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Medicine year 3 > INFECTION > Flashcards

INFECTION Flashcards

1
Q

What is Pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO)?

A

Prolonged fever of > 38.3 on multiple occasions for at least 3 weeks

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2
Q

What are the causes of systemic inflammatory response (SIR)?

A
  • Infection
  • Malignancy
  • Inflammatory conditions
  • HIV
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3
Q

What are common symptoms associated with prolonged fever?

A
  • Increased heart rate (HR)
  • Increased respiratory rate (RR)
  • Increased CRP
  • Increased ESR
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4
Q

What basic investigations should be performed in cases of PUO?

A
  • Blood cultures (3 sets)
  • Urinalysis
  • U/E, LFT
  • Full blood count (FBC)
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5
Q

What is characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Gram positive cocci in grape-like clusters

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6
Q

What conditions are commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

A
  • Soft tissue infections
  • Recurrent abscesses
  • Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome
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7
Q

What is the mechanism of Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome?

A

Activation of T cells by superantigens, primarily TSST-1

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8
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Group A streptococcal sore throat?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

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9
Q

What are the symptoms of Group A streptococcal tonsillitis?

A
  • Sore throat
  • Headache
  • Fever
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10
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for streptococcal infections?

A
  • Streptococcal antigen test
  • Culture
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11
Q

What are the key features of Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome?

A
  • Fever > 38.9
  • Rash with diffuse macular erythroderma
  • Desquamation 1-2 days after rash onset
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12
Q

What is the treatment protocol for sepsis?

A
  • Administer IV antibiotics within 1 hour
  • IV fluids
  • Oxygen therapy
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13
Q

What is the CURB65 criteria used for?

A

Assessing the severity of pneumonia

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14
Q

What are the components of the CURB65 score?

A
  • Confusion
  • Urea nitrogen > 7mmol/L
  • Respiratory rate > 30
  • Blood pressure (systolic < 90 or diastolic < 60)
  • Age 65 or older
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15
Q

What is the incubation period for influenza?

A

1-4 days

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of influenza?

A
  • Fever
  • Myalgia
  • Headache
  • Severe cough
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17
Q

What are neuraminidase inhibitors used for?

A

Treating influenza by inhibiting viral replication

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18
Q

What are the common symptoms of Hepatitis B?

A
  • Constitutional symptoms
  • Right upper quadrant pain
  • Jaundice
  • Nausea and anorexia
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19
Q

What laboratory markers indicate acute Hepatitis B infection?

A
  • HBsAg (surface antigen)
  • IgM antibodies
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20
Q

What are the key features of viral meningitis?

A
  • Headache
  • Neck stiffness
  • Photophobia
  • Fever
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21
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis in the UK?

A

Enterovirus

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22
Q

What are the key symptoms of bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Severe headache
  • Rapid onset of fever
  • Neck stiffness
  • Focal neurological signs
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23
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis?

A
  • IV ceftriaxone
  • IV amoxicillin (in age extremes)
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24
Q

What is the significance of a low CD4 count in HIV patients?

A

Increased risk of opportunistic infections

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25
Q

What is the first-line treatment for tuberculosis?

A

Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Ethambutol, Pyrazinamide (4 for 2 months, then 2 for 4 months)

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26
Q

What are the side effects of Isoniazid?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

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27
Q

What are common symptoms of leprosy?

A
  • Anaesthetic hypopigmented macules
  • Thickened peripheral nerves
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28
Q

What is the primary causative agent of syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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29
Q

What is a key feature of the secondary stage of syphilis?

A

Symmetrical maculopapular rash

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30
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

Penicillin

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31
Q

What is the healing time for the perianal area?

A

3-8 weeks

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32
Q

What are the symptoms of secondary syphilis?

A
  • Symmetrical maculopapular rash (trunk, palms, soles, and face)
  • Mucosal ulcers
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Malaise
  • Fever
  • Hepatitis
  • Glomerulonephritis
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33
Q

What percentage of untreated patients with syphilis will develop gummatous disease?

A

1 out of 3

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34
Q

What are the types of treponemal tests for syphilis?

A
  • Treponema pallidum haemagglutination assay
  • Treponemal enzyme immunoassay
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35
Q

What are non-treponemal tests for syphilis?

A
  • Rapid plasma regain (RPR)
  • Venereal disease reference laboratory (VDRL)
36
Q

What is the first-line treatment for primary and secondary syphilis?

A

Single dose of intramuscular penicillin G (benzathine benzylpenicillin)

37
Q

What is the treatment duration for tertiary and late syphilis?

A

2-3 weeks of IM penicillin G

38
Q

What is the treatment for neurosyphilis?

A

IV penicillin G for 10-14 days

39
Q

What is the first-line treatment for patients allergic to penicillin?

A

Doxycycline or tetracycline

40
Q

What is rheumatic fever associated with?

A

Group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus infection (scarlet fever)

41
Q

What is a major criterion for diagnosing rheumatic fever?

A
  • Arthritis
  • Pericarditis
  • Valvulitis
  • Sydenham’s chorea
42
Q

What is the treatment for carditis in rheumatic fever?

A

Prednisolone

43
Q

What is Lyme disease caused by?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi carried by ticks

44
Q

What is the characteristic rash of early Lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans (bull’s eye rash)

45
Q

What are the early symptoms of Lyme disease?

A
  • Flu-like symptoms
  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Headache
  • Fatigue
  • Muscle and joint aches
46
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline

47
Q

What are the two forms of rabies?

A
  • Furious (70%)
  • Paralytic (30%)
48
Q

What is the incubation period for rabies?

A

1-3 months

49
Q

What virus causes measles?

A

RNA paramyxovirus

50
Q

What are Koplik spots?

A

Small areas of grey discolouration in the mouth associated with measles

51
Q

What is the most common cause of viral infectious gastroenteritis?

52
Q

What is the first-line treatment for cholera?

A

Rehydration with Na+/K+ with osmotic effect

53
Q

What are the symptoms of typhoid fever?

A
  • Rose coloured spots
  • Fever
  • Abdominal pain
  • GI symptoms
  • Bradycardia
54
Q

What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated malaria?

A

Oral doxycycline for 21 days or 28

55
Q

What is the causative agent of schistosomiasis?

A

Freshwater snails

56
Q

What is the first-line treatment for schistosomiasis?

A

Praziquantel

57
Q

What type of bacteria causes C. difficile infections?

A

Clostridium difficile

58
Q

What is the first-line treatment for a non-severe C. difficile infection?

A

Oral metronidazole

59
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the UK?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

60
Q

What is the characteristic stool appearance in cholera?

A

Rice-water stools

61
Q

What is the treatment for severe or complicated malaria?

A

IV artesunate or IV quinine + doxycycline or clindamycin (oral)

62
Q

What is the incubation period for malaria?

A

1 year, especially 3 months after traveling

63
Q

What type of rash is associated with dengue fever?

A

Macular rash

64
Q

What is a common complication of mumps?

A

Orchitis (epididymis-orchitis)

65
Q

What is the most common cause of infantile gastroenteritis?

66
Q

What vaccine were children under 5 vaccinated against in 2013?

A

Norovirus

Norovirus is the most common cause of viral infectious gastroenteritis.

67
Q

What is the most common cause of viral infectious gastroenteritis?

A

Norovirus

Norovirus outbreaks often occur in hospitals and care homes.

68
Q

How is Norovirus transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral route or airborne transmission

Norovirus is highly contagious with a low infecting dose.

69
Q

What are the common symptoms of Norovirus infection?

A

Non-bloody diarrhoea and vomiting

70
Q

What type of testing is used for Norovirus?

A

Viral PCR / Antigen testing

71
Q

What is Giardia lamblia?

A

A parasite

Giardia lamblia is associated with contaminated water supplies.

72
Q

What test is used to diagnose parasitic infections?

A

Stool microscopy

73
Q

What is Entamoeba histolytica?

A

A parasite

It is transmitted through foreign travel and poor hygiene.

74
Q

What is Candida Albicans commonly associated with?

A

Oral thrush

Oral thrush presents as white spots on the roof of the mouth.

75
Q

What are some risks associated with Candida Albicans infection?

A

Lymphoma, HIV, smoking, inhaled steroid use

76
Q

What are the symptoms of oral candidiasis?

A

White or yellow plaques in mouth, mild burning, erythema, altered taste, furry tongue, dysphagia

77
Q

What is Tinea?

A

A fungal infection

78
Q

What is the treatment for ringworm (Tinea corporis)?

A

Topical antifungal cream (e.g., Terbinafine, Clotrimazole, Miconazole)

79
Q

What is a common symptom of threadworm infection?

A

Perianal or vulval itching in a child

The itching is often worse at night.

80
Q

What is the treatment for threadworm?

A

Oral mebendazole and hygiene measures for everyone in the house

81
Q

What is the treatment for fungal nail infections?

A

Topical nail lacquer (Amorolifine) or oral terbinafine

82
Q

How long should topical nail lacquer be applied for fingernails?

83
Q

How long should topical nail lacquer be applied for toenails?

A

9-12 months

84
Q

What should be monitored when treating fungal nail infections with oral terbinafine?

A

Liver function tests (LFT)

85
Q

COMMMN CAUSESOF OTITIS MEDIA - BACTERIA

A

Whilst viral upper respiratory tract infections (URTIs) typically precede otitis media, most infections are secondary to bacteria. The most common is Streptococcus pneumoniae, followed by Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis

Medicine year 3 (36 decks)

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