infection Flashcards

1
Q

Lyme disease rx:
1st line
2nd line (if cannot have above

A

doxycycline
amoxicillin

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2
Q

latent TB rx (2 options)

A

3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin
or
6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

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3
Q

active TB rx

A

initial phase (1st 2 months)
- Rifampicin
- Izoniazid
- pyrazinamide
- ethambutol

continuation phase (next 4 months)
- rifampacin
- izoniazid

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4
Q

rifampacin SE (3)

A

potent liver enzyme inducer
hepatitis, orange secretions
flu-like symptoms

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5
Q

isoniazid SE (4)

A

peripheral neuropathy: prevent with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
hepatitis
agranulocytosis
liver enzyme inhibitor

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6
Q

pyrazinamide SE (3)

A

hyperuricaemia causing gout
arthralgia, myalgia
hepatitis

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7
Q

ethambutol SE (1)

A

optic neuritis: check visual acuity before and during treatment

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8
Q

campylobacter rx
(treat only in severe infection as is usually self-limiting)

A

clarithromycin

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9
Q

necrotising fasciitis causative organism:
type 1
type 2

A

type 1: mixed aerobes and anaerobes (more common)
type 2: strep pyogenes

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10
Q

cellulitis management
& in penicillin allergic

A
  1. flucloxacillin
  2. clarithromycin, erythromycin (if pregnant), doxy
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11
Q

giardiasis (giardia lamblia)

  1. RF
  2. features
  3. mgt
A
  1. foreign travel
    swimming/ drinking river water
    MSM
  2. often asymptomatic
    non-bloody diarrhoea
    steatorrhoea
    bloating, abdominal pain
    lethargy
    flatulence
    weight loss
    malabsorption and lactose intolerance can occur
  3. metronidazole
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12
Q

metronidazole interactions (2):

A

disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol
increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin

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13
Q

chlamydia mgt (1st and 2nd line)

A
  1. doxycycline
  2. azithromycin
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14
Q

live attenuated vaccines

A

BOOMY

BCG
oral polio
oral typhoid
MMR
yellow fever

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15
Q

inactivated vaccines

A

rabies
HEp A
influenza (im)

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16
Q

toxoid (inactivated toxin)

A

tetanus
diphtheria
pertussis

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17
Q

how many tetanus vaccines confer life-long protection?

A

5

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18
Q

meningitis mgt

i. pre-hospital
ii. in hospital
iii. mgt of contacts

A

i. im benzylpenicillin

ii.cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)
& amoxicillin (ampicillin if >50 or <3 months )

iii. oral cipro/ rifampicin

19
Q

mgt of meningitis contacts
(contacts of confirmed bacterial meningitis if they had close contact within 7 days before onset)

A

oral ciprofloxacin or rifampacin

20
Q

gas gangrene causative organism

A

clostridium perfringes

21
Q

typhoid

i. causative organism
ii. transmission

A

i. salmonella typhi
ii. faecal oral

22
Q

typhoid features:

A

relative bradycardia
abdominal pain, distension
constipation (can also have diarrhoea)
rose spots (more common in paratyphoid)

23
Q

typhoid cx

A

osteomyelitis (especially in sickle cell disease where Salmonella is one of the most common pathogens)
GI bleed/perforation
meningitis
cholecystitis
chronic carriage (1%, more likely if adult females)

24
Q

genital wart mgt:
i. multiple, non-keratinised
ii. solitary, keratinised

A

i. topical podophyllum
ii. cryotherapy

25
Q

gonorrhoea (neisseria gonorrhoeae)
i. type of bacteria
ii. mgt

A

i. gram -ve dipplococcus

ii. stat im ceftriaxone 1g
if sensitivities known stat PO ciprofloxacin 500mg
if im refused –> PO cefiximine 400mg stat and PO azithromycin 2g

26
Q

Hep B serology

i. acute infection
ii. immunity
iii. previous/ current infection

A

i. HBsAg (if present for > 6 months suggests chronic)
ii. anti-HBs
iii. anti–HBc

27
Q

legionella pneumonia features:

A
  • flu-like sx+ fever
  • dry cough
  • relative bradycardia
  • confusion
  • hyponatraemia
  • lymphopenia
  • deranged LFTs
  • pleural effusion (30%)
28
Q

legionella pneumonia ix:

A
  • urinary antigen
  • CXR (mid to lower zone patchy consolidation, pleural effusion 30%)
29
Q

legionella pneumonia mgt

A

macrolide –> erythromycin/ clarithromycin

30
Q

most common causative organism for pneumonia post flu

A

s. aureus

31
Q

most common cause of travellers’ diarrhoea

A

e. coli

32
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia cx (2)

A
  • haemolytic anaemia
  • erythema multiforme
33
Q

mycoplasma ix:

A

serology

34
Q

most common organism responsible for exacerbations of bronchiectasis

A

h. influenzae
(also causes acute epiglottitis)

35
Q

epiglottitis cause:

A

h. influenzae

36
Q

bronchiolitis causative organism

A

RSV

37
Q

croup causative organism

A

parainfluenza

38
Q

common cold causative organism

A

rhinovirus

39
Q

pneumocystis jyroverci rx:

A

co-trimoxazole

40
Q

Kaposi sarcoma causative organism

A

HHV-8

41
Q

diarrhoeal illness:
1-6 hr incubation period

A

s. aureus

b. cereus (rice)

42
Q

diarrhoeal illness:
12-48 hr incubation period

A

salmonella
e. coli

43
Q

diarrhoeal illness:
48-72 hr incubation period

A

shigella
campylobacter

44
Q

diarrhoeal illness:
>7 day incubation period

A

giardiasis
amoebasies