DERM TABLE Flashcards

1
Q

What is Acne Vulgaris?

A

A skin condition characterized by the blockage of the pilosebaceous unit (PSU) leading to comedones, inflammation, and pustules.

Acne Vulgaris is the most common form of acne.

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2
Q

What components make up the pilosebaceous unit (PSU)?

A

Hair follicle and sebaceous gland.

Sebaceous glands produce sebum, which lubricates hair and skin.

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3
Q

What causes the formation of comedones in acne?

A

Clogging of hair follicles with sebum and dead skin cells.

Comedones are a primary feature of acne.

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4
Q

What are the two types of comedones?

A
  • Open (blackhead) - clogged pore remains open
  • Closed (whitehead) - clogged pore covered by skin

Blackheads appear black due to oxidation of debris inside.

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5
Q

What is a papule?

A

A small raised solid lesion less than 1 cm in size.

Papules can be a result of inflamed comedones.

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6
Q

What is a pustule?

A

A small pus-filled lesion less than 1 cm in size.

Pustules are typically superficial in nature.

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7
Q

What are the treatment options for mild to moderate acne?

A
  • Benzoyl peroxide (BPO)
  • Clindamycin
  • Erythromycin
  • Trimethoprim (in pregnant/breastfeeding)
  • Retinoids (Adapalene/Tretinoin)
  • COCP for women as alternative to antibiotics

Combination creams like DUAC (BPO and clindamycin) can also be used.

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8
Q

What is Isotretinoin used for?

A

Treatment for severe acne, including nodules, cysts, and scarring.

Isotretinoin requires monitoring due to potential side effects.

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9
Q

What is acne fulminans?

A

A severe form of acne characterized by sudden eruptions and systemic illness, treated with oral steroids and low-dose isotretinoin.

Acne fulminans is rare and requires immediate medical attention.

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10
Q

What are the side effects of Isotretinoin?

A
  • Dry skin, mouth, eyes, lips
  • Low mood
  • Hair thinning
  • Intracranial hypertension
  • Nose bleeds
  • Photosensitivity
  • Teratogenic effects

Women must avoid pregnancy while on Isotretinoin due to its teratogenic effects.

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11
Q

What is Acne Rosacea?

A

A skin condition characterized by facial flushing, redness, and visible blood vessels, primarily affecting women aged 30-60 with fair skin.

Triggers include sun exposure, stress, and certain foods.

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12
Q

What is vitiligo?

A

An autoimmune condition resulting in the loss of melanocytes, leading to white patches on the skin.

It often affects the peripheries and can be associated with other autoimmune diseases.

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13
Q

What characterizes psoriasis?

A

A chronic autoimmune inflammatory disorder with abnormal T-cell activity leading to scaly red patches.

Psoriasis is exacerbated by stress and certain infections.

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14
Q

What is the Koebner phenomenon?

A

The appearance of new skin lesions on previously healthy skin following injury.

It is associated with conditions like psoriasis and vitiligo.

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15
Q

What is dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

An autoimmune condition linked to gluten sensitivity, characterized by intense itching and blistering rash.

It typically resolves with a gluten-free diet.

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16
Q

What is the primary treatment for bullous pemphigoid?

A

Systemic oral steroids until no new lesions develop for a year.

Topical steroids may be used at onset.

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17
Q

What is the difference between bullous pemphigoid and bullous pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Bullous pemphigoid has tense blisters and spares mucous membranes, while bullous pemphigus vulgaris has flaccid, fragile blisters and may involve mucous membranes.

Nikolsky’s sign is positive in pemphigus vulgaris.

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18
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

A hypersensitivity reaction causing tender, erythematous nodules on the shins.

It is often idiopathic or associated with conditions like sarcoidosis and IBD.

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19
Q

What is atopic dermatitis?

A

A chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by itching, erythema, and dryness.

It often presents in childhood and is associated with asthma and allergic conditions.

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20
Q

What is the first line treatment for mild eczema?

A

Liberal emollient usage and mild corticosteroids (e.g., hydrocortisone).

Emollients should always accompany corticosteroids.

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21
Q

What is contact dermatitis?

A

Inflammation of the skin due to contact with irritants or allergens.

It can be classified as allergic or irritant contact dermatitis.

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22
Q

What triggers urticaria?

A

IgE response to allergens such as food, medication, or insect stings.

Urticaria presents as raised itchy welts that can appear and disappear quickly.

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23
Q

What is Steven Johnson syndrome?

A

A rare, life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction characterized by severe skin and mucous membrane blistering.

It is often triggered by medications and can present with flu-like symptoms initially.

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24
Q

What medication is often used for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

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25
Q

What are common triggers for certain skin reactions?

A

Medication, viruses, bacterial infections

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26
Q

What symptoms can appear within a week of medication intake?

A

Flu-like symptoms

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27
Q

What are the initial symptoms of a flu-like prodrome?

A

Sore throat, cold, fever

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28
Q

What type of skin changes follow the initial flu-like symptoms?

A

Erythematous macules/skin changes

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29
Q

What kind of skin rash can develop from these symptoms?

A

Red or purple skin rash that develops into blisters

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30
Q

What is a positive Nikolsky sign?

A

Peeling of skin when touched

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31
Q

What are painful ulcers in mucosal areas indicative of?

A

Mucosal ulceration in at least 2 areas (mouth, conjunctiva, urethra, pharynx)

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32
Q

What does a skin biopsy show in severe skin reactions?

A

Necrotic keratinocytes and sparse lymphocyte infiltrate

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33
Q

What percentage of body surface involvement is considered significant in these conditions?

A

10% of body surface

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34
Q

What is a major complication of these skin reactions?

A

Dehydration

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35
Q

What treatments may be used for severe skin reactions?

A

IV Fluid, electrolyte management, IV steroid, IVIG

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36
Q

Name a group of drugs that can cause severe skin reactions.

A

*Sulfonamides
*Beta-lactams (penicillins and cephalosporins)
*Antiepileptics (e.g., phenytoin, carbamazepine)
*Allopurinol
*NSAIDs
*Rifampin
*Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim)

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37
Q

What is toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

A life-threatening skin disorder most commonly due to drug reactions

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38
Q

What characterizes the severe reaction in toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

Life-threatening widespread immune response with massive skin and mucosal sloughing

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39
Q

What is the Nikolsky sign related to in toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

Epidermis separates with mild lateral pressure

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40
Q

What is Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?

A

A reaction to toxins from staphylococcal infection

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41
Q

What do exfoliative toxins target in SSSS?

A

Desmoglein 1, a protein that helps skin cells stick together

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42
Q

What is the common age group affected by SSSS?

A

Primarily newborns, infants, and immunocompromised individuals

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43
Q

What is the appearance of lesions in SSSS?

A

Initial bullous lesions followed by widespread desquamation

44
Q

What is the treatment for SSSS?

A

IV antibiotics (flucloxacillin), fluids, wound care

45
Q

What is scarlet fever caused by?

A

Streptococcus (GAS) group A beta-hemolytic strep pyogenes

46
Q

What are the initial symptoms of scarlet fever?

A

Fever, malaise, sore throat

47
Q

What distinctive feature appears in scarlet fever?

A

Strawberry tongue

48
Q

What type of rash is associated with scarlet fever?

A

Sandpaper rash

49
Q

What antibiotic is commonly prescribed for scarlet fever?

A

Penicillin V for 10 days

50
Q

What serious complications can arise from scarlet fever?

A

*Abscess formation (quinsy)
*Acute rheumatic fever
*Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
*Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

51
Q

What causes toxic shock syndrome?

A

Superantigen causes intense T-cell stimulation

52
Q

What are the symptoms of toxic shock syndrome?

A

*Diffuse maculopapular rash
*Fever
*Mucosal changes
*Profuse diarrhea

53
Q

What is the main treatment for toxic shock syndrome?

A

IV antibiotics and fluid resuscitation

54
Q

What is impetigo?

A

Infectious superficial infection of the epidermis

55
Q

What bacteria commonly cause impetigo?

A

*Staphylococcus aureus
*Streptococcus pyogenes

56
Q

What is a characteristic feature of impetigo lesions?

A

Golden crusted skin lesions

57
Q

What is the treatment for localized non-bullous impetigo?

A

Hydrogen peroxide 1% cream

58
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

Bacterial infection affecting the dermis and subcutaneous tissue

59
Q

What are common symptoms of cellulitis?

A

*Erythema
*Swelling
*Pain
*Heat

60
Q

What is the main cause of cellulitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus

61
Q

What is erythema migrans associated with?

A

Lyme disease

62
Q

What is the characteristic rash of Lyme disease?

A

Bulls-eye rash with a central clearing

63
Q

What is Erythema multiforme?

A

An immune-mediated skin reaction

64
Q

What triggers Erythema multiforme?

A

Most commonly caused by Herpes simplex virus (HSV) or EBV

65
Q

What do the lesions of Erythema multiforme look like?

A

Target-like lesions on peripheries that can blister

66
Q

What is Molluscum contagiosum?

A

Viral skin infection caused by molluscum contagiosum virus

67
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of molluscum contagiosum lesions?

A

Small, raised, round lesions with a dimpled center

68
Q

What is the primary treatment for troublesome molluscum contagiosum?

A

Topical treatments or cryotherapy

69
Q

What virus causes viral warts?

A

Human papilloma virus (HPV)

70
Q

What is a characteristic feature of warts?

A

Rough surface

71
Q

What is the treatment for warts?

A

Cryotherapy or topical treatments (salicylic acid, podophyllotoxin)

72
Q

What disease is measles caused by?

A

Paramyxovirus

73
Q

What are the initial symptoms of measles?

A

High fever, coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis

74
Q

What is a characteristic rash of measles?

A

Maculopapular rash

75
Q

What are Koplik spots?

A

Small grey discolorations of mucosal membranes in measles

76
Q

What is the main treatment for measles?

A

Supportive care and vitamin A administration for children under 2

77
Q

What virus causes chickenpox?

A

Varicella zoster virus

78
Q

What is the characteristic progression of chickenpox lesions?

A

Starts as raised, red, itchy spots, progresses to fluid-filled blisters

79
Q

What is the treatment for chickenpox?

A

Symptomatic treatment, keep fingernails short, and cooling measures

80
Q

What triggers shingles?

A

Reactivation of the varicella zoster virus

81
Q

What is the typical presentation of shingles?

A

Erythematous papules along one or more dermatomes

82
Q

What is scabies caused by?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei mites

83
Q

What is a classic symptom of scabies?

A

Itching worse at night

84
Q

Where do scabies rashes typically occur?

A

Inter-web spaces, flexures of wrist, abdomen, and groin

85
Q

What are common areas affected by itching in scabies?

A

Inter-web spaces, flexures of wrist, axilla, abdomen, and groin

Itching is often worse at night.

86
Q

What are the characteristics of burrows in scabies?

A

Small brown lines

Burrows are indicative of scabies infestation.

87
Q

Describe the typical rash associated with scabies.

A

Itchy rash that is usually popular or vesicular

Vesicles are small fluid-filled blisters less than 1cm.

88
Q

What is the recommended treatment for scabies?

A

Permethrin 5% cream and oral Ivermectin

Permethrin should be applied from head to toe for 8-12 hours.

89
Q

What is hand, foot, and mouth disease primarily caused by?

A

Coxsackievirus A16 and Enterovirus 71

This disease primarily affects children.

90
Q

How does hand, foot, and mouth disease spread?

A

Direct contact with secretions, coughing, sneezing, contaminated surfaces

91
Q

What are the symptoms of hand, foot, and mouth disease?

A

Red rash on hands, feet, buttocks, mouth sores, fever, malaise

Mouth sores can cause painful ulcerations.

92
Q

What is Erythema infectiosum also known as?

A

Fifth disease

It presents with a ‘slapped cheek appearance’.

93
Q

What characterizes Hidradenitis suppurativa?

A

Painful/intermittent lumps in axilla

It is associated with T2DM, obesity, and inflammatory conditions.

94
Q

What are Seborrheic keratosis lesions like?

A

Benign skin growths that are often warty and vary in color

Common in individuals over 50.

95
Q

What is actinic keratosis?

A

A pre-malignant skin condition that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma

It presents as dry/scaly patches of skin damaged by the sun.

96
Q

What are the risks associated with actinic keratosis?

A

Fair skin (type 1 or 2) and a history of sunburn

97
Q

What is the appearance of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Keratinized, scaly, crusted, irregular nodules

It may present with a cauliflower-like appearance.

98
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor in older adults?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

It originates from basal keratinocytes.

99
Q

What are the ABCD criteria for malignant melanoma?

A

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter > 6mm

Elevation or evolution of a skin lesion is also a criterion.

100
Q

What is Pityriasis versicolor caused by?

A

Malassezia yeast overgrowth

It is common in warm climates and during summer months.

101
Q

What are the characteristics of vitiligo?

A

Autoimmune, slower onset, symmetrical, non-scaling, asymptomatic

Lesions are well-defined and have clear borders.

102
Q

What is the definition of a macule?

A

Small flat circumscribed area – altered color

103
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

Small fluid-filled cavity less than 1cm

104
Q

What does an abscess represent?

A

Large pus-filled cavity that needs incision and drainage

105
Q

What is the appropriate investigation for a suspected fungal infection?

A

Skin scrapings, nail clippings, hair samples

Fungal cultures may also be conducted.

106
Q

What does the acronym MC&S stand for?

A

Microscopy, Culture, and Sensitivities