infectious disease Flashcards

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1
Q

why cipro not recommended for pna?

A

poor lung penetration

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2
Q

which med permanently stains children teeth?

A

doxycycline

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3
Q

CAP in children <5 - most common organism?

A

strep pneumo

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4
Q

CAP in children <5 w/lobar findings on CXR - tx?

A

high dose amoxicillin

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5
Q

what age start giving flu vaccine?

A

> = 6 months

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6
Q

PNA in COPD - which organisms?

A
  • strep pneumo
  • h flu
  • moraxella catarrhalis
  • pseudomonas
  • viral
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7
Q

PNA in immunocompromise?

A
  • strep pneumo
  • h flu
  • pneumocystis
  • atypicals
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8
Q

most common organisms in otitis externa

A
  • staph aureus

- pseudomonas

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9
Q

how soon do you have to start post-exposure ppx for HIV?

A

within 72 hours

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10
Q

how long is course for post-exposure ppx for HIV?

A

4 weeks

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11
Q

how many drugs do you give for post-exposure ppx?

A
  • 2 NRTIs (nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

- 1 integrase strand transfer inhibitor OR protease inhibitor OR NNRTI

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12
Q

what antibiotic covers strep viridans?

A

amoxicillin

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13
Q

what antibiotics covers enterococcus?

A

ampicillin

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14
Q

procedures that warrant abx ppx for IE in ts w/high risk include:

A
  • dental procedures
  • respiratory tract procedures involving incision/bx
  • surgical placement of prosthetic cardiac material
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15
Q

classification for hospitalization for pneumonia?

A

CURB-65

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16
Q

components of CURB-65

A
C - confusion
U - BUN >20
R - RR>30
B - SBP <90
65 - age >65
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17
Q

how treat meningovascular syphilis?

A

IV penicillin

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18
Q

fungal etiologies that can cause meningitis + stroke?

A
  • cryptococcus
  • coccidiomycois
  • histoplasmosis
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19
Q

hemorrhagic infarction of temporal lobe w/RBC in CSF dx?

A

HSV encephalitis

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20
Q

CNS lymphoma in HIV pts is linked to which infectious disease?

A

EBV

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21
Q

CNS lymphoma associated w/CD4 count less than what?

A

50

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22
Q

UTI abx contraindicated in pregnancy?

A
  • tetracyclines
  • fluoroquinolones
  • bactrim
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23
Q

UTI abx that are OK in pregnancy?

A
  • cephalexin
  • fosfomycin
  • augmentin
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24
Q

gentamicin poses what risk to developing fetus?

A

ireversible deafness

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25
Q

which vaccines are live?

A

MMR, zoster, varicella

26
Q

when are live vaccines contraindicated in HIV?

A

CD4 < 200

27
Q

anterior uveitis - aka?

A

iritis

28
Q

symptoms of anterior uveitis?

A

pain, redness, variable vision loss, consricted/irregular pupil.

29
Q

infectious keratitis - symptoms?

A

severe photophobia, difficulty opening eye, corneal opacity/infiltrate

30
Q

conjunctivitis - how is tx different for contact lens wearers vs non-contact wearers?

A

topical fluoroquinolones for contact wearers (to cover pseudomonas)

31
Q

keratitis - what is it?

A

inflammation of the cornea (clear tissue covering the pupil and iris and bordered by the bulbar conjunctivae)

32
Q

endopthalmitis - what is it?

A

bacterial infection o the deep eye (vitreous)

33
Q

uveitis - what is it?

A

inflammation of the middle eye (choroid, vitreous, iris, ciliary body)

34
Q

uveitis - what causes it?

A

usually auto-immune diseases (JRA, reiter syndrome) or systemic infection

35
Q

most common causes of bloody diarrhea in US??

A
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • E coli
  • Cmpylobacter
  • Yersinia
36
Q

in kids - when treat bloody diarrhea w/abx?

A
  • immunocomporomised
  • sepsis
  • age < 3mo
37
Q

erlichiosis - signs/symptoms?

A
  • fever, malaise, HA
  • nausea, vomiting
  • arthralgias
  • leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
  • high transaminases
38
Q

typhoid - symptoms?

A
  • fever
  • abdominal pain
  • cutaneous “rose spots”
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • intestinal bleeding
  • intestinal perforation
39
Q

pertussis - treatment?

A

macrolides (azithromycin) - prevents transmission but does not shorten duration of illness

40
Q

which organism causes croup?

A

paraflu

41
Q

which organism associated with Guillain Barre?

A

Cmapylobacter

42
Q

treatment for latent TB?

A

9 mo of isoniazid

43
Q

pt w/ + screening TB test, + cough, fever, night sweats –> what next?

A

additional evaluation

– sputum samples for AFB and MB culture

44
Q

pt previously treated for latent TB, now w/fever + cough –> what next?

A

CXR

45
Q

ramsay hunt syndrome?

A
  • reactivated VZV
  • ear pain
  • external auditory vesicles
  • same sided facial paralysis
46
Q

how treat malignant otitis externa?

A
  • IV cipro until ESR/CRP normalize

- PO cipro x 6-8 weeks

47
Q

malaria is caused by which organism?

A

plasmodium falciparum

48
Q

fever in returning travler within <10days?

A
  • typhoid
  • dengue
  • chikungunya
  • flu
  • legionella
49
Q

fever in returning traveler within 1-3 weeks?

A
  • malaria
  • typhoid
  • leptospirosis
  • schistosomiasis
  • rickettsial dz
50
Q

fever in returning traveler in > 3 weeks

A
  • TB
  • leishmaniasis
  • enteric parasitic infection
51
Q

typhoid fever - clinical symptoms?

A
  • stepwise fever
  • relative bradycardia
  • rose spots
52
Q

infectious epididymo-orchitis - treatment?

A

1 dose IM ceftriaxone + 10d doxy

53
Q

postpartum endometritis - what abx?

A

clinda + gent

54
Q

chorioamnionitis - what abx?

A

ampicillin + gent

55
Q

MRSA - what abx cover?

A
  • clinda
  • bactrim
  • doxy
  • linezolid
56
Q

cellulitis - abx for MSSA and B-hemolytic strep?

A
  • clinda
  • amox + bactrim
  • amox + doxy
  • linezolid
57
Q

cellulitis - abx course?

A
  • 5-7 days in mild cases

- 14 days in sevre

58
Q

sub-acute headache in HIV - what are the potential causes?

A
  • cryptococcal meningitis
  • tuberculous meningitis
  • toxoplasmosis
  • CNS lymphoma
59
Q

how treat cryptococcal meningitis?

A
- IV amphotericin B (14d)
PLUS
- oral flucytosine (14d)
THEN
- fluconazole for 8-10 weeks
(can start HAART @ END of acute treatment)
60
Q

when positive HIV ELISA - what order next?

A
  • HIV western blot
  • CD4 count
  • HIV VL