Slapped cheek rash that spreads over body (blotchy net-like appearance). Aplastic crisis.

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12
Q

What bacteria is concerning for a perforated peptic ulcer? Characterize the bacteria.

A

Helicobacter pylori. GNR, oxidase-positive, urease positive

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13
Q

Most common bacterial pathogens of conjunctivitis

A

H. influenza, S. pneumo, S. aureus, Moraxella spp.

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14
Q

Growth requirements for H. influenza. Can also be cultured with?

A

Factors V (NAD) and X (hematin) required from lysis of RBC. S. aureus since it is B hemolytic

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15
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii is an infection in what populations? (2). What stain is used?

A

People with AIDS and premature infants. Silver stain.

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16
Q

Gohn complex is indicative of what stage of TB?

A

Primary infection

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17
Q

Common causes of bacterial meninigitis in babies (3) most to least? Prevention of a common one?

A

GBS, E. coli, Listeria; IV Pencillin for mother during labor

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18
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome is commonly caused by what organism? And how?

A

Staph aureus. TSST-1 exotoxing which acts as superantigen.

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19
Q

HSV neonatal encephalitis can be acquired how? And which part of the brain is commonly affected?

A

Passage through infected birth canal. Temporal lobes.

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20
Q

Mumps: presentation, type of vaccine, spread

A

Bilateral parotitis (swelling of parotid glands), swelling of testes; live-attenuated; respiratory droplets

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21
Q

Cancers associated with EBV (3)

A

B cell lymphoma (Burkitt’s and Hodkin) and Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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22
Q

Lyme disease is caused by what organism (and type)? Transmitted by what vector? And this vector also transmits what other pathogen?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (spirochete), Ixodes scapularis, Babesia microti

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23
Q

Rash seen in Lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans

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24
Q

Non-acid fast, GPR that grow as branching filaments that can be confused as fungi

A

Actinomyces israelii

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25
Q

Malignant external otitis can be seen in what type of patients? And is caused by what organism?

A

Diabetes; Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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26
Q

Non-bloody diarrhea after hiking;

A

Giardia lamblia

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27
Q

Tertiary stage of Syphilis can result in neurosyphilis. Late sequela can present as:

A

Decreased personality, affect, tremor, pupillary abnormalities.

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28
Q

Severe substernal pain and cough with mediastinal widening. Blood agar with rough, gray colonies. What organism is this?

A

Bacillus anthracis.

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29
Q

In the bacterial growth curve, when does spore production occur and when do toxins build up?

A

Stationary phase

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30
Q

Gram-negative lactose fermenting rods causing pneumonia in alcoholic will show what on CXR?

A

Lobar cavitation

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31
Q

Mediastinal widening in CXR with pneumonia symptoms is caused by what organism?

A

Bacillus anthracis

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32
Q

Farm exposure and undulating fevers is charactersitic of which organim?

A

Brucella

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33
Q

Congenital CMV symptoms

A

Pariventricular CNS calcifications, sensorineural deafness, cutaneous hemorrhages

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34
Q

Neurocystercircoses caused by Tinea solium occurs from

A

Eating eggs found in poop (own or other’s)

35
Q

HSV virus categorization

A

Enveloped, dsDNA virus

36
Q

Subacute endocarditis associated with colorectal cancer

A

S. bovis (Strep viridans)

37
Q

Reiter syndrome composed of (triad) is an immune reaction following what organisms?

A

“Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree”;

Bloody diarrhea organisms (Shigella, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Yersinia) and Chlamydia

38
Q

Flaccid baby occurs after ingestion of what? Caused by what organism? MOA?

A

Spores of Clostridium botulinum. Toxin prevents the release of excitatory neurotransmitters.

39
Q

Adherent pseudomembrane seen in the throat is characteristic of which organism? Toxin MOA

A

Corynebacterium diptheria’ Inhibit elongation factor (translation)

40
Q

Rifampin MOA

A

Target RNA polymerase and interrupt transcription

41
Q

Watery diarrhea associated with eating seafood; what media is it isolated on?

A

Vibrio; GN curved rod isolated on alkaline media

42
Q

Most important virulence factor of S. pneumoniae

A

Polysaccharide capsule inhibiting phagocytosis

43
Q

Most common for of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii; how does it appear on CT?

A

Ingestion of raw or under-cooked meat; Ring-enhancing lesions .

44
Q

Fungal esophagitis is indicative of what kind of health?

A

Immunocompromised

45
Q

The PPD test uses what to generate a response? Type of hypersensitivity?

A

Tuberculin (outer surface protein) and mycolic acid. Type IV

46
Q

MOA of ETEC Toxin

A

Promote secretion of fluid and electrolytes. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of GTP protein.

47
Q

What can be visualized on PBS of P. vivax and P. ovale?

A

Multiple brick red dots; “Schuffner dots”

48
Q

The genes that are closest to oriT are (most/least) likely to be transferred;

A

Most; oriT is most likely and tra is least likely.

49
Q

Culturing chlamydia

A

Chlamydia is difficult to culture

50
Q

Virulence factor that help bacteria survive within the phagolysosomes of neutrophils

A

Catalse

51
Q

CMV staining

A

Owl’s eye inclusion

52
Q

Hepatitis B window period refers to what? When does it occur?

A

It is when the HBsAg and HbsAb

53
Q

What type of fungus is Pneumocystis jirovecii?

A

Extracellular atypical fungus

54
Q

All RNA viruses except (2 families) replicate ______. All DNA viruses except (1 family) replicate in the ______.

A

All RNA in cytoplasm except orthomyxoviruses and retroviruses replicate in cytoplasm. All DNA viruses except Poxviruses replicate in the cytoplasm

55
Q

Most important pathogenic feature of Pseudomonas in CF

A

Capsule

56
Q

Alcoholic with thick, red, bloody sputum presenting with lung problems. Describe bacteria

A

Klebsiella: GNR, lactose-fermenting, oxidase-negative

57
Q

Most common cause of bronchitis in smokers and how do they stain?

A

H. influenzae (GNDP) Legionella (Does not stain well) Moraxella (GNCB)

58
Q

Dimorphic fungi that has tiny oval forms within macrophages in humans

A

Histoplasma

59
Q

JC virus. What disease does it cause and what is its MOA

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. Demyelinating disorder which infects oligodendroglial cells in the brain. Esoinophilic intranuclear inclusions. Associated with AIDS

60
Q

Which hepatitis virus has a high mortality in pregnant women?

A

Hep E (Hepeviridae)

61
Q

Which organism has a blue-green pigment and fruity odor?

A

Pseudomonas

62
Q

Outbreak of bloody diarrhea in a pediatric population (organism)

A

Yersenia enterocolitica

63
Q

What organism can grow on a preexisting cavitary lesion and cause a “matted ball” of material? What does it look like on microscopy?

A

Aspergillus; acute angle branching

64
Q

Legionella can be grown on what type of agar?

A

BCYE

65
Q

Bacterial that are capable of “natural transformation”

A

H. influenzae, Strep. pneumo and Neisseria

66
Q

What are Cowdry type A inclusions?

A

Eosinophilic intranuclear viral inclusions seens in Herpes family viruses

67
Q

Aspiration pneumonia can be caused by what organisms?

A

Oral anaerobes (bacteriodes, fusobacterium)

68
Q

Foul smelling sputum with concern for pneumonia suggests what organisms?

A

Anaerobic bacteria

69
Q

What organism causing atypical pneumonia produces colonies on media containing sterols?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

70
Q

What infectious disease presents similarly to the joint pain seen in RA?

A

Parvovirus B19 - bilateral arthralgias of small joints

71
Q

Large cylindrical intestinal worm

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

72
Q

Most common cause of bronchiolitis or pneumonia in children under the age of one. And categorization.

A

RSV; negative SS RNA, non-segmented and enveloped

73
Q

Strep. pneumo sputum

A

Rust-colored sputum

74
Q

Sand-paper rash

A

Scarlet fever

75
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients; what test is used for this?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans; Latex particle agglutination or India ink

76
Q

Where does HSV-1 remain latent?

A

Trigeminal ganglion

77
Q

Hemolytic activity of CoNS

A

Gamma (non) hemolytic

78
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is seen as a late complication of what disease? And what is the presentation?

A

Measles (Rubeola); occurs 7-10 years later. Behavioral changes to neurologic deficits

79
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum (category) is associated with what exposure? Presentation in infection; treatment

A

Tapeworm (cestode); eating raw fish; Megaloblastic anemia due to Vit B12 deficiency (interferes with absorption); identify eggs in the stool.

80
Q

Clostridium perfringens produces myonecrosis by production of what toxin?

A

Alpha toxin

81
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia produce what factors

A

Cold agglutinins

82
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis in neonates; vaginal smear

A

Conjunctivits and pneumonitis (eosinophilic predominant); vacuoles with reticulate bodies in epithelial cells.

83
Q

Cause of hydrocele

A

Incomplete fusion of process vaginalis

Kaplan Step 1 (8 decks)

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