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(Other) Board Prep > Immunology - FA, Pathoma > Flashcards

Immunology - FA, Pathoma Flashcards

1
Q

Structure of MHC I?

MHC II?

A

1 long chain, 1 short chain

2 equal-length chains

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2
Q

What causes Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

inheritance?

Main findings/CFs?

A

Defect in LYST –> microtubule dysfunction in phagolysosome

AR

Giant granules, pancytopenia, recurrent pyogenic infections

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3
Q

What HLA does celiac disease have?

A

DQ2/DQ8

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4
Q

Keloid is characterized by excess what?

Describe how?

Affects what body parts, what demographic??

A

Collagen type 3

Excess production of scar tissue WAY out of proportion to wound

earlobes, face, UE –> AAs

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5
Q

What causes a + PPD?

A

T cells
Transplant rejection
TB skin test
Touching (contact dermatitis)

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6
Q

Where are the stem cells of bowel?

A

Crypts

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7
Q

What portion of the antibody determines isotype (IgM, IgD)?

A

Fc

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8
Q

What is the CD marker for NK cells?

A

CD56

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10
Q

Regulatory T cell markers?

A

CD4

CD25

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11
Q

MOA of Sirolimus?

SE?

A

mTOR inhibitor, binds FKBP - prevents IL-2

Pancytopenia, insulin resistance

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12
Q

What does Alemtuzumab treat?

Target?

A

CLL, MS

CD52

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13
Q

What is the CD for EBV?

A

CD21

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14
Q

What is hereditary angioedema caused by?

CFs?

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency –> vasodilation

Edema of skin and mucosal surfaces especially periorbital

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15
Q

Delayed wound healing due to deficient copper affects what enzyme?

A

Lysyl oxidase

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16
Q

MPO-ANCA is what?

Seen in what?

A

p-ANCA

Churg Strauss, UC, microscopic polyangitis

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17
Q

Combined passive and active immunizations can be given for what diseases?

A

HepB

Rabies

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20
Q

MHC Class II have what loci?

A

HLA-DP, DQ, DR

All have 2 letters

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21
Q

What is used to treat thrombocytopenia?

A

Oprelvekin (IL-11)
Romiplostim
Eltromopag

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24
Q

Examples of killed vaccine?

A

Rabies
Infuenza (injection)
Polio (Salk)
HepA

RIP Always

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25
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency due to what mutation?

Inheritance?

CFs?

A

LFA-1 (CD18)

AR

Recurrent skin and mucosal bacterial infections, absent pus
Delayed separation (> 30 days) of umbilical cord
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26
Q

Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction to what?

Timing?

A

Host Abs against donor HLA Ags and WBCs

Within 1-6 hours

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27
Q

NADPH deficiency causes what?

Pts are at INC risk for what?

A

CGD (can still use H2O2)

catalase (+) organisms - S.aureus, Aspergillus

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28
Q

What induces a Th17 cell?

A

TGF-Beta

IL-6

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29
Q

Pernicious anemia has what HLA?

A

DR5

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30
Q

Acute transplant rejection is due to what?

What type HS?

A

CD8+ T cells activated against donor MHC

4

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31
Q

What type of HS is T1DM?

What T cell mechanism?

A

Type 4

CD8 CTL

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32
Q

Which LNs drain the trachea and kidney and uterus?

A

Para-aortic

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33
Q

What can be used to treat RCC, metastatic melanoma?

A

Aldeslekin (IL-2)

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34
Q

What induces a Th2 cell?

A

IL-2, IL-4

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35
Q

What causes complement mediated lysis of rbc’s?

What else can it cause?

A

CD55 (DAF) deficiency

PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)

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36
Q

What are some clinical uses for IFN-alpha?

A 
Chronic HepB and C
Kaposi
Malignant melanoma
Hairy cell
RCC
Condyloma acuminatum
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37
Q

What do Th1 cells secrete?

A

IFN-gamma

IL-2

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38
Q

What causes a defect in Hyper-IgM syndrome?

Inheritance?

CFs?

A

Defective CD40L on Th cells

X-linked recessive

Severe pyogenic infections, INC IgM

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39
Q

What causes Burton agammaglobulinemia?

Sx?

Inheritance?

A

Defect in BTK (no Bcell maturation)

Recurrent bacterial and enteroviral infections after 6 months

X-linked recessive

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42
Q

Sx of DiGeorge?

A

Tetany (hypocalcemia)
Recurrent viral/fungal infections (T-cell def)
Can have ToF, truncus arteriosus

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43
Q

X-linked SCID due to defect in what?

AR?

A

IL-2R gamma chain

ADA

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44
Q

Where is the paracortex located?

What does it house?

Contains what?

A

Area of cortex bw follicles and medulla

T cells

HEVs through which T and B cells enter the blood

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45
Q

Which LNs drain the lungs?

A

Hilar

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46
Q

What does C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency cause?

Dx how? What is Contraindicated?

A

Herediatry angioedema due to kallikrein causing INC bradykinin

DEC C4 levels, ACE-Is

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48
Q

What are all the type 3 HS reactions?

A 
PPASS
SLE
PAN
PSGN
Serum sickness
Arthus Reaction
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49
Q

What has an anti-hemidesmosome ab?

A

Bullous pemphigoid

BPH

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50
Q

What converts type 3 collagen to type 1 collagen?

What is the required cofactor?

A

Collagenase

Zinc

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53
Q

Which type 2 HS reactions cause inflammation and activate complement and Fc-receptor mediated inflammation?

A

Goodpasture
Rheumatic Fever
Hyperacute Transplant rejection

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54
Q

What induces a Treg cell?

A

TGF-Beta

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55
Q

What is the CD marker for Macrophages?

A

CD14 (receptor for PAMPs)

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56
Q

MHC class I has what Loci?

A

HLA-A, B , C

All have 1 letter

57
Q

Which LNs drain the trachea and esophagus?

A

Mediastinal

58
Q

What characterizes hyper IgE syndrome (Job syndrome)?

Inheritance?

CF?

A

Deficiency of Th17 due to STAT 3 mutation

INC IgE, DEC IFN-gamma

Coarse facies, retained primary teeth, abscesses, derm problems

59
Q

What HLA does DM type 1 Have?

What other disease has this HLA?

A

DR3

SLE, Graves, Hashimoto, Addison’s

60
Q

What does Bevacizumab treat?

Target?

A

colorectal cancer, RCC, non-small cell lung cancer

VEGF

61
Q

Examples of an active immunization?

A

Natural infection
Vaccine
Toxoid

62
Q

Where are T cells found in the spleen?

B cells?

A

PALS

Follicles w/in the white pulp

63
Q

What part of the the LN are plasma cells and lymphocytes located?

A

Medullary cords

64
Q

Thymomas are seen in what diseases?

A

M.G.

SVC syndrome

65
Q

Which type HS is due to antibodies binding to cell-surface antigens?

A

type 2

67
Q

What treats CGD?

A

IFN-gamma

69
Q

What induces a Th1 cell?

A

IL-12, IFN-gamma

70
Q

What drains the scrotum, vulva, anal canal (below pectinate line), and skin below umbilicus?

A

Superficial inguinal

71
Q

Where do APCs capture blood-borne antigens for recognition by lymphocytes?

What else is located there?

A

Marginal zone

Macrophages

72
Q

MOA of Tacrolimus?

Aka what?

SE?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor binds FKBP - prevents IL-2 transcription

FK506

Nephrotoxic, INC risk of diabetes and neurotoxicity

73
Q

Azathioprine MOA?

Used for what?

SE?

A

Is the precursor of 6-MP, Blocks nucleotide synthesis

RA, Crohn’s, GN

Pancytopenia

74
Q

Which Ig is most abundant type in serum?

Most produced antibody overall?

Lowest [ ] in serum?

A

IgG

IgA

IgE

75
Q

What HLA does Goodpasture’s have?

A

HLA-DR2

76
Q

What receptor is needed for B-cell class switching?

A

CD40 on B cells

CD40L on Th cell

77
Q

What prevents complement activation on self cells (rbc’s)?

A

DAF (CD55)

C1 esterase inhibitor

78
Q

What diseases are Type 4 HS due to CD4+ T cells?

A

Contact dermatitis

GVHD

79
Q

What cytokines do macrophages secrete?

A 
IL-1
IL-6
IL-8
IL-12
TNF-alpha
80
Q

What as an autoantibody to desmoglein?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris - oral mucosa involvement

81
Q

P selectins come from what?

E selectin?

What do the selectins bind to?

A

Weibel-Palade bodies

TNF, IL-1

sialyl Lewis X on leukocytes (neutrophils)

82
Q

Hyperacute HS type?

GVHD?

A

2

4

83
Q

What is the thymus derived from?

A

3rd pouch

84
Q

What drains the lower rectum of anal canal (above pectinate line)?

A

Internal iliac

85
Q

If the NBT reveals a blue color what does it mean?

If colorless means what?

A

Normal NADPH oxidase
Can convert O2 –> O2.-

deficiency of enzyme

86
Q

What makes up C3 convertase in classic pathway?

C5 convertase?

A

C4b2b

C4b2b3b

87
Q

What is common variable immunodeficiency?

Findings?

A

Defect in B-cell maturation, presents after age 2

DEC plasma cells and Igs

88
Q

Anti-histone marker indicates what?

A

Drug induced lupus

89
Q

What causes failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea, thrush, recurrent infections of all kind?

Tx?

A

SCID

IVIG, BM transplant = cure

90
Q

What do all T cells secrete?

A

IL-2 (T cell growth factor)

IL-3 (differentiation of BM stem cells)

91
Q

Examples of live attenuated vaccine?

A 
MMR
Varicella 
BCG
Influenza (intranasal)
Polio (Sabin)
Rotavirus
Yellow fever
92
Q

Defect in ATM gene causes what?

How?

CFs?

What abnormal lab?

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia

Failure to repair dsDNA breaks –> cell cycle arrest

Ataxia, Angiomas, IgA deficiency

Increased AFP

93
Q

What mab treats RSV in infants?

A

Palivizumab

94
Q

IPEX is due to what gene defect?

Seen in what pts?

A

FOXP3

Diabetes in male infants

95
Q

What causes DiGeorge syndrome?

A

22q11 deletion, failure of 3rd and 4th pouches to develop

96
Q

What infections do X-linked agammaglobulinemia pts get?

Do not give these pts what?

A

Bacterial
Enterovirus (polio, coxsackie)
Giardia

Live vaccines

97
Q

HSC marker?

A

CD34

98
Q

What do Th2 cells secrete?

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, IL-13

99
Q

What mab treats psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis?

Drug target?

A

Ustekinumab

IL-12, IL-23

100
Q

MOA of cyclosporin?

SE?

Other clinical use?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor, binds cyclophilin - prevents IL-2 transcription

Nephrotoxic, gingival hyperplasia, HTN, hirsutism

101
Q

Ag variation in Salmonella occurs how?

Parasites?

A

2 flagellar variants

Trypanosomes

102
Q

What mab treats osteoporosis?

Drug target?

A

Denosumab

RANKL

103
Q

What is characterized by edema, necrosis, and activation of complement?

Due to what?

A

Arthus reaction

Intradermal injection

104
Q

Other than C3b what is the major opsonin against bacteria?

A

IgG

105
Q

What is the costimulation protein on T cells needed for activation?

On DCs?

A

CD28

CD80/86 (B7 protein)

106
Q

What mab targets EGFR?

Tx for what?

A

Cetuximab

Stage 4 colorectal cancer, H and N cancer

107
Q

What drains the cervix, prostate, bladder, middle third of vagina?

A

Internal iliac LN

108
Q

IL-12 receptor deficiency causes what?

Inheritance?

A

Dec Th1 response –> disseminated fungal and myobacterial infections

AR

109
Q

What CD on macrophages recognizes LPS?

A

CD14

110
Q

What treats M.S.?

A

IFN-beta

111
Q

Chronic transplant rejection due to what?

What type HS?

A

CD4+ T cells respond to recipient APCs, including MHC

2 and 4

112
Q

What does FGF do?

A

Angiogenesis

Mediates skeletal development

113
Q

What does the cortex of the thymus contain?

Medulla?

A

Immature T cells

Mature T cells and Hassall corpuscles containing epithelial reticular cells

114
Q

Live attenuated vaccine induces what response?

Inactivated/killed?

A

Cellular and humoral

Humoral

115
Q

What are all the B cell markers?

A

CD19, 20, 21, 40

MHC II, B7

116
Q

What HLA does R.A. Have?

A

DR4 –> 4 walls in a “room”

117
Q

What causes fever, uticaria, proteinuria, LAD to occur 5-10 days after Ag exposure?

Due to what?

A

Serum sickness

Drugs

118
Q

what makes up C3 convertase in alternative pathway?

A

C3bBb

119
Q

What IL activates NK Cells?

A

IL-12

120
Q

What is located within the medullary sinuses?

A

Reticular cells

Macrophages

121
Q

Ag variation in N.gonorrhea how?

A

Plus protein

122
Q

Which MHC has Beta2-microglobulin?

A

MHC 1

123
Q

Mycophenolate MOA?

Tx what?

SE?

A

Reversibly inhibits IMP dehydrogenase

Lupus nephritis

pancytopenia

124
Q

What causes leukocytes and platelets to be unable to recognize actin cytoskeleton and presents w/thrombocytopenia, eczema, recurrent pyogenic infections?

Inheritance?

Findings?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - mutation in WASp gene

X-linked recessive

fewer and smaller platelets

125
Q

Positively selected T cells go where?

Negatively?

A

Thymic cortex

Thymic medulla

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