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My Packs: HOSA (Dental) > Infection Control > Flashcards

Infection Control Flashcards

1
Q

True or false:
If compliance with regulations are not met, dentists may be fined, lose their licenses to practice dentistry, or face imprisonment

A

True

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2
Q

What is a BSI?

A

A system which requires personal protective equipment to be worn for protection against contact with all body fluids, whether or not blood is visible

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3
Q

What does PPE stand for?

A

Personal Protective Equipment

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4
Q

ADA stands for:

A

American Dental Association

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5
Q

CDC stands for:

A

Centres for Disease Control and Prevention

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6
Q

Who makes recommendations through its councils?

A

American Dental Association (ADA)

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7
Q

Who provides the basis for many of the regulations

A

Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

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8
Q

What is the NIH?

A

National Institute of Health
A government agency that provides research for the expansion and implementation of knowledge for the enhancement of health, prevention of disease, the lengthening of life, and maintenance of high professional standards

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9
Q

What is the NIOSH?

A

The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health

Provides research and prevention programs to aid in the elimination of occupational diseases, injuries, and fatalities

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10
Q

What is the aim of NIOSH? (4)

A 
To complete tasks with:
High-quality research
Practical solutions
Partnerships
Implementing research into practice
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11
Q

What is the OSHA?

A

The Occupation Safety and Health Administration
A regulating body that enforces requirements that state that employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials (OPIM) while employees are at work

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12
Q

What is OPIM?

A

Other Potentially Infectious Materials

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13
Q

List the OPIMs (10)

A

Blood and anything that is visually contaminated with blood
Saliva in dental procedures
Cerebrospinal fluid
Amniotic fluid
Synovial fluid
Pleural, peritoneal, pericardial fluid
Semen and vaginal secretions
Unfixed tissue or organ (other than intact skin) from a human living or dead
HIV-containing cell or tissue cultures, organ cultures, and HIV or HBV-containing cultures, mediums or other solutions
Blood, organs, or other tissues from experimental animals infected with HIB or HBV

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14
Q

What is cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Brain and spinal fluid

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15
Q

What is amniotic fluid?

A

Fluid around the fetus

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16
Q

What is synovial fluid?

A

Joint and tendon fluid

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17
Q

What is pleural fluid?

A

Lung fluid

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18
Q

What is peritoneal fluid?

A

Abdominal fluid

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19
Q

What is pericardial fluid?

A

Heart fluid

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20
Q

When are dental offices investigated for compliance? (3)

A

After an employee or a patient complaint is made
In any office having 11 or more employees, randomly
By invitation of the office requesting an inspection

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21
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Review the ___________ _________ ________

A

Bloodborne Pathogens Standard

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22
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Prepare a _______ _______ _______ ____ outlining the means to _______ and _____ employees

A

Written exposure control plan
Protect
Train

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23
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Update the exposure control plan when _______ in __________ provide safer medical devices and ________ the consideration and implementation of the use of these devices

A

Changes
Technology
Document

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24
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Solicit ___-___________ employees to ________, ________, and select safer products and devices for use in the workplace

A

Non-managerial
Identify
Evaluate

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25
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Train all _________ in a ______ manner (initially, after a job task change, when new devices are implemented)

A

Employees

Timely

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26
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Provide _________ with everything needed in order to meet standard regulations

A

Employee

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27
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Provide ________ __________ ________ (___)

A

Personal protective equipment (PPE)

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28
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Maintain and dispose of necessary ___

A

PPE

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29
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Establish ________ _________ _________ (____) in infection control

A

Standard operating procedures (SOPs)

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30
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Maintain a ______ ______ __

A

Sharps injury log

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31
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Offer the ________ _ vaccination series to all employees

A

Hepatitis B

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32
Q

Establish a ___________ plan, including ______ _________ and follow-up procedures (for example, ____________ _________ to ____________)

A

Postexposure
Medical evaluation
Occupational exposure
Needlesticks

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33
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Provide communication on __________

A

Biohazards

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34
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Establish standards for ________ and _________ of hazardous waste

A

Handling

Disposing

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35
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Maintain records of ________, _________ _ vaccinations, and ________ incidents

A

Training
Hepatitis B
Exposure

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36
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

A copy of the _________ _________ ________ and specific information regarding the meaning of the standard

A

Bloodborne Pathogens Standard

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37
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

Information about __________ pathogens, both the ____________ and _______ of the diseases

A

Bloodborne
Epidemiology
Symptoms

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38
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

Information about the _____-____________ pathways of bloodborne pathogens

A

Cross-contamination

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39
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

A written copy or a means for employees to obtain the _________‘/______‘ written exposure control plan

A

Employer’s

Office’s

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40
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

Information on the ____, ________ _________ of _______ _______________, and how each is identified in relation to bloodborne pathogens and other potentially infectious materials (____)

A

Tasks
Category placement
Employee classifications
OPIM

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41
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

Information regarding the _________ _ vaccine

A

Hepatitis B

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42
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

Information about _________ _________, including ___: ____ __________; standard precautions, including _________ ___________; and ___________ __________

A 
Exposure reduction
PPE
Work practices
Universal precautions
Engineering practices
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43
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

Information about ____ __ __ and ____ __ _______, if an emergency involving blood or OPIM arises

A

What to do

Whom to contact

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44
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

Information about the procedure to follow if an incident of _____ ________ occurs, how to report the ________, and what type of medical follow-up is available at no cost to the employee

A

Blood exposure

Incident

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45
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

Information about the ____________ __________ and follow-up that the employer provides

A

Postexposure evaluation

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46
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

A copy of the ____ ______ _____________ _________

A

OSHA Hazard Communication Standard

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47
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

______ ____ ______ (___) (formerly known as material safety data sheets, ____) as part of the ________ __________ ______ of ______________ and ________ of _________ (___)

A 
Safety Data Sheets 
SDS
MSDS
Globally Harmonized System
Classification
Labelling
Chemicals
GHS
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48
Q

OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees:

The ___________ for employees to ask questions of the individual giving the information

A

Opportunity

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49
Q

When are cross-contamination pathways formed?

A

When pathogens travel from patients to dentists, dental assistants, dental hygienists, dental laboratory technicians, and other patients

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50
Q

Pathogens can also travel from ______ _________ to ________

A

Dental personnel

Patients

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51
Q

Where can the cross-contamination then go?

A

To the families and friends of the dental personnel or patients

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52
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

Describes the elements of an infectious process

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53
Q

What is in the chain of infection?

A

Agent
Host
Environment

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54
Q

What must the chain of infection include?

A

Several essential elements or “links in the chain” for the transmission of microorganisms to occur

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55
Q

What tasks belong in Category 1 in Exposure Determination?

A

Tasks that involve exposure to blood body fluids such as saliva, and body tissues

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56
Q

What professions does Category 1 in Exposure Determination encompass?

A

Dentist
Dental assistant
Dental hygienist
Dental laboratory technician

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57
Q

What tasks belong in Category 2 in Exposure Determination?

A

All tasks that involve no exposure to blood, body fluids such as saliva, or body tissues, but occasionally may involve unplanned tasks from Category 1

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58
Q

What professions does Category 2 in Exposure Determination encompass?

A

Receptionist
Coordinating assistant
So on

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59
Q

What tasks belong in Category 3 in Exposure Determination?

A

All tasks that involve no exposure to blood, body fluids such as saliva, or body tissues

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60
Q

What professions does Category 3 in Exposure Determination encompass?

A

Accountant
Insurance assistant
So on

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61
Q

Describe the Written Exposure Plan

A

Documents the specific exposure determination for each employee and identifies a schedule of implementation (how and when provisions of the standard will be implemented)

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62
Q

Step 1 of Written Exposure Plan

A

All employees list tasks they perform in each job classification, and then identify which category they fall under. Any employee who may have any occupational exposure at any time is covered under the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen standard

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63
Q

Step 2 of Written Exposure Plan

A

The office must have a schedule for implementation
How and when are the hepatitis B vaccinations being offered to employees?
How and when are the post exposure evaluation and office follow-up procedures accomplished?
How and when are new devices identified and implemented?
How and when is the recordkeeping accomplished and updated?

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64
Q

Step 3 of Written Exposure Plan

A 
A manual and procedure plan must be written to cover methods of compliance for office PPE and safety issues
Personal protective equipment
Engineering controls
Housekeeping controls
Work practice controls
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65
Q

Step 4 of Written Exposure Plan

A

A written policy on how exposure incidents are evaluated is required. Included in each evaluation are the circumstances that surrounded the incident and how they can be corrected. A sharps injury log must be maintained. Why type of evaluation will be done by the office if an exposure incident occurs?

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66
Q

What does the FDA stand for?

A

Food and Drug Administration

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67
Q

What is the FDA?

A

Food and Drug Administration, a division of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and it regulates the manufacturing and labelling of medical devices and solutions

68
Q

What does EPA stand for?

A

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

69
Q

What is the EPA?

A

A federal regulatory agency involved in the safety and effectiveness of disinfecting and sterilizing solutions

70
Q

What is the OSAP?

A

The organization for Safety and Asepsis Procedures, a national organization, encompasses dental health care workers, distributors of dental equipment and materials, health care instructors, dentists, and others in the field of dentistry

71
Q

What is an agent (of infection)?

A

Entity that is capable of causing disease

72
Q

What do agents of infection include?

A

Biological agents
Chemical agents
Physical agents

73
Q

What is an biological agent?

A

Living organisms that invade the host, such as bacteria, virus, fungi, protozoa, and rickettsiae

74
Q

What is a chemical agent?

A

Substances that can interact with the body, such as pesticides, food additives, medications, and industrial chemicals

75
Q

What is a physical agent?

A

Factors in the environment, such as heat, light, noise and radiation

76
Q

What is a reservoir?

A

A place where the agent can survive

77
Q

What must a reservoir that promotes the growth of pathogens contain?

A 
Proper nutrients (oxygen and organic matter)
Maintain proper temperature
Contain moisture
Maintain a compatible pH level
Maintain the proper amount of light exposure
78
Q

What are some common reservoirs? (4)

A

Humans
Animals
Environment
Fomites

79
Q

What is a fomite?

A

An object, such as instruments or dressing, that is contaminated with an infectious agent

80
Q

What is a portal of exit?

A

The route by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir to be transferred to a susceptible host

81
Q

What are some portal of exits? (7)

A 
Body secretions:
Sputum
Semen
Vaginal secretions
urine
Saliva
Feces
Blood
Draining wounds
82
Q

What is a mode of transmission?

A

The process that bridges the gap between the portal of exit of the infectious agent from the reservoir and the portal of entry of the susceptible “new” host

83
Q

What are some modes of transmission? (4)

A

Contact transmission
Airborne transmission
Vehicle transmission
Vector-borne transmission

84
Q

Contact transmission involves the ________ transfer of an agent from an ________ person to an __________ person through ______ or ________ contact with the ________ person. Contact with the infected person is called ______ contact. Direct contact can occur through unprotected contact with infected ______, such as _____ or ______
Indirect contact takes place when ______________ are transmitted to an ______ or _______ first and then transferred to another person when the person touches the object or surface

A 
Physical
Infected 
Uninfected
Direct
Indirect
Infected
Direct
Fluids
Blood
Saliva
Microorganisms
Object
Surface
85
Q

Airborne transmission occurs when a ___________ person is exposed to contaminated ________ or ____ _________ that are suspended in the ___. The longer the particle is suspended, the greater the chance it will find an available ____ __ _____ in the human host

A 
Susceptible
Droplets
Dust particles
Air
Port of entry
86
Q

Vehicle transmission occurs when the agent is transferred to a susceptible host by contaminated __________ objects, such as ______ ___________, ______, ____, ____, _____, and _____

A 
Inanimate
Dental instruments
Water
Food
Meat
Drugs
Blood
87
Q

Vector-borne transmission occurs when an agent is transferred to a susceptible host by _______ means, such as __________, _____, _____, ____, and other _______

A 
Animate
Mosquitoes
Fleas
Ticks
Lice
Animals
88
Q

What are some examples of diseases transmitted through contact transmission? (3)

A

STDs (Sexually Transmitted Diseases)
Colds
Flu

89
Q

Examples of direct contact of health care provider with patient (2)

A

Touching

Secretions from client such as blood and saliva

90
Q

Examples of indirect contact with fomites (6)

A 
Clothing 
Health-care equipment
Instruments used in treatments
Personal belongings
Personal care equipment
Diagnostic equipment
91
Q

Examples of moisture/dust particles in the air (4)

A

Coughing
Talking
Sneezing
Airborne droplets from dental handpiece

92
Q

What organism relies on airborne transmission?

A

Measles

93
Q

What spores are transmitted in an airborne powder form?

A

Anthrax

94
Q

Examples of contact with contaminated inanimate objects (6)

A 
Water
Blood
Drugs
Food
Urine
Salmonellosis (contaminated food)
95
Q

Examples of contact with contaminate animate hosts (3)

A

Animals
Insects
Lyme disease (ticks)

96
Q

What is a portal of entry?

A

The route by which an infectious agent enters the host

97
Q

What are the six portals of entry?

A 
Integumentary system
Respiratory tract
Genitourinary tract
Gastrointestinal tract
Circulatory system 
Transplacental
98
Q

Describe the integumentary portal of entry

A

A break in the skin or mucous membrane

99
Q

Describe the respiratory portal of entry

A

Inhaling contaminated droplets

100
Q

Describe the genitourinary portal of entry

A

Contamination with infected vaginal secretions or semen

101
Q

Describe the gastrointestinal portal of entry

A

Ingesting contaminated food or water

102
Q

Describe the circulatory portal of entry

A

A bite from insects or rodents

103
Q

Describe the transplacental portal of entry

A

A transfer of a microorganism from the mother to the fetus via the placenta and umbilical cord

104
Q

What is a host?

A

Simple or complex organism that can be affected by an agent

An individual who is at risk of contracting an infectious disease

105
Q

What is a susceptible host?

A

Person who lacks resistance to an agent and is vulnerable to a disease

106
Q

What is a compromised host?

A

Person whose normal defence mechanisms are impaired and is, therefore, more susceptible to infection

107
Q

What can influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host?

A 
Age
Concurrent disease
Stress
Immunization/vaccination status
Lifestyle
Occupation
Nutritional status
Heredity
108
Q

How can lifestyle influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host? (3)

A

Practices, such as:
Having multiple sex partners
Sharing needles
Tobacco and drug use

109
Q

How can occupation influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host? (2)

A

Forms of employment that involve increased exposure to pathogenic sources, such as needles or chemical agents

110
Q

How can nutritional status influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host?

A

People who maintain targeted weight for height and body frame are less prone to illness

111
Q

How can heredity influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host?

A

Some people are naturally more susceptible to infections than others

112
Q

Name the keys to eliminating infection between an agent and a reservoir (3)

A

Cleansing
Disinfection
Sterilization

113
Q

Name the keys to break the chain of infection between the reservoir and portal of exit (3)

A

Promoting proper hygiene
Maintaining clean dental operatories
Ensuring the use of clean equipment in patient care

114
Q

Name the key to breaking the chain of infection between the portal of exit and mode of transmission

A

Block the exit of the infectious agent

The dental assistant must maintain clean dressings on all injuries or wounds

115
Q

Name the key to breaking the chain of infection between the mode of transmission and portal of entry

A

Dental assistants must always wash their hands between cases that may involve contact with contaminated items

116
Q

Name the key to breaking the chain of infection between the portal of entry and the host (2)

A

Maintaining skin integrity

Using sterile techniques for patient contact

117
Q

Name the key to breaking the chain of infection between the host and the agent

A

Eliminate the infection before it begins

118
Q

What are the primary routes of microbial transmission in the dental office? (3)

A

Direct contact
Indirect Contact
Inhalation/Aerosol

119
Q

Microbial transmission:

How does direct contact work?

A

An individual has direct contact with a lesion or microorganism while performing intraoral dental procedures

120
Q

Microbial transmission:

How does indirect contact work?

A

An individual has contact with the microorganism through other means, such as contaminated instruments, supplies, or equipment

121
Q

Microbial transmission:

How does inhalation/aerosol work?

A

An individual contacts the microorganism through inhalation

122
Q

When does inhalation/aerosol transmission usually happen?

A

When the high-speed handpiece, or the ultrasonic cavitron is used

123
Q

Dental assistant should have the _____________ necessary to fight off _________ that are encountered because of his or her close proximity to patients during dental treatment

A

Vaccinations

Pathogens

124
Q

True of false:

Taking patient’s medical history will identify the infectious diseases that patients have

A

False

Important to update this information, both verbally and in writing as the patient’s medical history may not identify the infectious diseases that the patients have

125
Q

What is one of the most important ways to prevent the transfer of microorganisms from one person or object to another person?

A

Handwashing

126
Q

Define chemical antisepsis

A

Inhibiting the growth of causative microorganisms

127
Q

Handwashing is both a __________ cleaning and _______ _________

A

Mechanical

Chemical antisepsis

128
Q

How is chemical antisepsis achieved during handwashing?

A

Utilizing antimicrobial soap

129
Q

At the beginning of each day, every member of the team is to complete _ consecutive rounds of __-second hand washes

A

2

15

130
Q

Dental team members must wear protective ________ during specific phases of dental treatment

A

Eyewear

131
Q

What is eyewear worn during specific times of a procedure for?

A

Protection from body secretions, aerosol pathogens, teeth etc.

132
Q

A splatter of _____ and ______ can transfer infectious diseases

A

Blood

Saliva

133
Q

What diseases can be transferred by splatters of blood and saliva?

A

Hepatitis

Herpes simplex

134
Q

Aerosol droplets that contain microorganisms can cause an eye infection known as ____ ___ (______________)

A

Pink eye

Conjuncitivitis

135
Q

Gloves are used as a barrier to _______________

A

Microorganisms

136
Q

When should gloves be worn?

A

Anytime a team member anticipates contact with saliva or blood
Includes saliva- or blood-contaminated surfaces, instruments, or mucous membranes

137
Q

What are the primary types of gloves that are used in the dental office? (7)

A 
Latex gloves
Vinyl/synthetic gloves
Synthetic polymer gloves
Overgloves
Utility gloves
Polynitrile gloves
Nitrile gloves
138
Q

Masks should be worn any time that splatter or aerosol of ______ or _____ can occur

A

Saliva

Blood

139
Q

How do masks help?

A

Protects the patient and dental assistant from communicable diseases

140
Q

Masks should be placed along the eye-wear before ________ _____ and _______ gloves

A

Washing hands

Gloves

141
Q

Important that mark is placed _______ so that it fits ______ against the ____ and stays in place during procedures

A

Properly
Snugly
Face

142
Q

Generally, the _______ side of the mask is on _______ surface for quick identification

A

Coloured

Outside

143
Q

True or false:

Masks should be removed after the procedure by gasping the ties or attachments

A

True

144
Q

Can you reuse masks?

A

No

145
Q

Rules of masks during dental treatment

A

Use a new mask for each patient
Replace the mask if it becomes moist or wet
Never let the mark dangle around the neck or from the ear; remove and discard after each use

146
Q

What are protective clothing?

A

Uniforms
Laboratory coats
Gowns
Clinic jackets

147
Q

When should protective clothing be worned?

A

Should only be worn in the dental office (taken off when going out)

148
Q

Protective clothing should be changed _____, or immediately if __________ with ____ ______

A

Daily
Splattered
Body fluids

149
Q

Protective clothing must close _______ at ____ and around _____ area

A

Tightly
Neck
Cuff

150
Q

Protective clothing must be ____ ______ when sitting

A

Knee-length

151
Q

Protective clothing must be ________ in the office, or sent to a _______ service

A

Laundered

Laundry

152
Q

When are barriers used in a dental office?

A

Wherever possible in all aspects of the dental office

153
Q

Any area where contamination is possible during dental treatment that can covered should be _______

A

Covered

154
Q

Barriers are made specifically for areas that have been hard to disinfect in the past such as what?

A

Tubing and hoses for the handpieces

155
Q

List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Chlorine Dioxide

A

Level: High
Advantages: Rapid disinfection
Disadvantages, corrosive to metals, requires ventilation, irritating to eyes and skin
Time Required for Effectiveness: 5-10 minutes

156
Q

List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Glutaraldehyde

A

Level: High
Advantages: Used for low- and high-level disinfection and sterilization, many have a 28-day use life
Disadvantages: Some are corrosive to metal, requires ventilation, irritating to the eyes and skin
Time Required for Effectiveness: 10-90 minutes

157
Q

List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Ortho-Phthalaldehyde

A

Level: High
Advantages: Used to disinfect without causing sensitivity, many have a 28-day use life
Disadvantages: May turn some plastics blue or green, and does not sterilize
Time Required for Effectiveness: 10-12 minutes

158
Q

List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Iodophor

A

Level: Intermediate
Advantages: Rapid disinfection and used as holding solution for impressions
Disadvantages: May discolor white or pastel vinyls, surface disinfectant or holding solution, irritating to eyes and skin
Time Required for Effectiveness: 10 minutes on surfaces

159
Q

List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Sodium Hypochlorite

A

Level: Intermediate
Advantages: Rapid disinfection
Disadvantages: Corrosive to metals, irritating to skin and eyes, diluted solution is unstable, must be mixed daily
Time Required for Effectiveness: 5-10 minutes

160
Q

List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Phenolics

A

Level: Intermediate
Advantages: Available as sprays or liquids
Disadvantages: Skin and mucous membrane irritation, cannot be used on plastics
Time Required for Effectiveness: 10 minutes

161
Q

List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Alcohol

A

Level: Cleaner only

162
Q

List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for liquid chemical sterilization

A

Temperature: Room temperature
Time: 6-10 hours
Ability to Monitor: Difficult
Special Considerations: Proper ventilation required, does not remain sterile after process

163
Q

List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for ethylene oxide sterilization

A

Temperature/Time: Heated unit 120 degrees Fahrenheit or 48.8 degrees Celsius for 2-3 hours, Room temperature for 12 hours
Ability to Monitor: Difficult
special Considerations: Proper ventilation, additional 24 hours to dissipate gas after sterilization

164
Q

List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for dry heat sterilization

A

Temperature/Time: 340 degrees Fahrenheit or 171 degrees Celsius for 1 hour
Ability to Monitor: Easily monitored
Special Considerations: Limited rust or corrosion of equipment, not for use with plastics or paper

165
Q

List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for chemical vapor sterilization

A

Temperature/Time: 270 degrees Fahrenheit or 132 degrees Celsius for 20 minutes
Ability to Monitor: Easily monitored
Special Considerations: Proper ventilation, special solution required

166
Q

List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for steam under pressure sterilization

A

Temperature/Time: 250 degrees Fahrenheit or 121 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes wrapped
Ability to Monitor: Easily monitored
Special Considerations: Requires distilled water, may corrode instruments, not for use with many plastics

167
Q

List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for steam(flash) autoclave sterilization

A

Temperature/Time: 270 degrees Fahrenheit or 132 degrees Celsius for 3 minutes unwrapped
Ability to Monitor: Easily monitored
Special Considerations: Requires distilled water, may corrode instruments, not for use with many plastics

My Packs: HOSA (Dental) (9 decks)

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