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immunology Flashcards

1
Q

what is the innate immune system

A

always present and first line of defence but not specific

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2
Q

what is the adaptive immune system

A

specific to the invader but slow to act

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3
Q

examples of primary lymphoid organs

A
  • thymus

- bone marrow

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4
Q

what is primary lymphoid organs

A

where cells originate

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5
Q

where do cells and molecules of immune system circulate

A

in the blood

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6
Q

where does immune response take place

A

at site of infection

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7
Q

where does memory specific cells reside

A

in the spleen and lymph nodes

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8
Q

what are the specific cells called

A

lymphocytes

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9
Q

what are the specific cells molecular form called

A

antibodies

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10
Q

what are other examples of secondary lymphoid organs

A
  • adenoids
  • tonsils
  • Peter’s patch in small intestine
  • lymphoid
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11
Q

where do all immune cells derived from

A

pluripotent stem cells

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12
Q

where are pluripotent stem cells generated

A

in bone marrow

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13
Q

where are T cells generated

A

thymus

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14
Q

where do both lymphocytes activate

A

in peripheral tissue

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15
Q

what can B cells become

A

antibodies

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16
Q

what is the lymphoid tissue at mucosa surfaces called

A

mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

MALT

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17
Q

what do neutrophils defend

A

major first line defence against pathogens

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18
Q

what role do mast cells, eosinophils and basophils have

A

immunity to parasites
and
allergies

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19
Q

what do monocytes and macrophages defend against

A

bacteria, fungi, parasites

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20
Q

what do dendritic cells do

A

antigen presenting to T lymphocytes

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21
Q

what do B lymphocytes produce

A

antibodies

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22
Q

what are CD4

A

helper cells

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23
Q

what are CD8

A

cytotoxic

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24
Q

what are barriers against pathogens

A
  • skin
  • mucous
  • cough reflex
  • urine flow
  • gastric pH
  • commensal flora
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25
Q

what is used to monitor HIV

A

CD4 count

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26
Q

what do cytokines do

A

change the function of the same or other cells

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27
Q

what is paracrine function

A

modulates adjacent cells

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28
Q

what are endocrine effects

A

modulates cells and organs at remote sites

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29
Q

what are the main cytokines

A
  • interferon

- interleukins

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30
Q

what are some types of interferons

A
  • alpha
  • beta
  • gamma
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31
Q

what is the function of chemokine

A

chemotactic molecules that attract cells along a gradient from low to high

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32
Q

what is another feature of chemokine

A

ability to activate immune cells

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33
Q

what are the 2 parts to the immune system

A
  • physical barrier

- blood-borne system

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34
Q

what is the most abundant white cell

A

neutrophil

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35
Q

what are neutrophils involved in

A

phagocytosis

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36
Q

what is the first line of defence

A

neutrophil

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37
Q

what is the least common white blood cell

A

basophil

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38
Q

what do basophils contain

A

histamine and heparin

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39
Q

what does histamine and heparin do

A
  • vasodilatation

- anticoagulation

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40
Q

what are basophils involved in

A

parasitic defence and allergies

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41
Q

what are eosinophil key in

A

asthma

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42
Q

what are monocytes precursors of

A

macrophages and Kupffer cells

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43
Q

where do monocytes differentiate into macrophages

A

peripheral tissue

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44
Q

what are the 3 pathways of complement cascade

A
  • mannose
  • classical component
  • classical
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45
Q

when does innate immune system present

A

from birth

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46
Q

what is the innate immune system mediated by interaction between

A

PAMPs and PRRs

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47
Q

does innate immune system require memory

A

no

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48
Q

when does immune system occur

A

immediately

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49
Q

does the adaptive immune response require memory

A

yes

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50
Q

how long does adaptive immune response take

A

1-2 weeks on first encounter

3-7 days on second encounter

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51
Q

what is the complement system

A

cascade of >40 proteins

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52
Q

what do lysosomes do

A

cleaves bacterial cell wall

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53
Q

what does activation of certain cells in the innate immune system lead to

A

activation of adaptive immune response

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54
Q

what forms a bridge between innate and adaptive system

A

dendritic cell

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55
Q

where are complement proteins produced

A

liver

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56
Q

what form do compliment proteins circulate in

A

inactive form

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57
Q

what are the 3 pathways of the compliment cascade

A
  • alternative
  • classical
  • mannose-binding
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58
Q

what does C3a lead to

A

inflammation

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59
Q

what does C3b do

A

opsonisation of pathogens

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60
Q

what is the flow of cascade of classical pathway

A

C1 –> C2 –> C4 –> C3

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61
Q

what forms the MAC complex

A

C5b + C6-C9

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62
Q

what are the main functions of MAC

A
  • promote inflammation
  • recruit cells
  • kill target cells
  • solubilise antigen complexes and remove them
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63
Q

what do neutrophils do

A

phagocytose and kill microorganisms

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64
Q

how do neutrophils kill pathogens

A

by releasing antimicrobial compounds e.g. defensins

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65
Q

where are neutrophils derived

A

from bone marrow

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66
Q

what makes the bacteria more ingestible

A

opsonisation

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67
Q

what is opsonisation

A

bacteria being coated to make them more ingestible

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68
Q

what does elastase do

A

break down fibrous structure in extracellular matrix, facilitating progress of the neutrophil

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69
Q

what is another name for antibody receptor

A

Fc receptor

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70
Q

what is granule release initiated by

A

products of bacterial cell wall, complement proteins, leukotrienes and chemokiens

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71
Q

what cytokine can cause granule release

A

tumour necrosis factor-alpha

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72
Q

what do eosinophils release

A

pro-inflammatory mediators

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73
Q

what do pro-inflammatory mediators provide

A

immunity against parasites

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74
Q

where are most eosinophils

A

in tissues

particularly at epithelial surfaces where they survive for several weeks

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75
Q

what is the main role of eosinophils

A

protection against multicellular parasites such as worms

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76
Q

how is protection achieved by eosinophils

A

release of pro-inflammatory mediators, which are toxic

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77
Q

what receptors promote development of eosinophil

A

IL-3

IL-5

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78
Q

what do mast cells release

A

pro-inflammatory and vasoactive mediators

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79
Q

what do mast cells have a role in

A

allergy

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80
Q

what do mast cells and basophils contain

A
  • histamine
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81
Q

what do mast cells and basophils have a high affinity for

A

immunoglobulin E

IgE

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82
Q

where are mast cells found

A

tissues (skin and mucosal)

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83
Q

where are basophils found

A

blood

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84
Q

what do both mast cells and basophils release

A

pro-inflammatory mediators

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85
Q

what are the effects of histamine

A
  • vasodilator
  • increase vascular permeability
  • smooth contraction in airways
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86
Q

what do proteases do

A

digest basement membrane causing increased vascular permeability

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87
Q

what do proteoglycans do

A

anticoagulant activity

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88
Q

what does platelet-activating factor do

A

vasodilator

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89
Q

what do prosaglandins do

A
  • increase vascular permeability
  • bronchoconstriction
  • vasodilatation
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90
Q

what is histamine

A

low-molecular weight amine

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91
Q

how long does histamine last in blood

A

less than 5 minutes

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92
Q

what does histamine cause

A

reddening (erythema)

swelling

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93
Q

what do C3a, C4a and C5a activate

A

basophils and mast cells

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94
Q

where are monocytes

A

in the blood

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95
Q

where are macrophages

A

in the tissues

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96
Q

what are the roles of macrophages

A
  • ingest and kill bacteria
  • release pro-inflammatory molecules
  • present antigens to T lymphocytes
  • immunity to intracellular pathogens
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97
Q

what is CD14 a receptor for

A

lipopolysaccharide

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98
Q

what is CD16 a receptor for

A

IgG antibodies

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99
Q

when in vitro what can monocytes differentiate into

A

myeloid dendritic cells

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100
Q

what is a key role of tissue macrophages

A

maintenance of tissue homeostasis

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101
Q

how do macrophages recognise pathogens

A

PAMPs

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102
Q

what is the major function of dendritic cells

A

activation of naive T lymphocytes to initiate adaptive immune responses

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103
Q

what are dendritic cells a bridge between

A

innate and adaptive immune system

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104
Q

what are the major types of dendritic cell

A
  • myeloid

- plasmacytoid

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105
Q

what binds lipopolysaccharide

A

toll-like receptor 4

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106
Q

where are lipopolysaccharide found

A

gram negative

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107
Q

what PAMP does the PRR TLR2 bind to

A

peptidoglycan (PAMP)

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108
Q

what PAMP does the PRR TLR7 bind to

A

single stranded RNA

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109
Q

what can a mature dendritic cell cease

A

pinocytosis

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110
Q

what does mature dendritic cell activate

A

T cell

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111
Q

what cytokines does dendritic cells cause the release of

A

IL-12

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112
Q

how do T lymphocytes remove a pathogen

A
  • direct kill it

- recruit B lymphocytes to make specific antibodies

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113
Q

how do lymphocytes orchestrate immune responses

A

via cell to cell interactions and cytokine release

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114
Q

what is the receptor on T cells

A

T cell receptor (TCR)

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115
Q

what is the receptor on B cells

A

B cell receptor (BCR)

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116
Q

what is another name for BCR

A

immunoglobulin

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117
Q

what is another name for immunoglobulin

A

antibodies

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118
Q

what are the 4 chains of immunoglobulin

A
  • 2 heavy chain

- 2 light chain

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119
Q

what does each chain contain

A

highly variable and constant regions

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120
Q

what does the variable region do

A

binds antigens

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121
Q

what does the constant region of the heavy chain dictate

A

the function of the antibody

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122
Q

examples of antibodies

A 
IgM 
IgG 
IgA 
IgD 
IgE
123
Q

what’s the most dominant immunoglobulin

A

IgG

124
Q

what immunoglobulin is first produce in immune response

A

IgM

125
Q

what immunoglobulin is found in mucous membrane secretions

A

IgA

126
Q

what immunoglobulin is present in allergies

A

IgE

127
Q

what immunoglobulin is found on B lymphocyte surface membranes

A

IgD

128
Q

what immunoglobulin has the longest half life

A

IgG

129
Q

what immunoglobulin binds to mast cells

A

IgE

130
Q

what immunoglobulin crosses the placenta

A

IgG

131
Q

what immunoglobulin is helpful for diagnosis of infection

A

IgM

132
Q

what immunoglobulin dominates in second exposure to antigen

A

IgG

133
Q

what is IgA present in

A

secretions - tears, saliva, GI tract

134
Q

what immunoglobulin helps protect a new born baby

A

IgA as present in breast milk

135
Q

what does the T lymphocyte exist as

A

heterodimer

136
Q

how many types of T cell receptor are there

A

2

137
Q

what T receptor has alpha and beta

A

CD4 and most CD8

138
Q

what HLA molecules does CD4 require presentation from

A

HLA class II

139
Q

what HLA molecule does CD8 require presentation from

A

HLA class I

140
Q

what marker is the helper T lymphocyte

A

CD4

141
Q

what marker is the cytotoxic T lymphocyte

A

CD8

142
Q

what is most abundant CD4 or CD8

A

CD4

143
Q

what molecules can stop inflammatory response

A

programme death ligand 1 and its protein

PD-L1

144
Q

what cancers are monoclonal antibodies presenting

A
  • melanoma

- renal cell carcinoma

145
Q

where are most naive T lymphocytes resident

A

lymph nodes or spleen

146
Q

where are naive T lymphocytes activated

A

lymph nodes

147
Q

how are T lymphocytes activated

A

by antigens presented to their TCR as short peptides bound to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on the surface of DCs

148
Q

what is nuclear factor kappa B

A

pivotal transcription factor in chronic inflammatory disease and malignancy

149
Q

what cytokines stimulate Th1

A

IL-12

150
Q

what cytokines does Th1 produce

A
  • IFN-gamma
  • IL-2
  • TNF-alpha
151
Q

what is the function of Th1

A

pro-inflammatory

152
Q

role of Th1 response

A
  • organise killing
  • activate macrophages to kill
  • instruct CD8 cells
153
Q

what cytokines cause production of Th2

A

IL-4

154
Q

what cytokines are produced by Th2

A
  • IL-4
  • IL-5
  • IL-13
155
Q

what is the function of Th2

A

pro-inflammatory

156
Q

what does Th2 have a role in

A
  • kill parasites
  • recruits eosinophils
  • promotes IgE
157
Q

what cytokines cause production of Th17

A
  • IL-6
  • IL-23
  • TGF-beta
158
Q

what does Th17 cause production of

A

IL-17

159
Q

what is major marker of Th1

A

CD4

160
Q

what is a major marker of Th2

A

CD4

161
Q

what is the main role of Th2

A
  • protect from extracellular pathogens

- role in allergic reactions

162
Q

what is major marker of TH7

A

CD4

163
Q

what is role of Th17

A
  • protect from fungi

- role in autoimmune inflammatory disease

164
Q

what is major marker of cytotoxic T lymphocyte

A

CD8

165
Q

what is role of CD8

A
  • kill target cells via HLA class I

- protect from viruses

166
Q

how does CD4 influence the immune system

A
  • release of cytokines

- direct cell-cell interaction

167
Q

what are the major function of CD4

A
  • licensing of DCs
  • licensing of B lymphocytes (initiate and mature antibody responses)
  • secretion of cytokines (growth and differentiate of range of cells)
  • regulation of immune reactions
168
Q

what is the main subtype of CD4 T lymphocytes

A

Th1

169
Q

what does Th1 drive

A

activation of monocytes/macrophages and CTLs

170
Q

what do Th1 have important pathology with

A

protection against intracellular pathogens e.g. viruses and mycobacteria

171
Q

how are Th1 cells recognised

A

by their secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines IFN-gamma and TNF-alpha

172
Q

what do TH2 cells drive

A

antibody response, especially IgE

promote eosinophil granulocyte function

173
Q

what do Th2 cells have important role in

A

protection from extracellular parasites

- immune response for allergic reactions

174
Q

how are Th2 cells recognised

A

secretion of IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13

175
Q

what do Th17 cells drive

A

inflammatory responses through recruitment of neutrophil granulocytes

176
Q

what are Th17 cells important in

A

protection from fungal infections

177
Q

how are Th17 cells recognised

A

by secretion of IL-17

178
Q

what interleukin stops inflammation

A

IL-10

179
Q

what are CD8 involved in

A

defence against viruses

180
Q

when do CD8 kill viral cells

A

HLA class I present

181
Q

where must CTL be activated

A

in lymph nodes by DCs

182
Q

how do CD8 kill

A
  • cytotoxic granule proteins
  • toxic cytokines
  • death inducing surface molecules
183
Q

where are natural killer cells made

A

in bone marrow

184
Q

where are natural killer cells present

A

blood and lymph nodes

185
Q

what is the main surface molecule for natural killer cells

A

CD16

186
Q

what is the role of natural killer cells

A

kill abnormal host cells

187
Q

what do natural killer cells secrete

A
  • IFN-gamma

- TNF-alpha

188
Q

what does migration into inflamed tissue require

A
  • an affected organ or tissue

- responding immune cells bind and adhere

189
Q

what does ICAM-1 help migration

A

expression on tissue endothelium is sensitive to numerous pro-inflammatory molecules

allow immune cells to be guided form the blood into tissues

190
Q

where are MHC molecules located

A

chromosome 6

191
Q

what is another name for MHC

A

HLA

192
Q

what does MHC play a role in

A

immune function

193
Q

how many classes of MHC are there

A

3

194
Q

what does HLA class I have a role in

A

presenting short antigenic peptides to T cell receptors

195
Q

where is class I HLA expressed

A

on all nucleated cells

196
Q

where are HLA II expressed

A

antigen presenting cells

197
Q

examples of antigen presenting cells

A
  • dendritic cell
  • monocyte / mactopahges
  • B lymphocytes
198
Q

what is the endogenous route of antigen presenting

A

all nucleated cells

- comes from within

199
Q

what is the exogenous route of antigen presenting

A
  • property of antigen presenting cells

- antigens are internalised

200
Q

what is cross presentation

A

ability of some antigen presenting cells to internalise exogenous antigens and process them through endogenous route

201
Q

what is the essential component in the activation of CD8 cells

A

cross presentation

202
Q

what is the early and rapid host response to tissue injury

A

acute inflammation

203
Q

what does increase pathogen numbers lead to

A

activation of complement in the tissues

204
Q

what do inflammatory mediators change

A

the blood flow and attract and activate granulocytes

205
Q

what are some symptoms of acute inflammation

A
  • fever
  • heat
  • pain
  • swelling
  • redness
206
Q

what mediates the production of CRP in the liver

A

IL-6

207
Q

what does lysis lead to formation of

A

fluid in the tissue space containing dead and dying bacteria

208
Q

what is there usually at site of pathogen entry

A

tissue hypoxia

209
Q

how can the inflammation become walled off

A

through local fibrin deposition to protect the host

210
Q

how to antigens from the pathogen travel

A

via the lymphatics

211
Q

how are dendritic cells activated

A

via the PRR-PAMP system

212
Q

what does the adaptive immune response lead to

A

activation of pathogen specific T lymphocytes

213
Q

what does adaptive immune response cause release of

A

IgM

214
Q

what is resolution aided by

A

scavenging activity of tissue macrophages

215
Q

what is chronic inflammation

A

inflammation arising in response to insults that cannot be resolved in days/weeks

216
Q

examples of chronic inflammation

A
  • viruses (Hep A, B and C)
  • bacteria
  • environmental toxins (asbestosis, silicon)
217
Q

what does mycobacterium leprae cause

A

leprosy

218
Q

what does tuberculosis immune response cause

A

nerve damage and numb patches of skin

219
Q

how leprosy resolved

A

antibiotics

220
Q

what are tests for tuberculosis

A
  • Mantoux test

- interferon gamma release blood test

221
Q

when tuberculosis becomes chronic what persists

A

macrophages in the lesions fuse to form giants cells and epithelioid cells

222
Q

what genes are involved in inflammation for crohns disease

A
  • NOD2
223
Q

what results would indicate an inflammatory response or infectious disease

A

high CRP level

224
Q

what result would indicate a state of immune deficiency

A

low concentration of IgG

225
Q

what result would indicate a state of immune pathology

A

presence of autoantibodies or allergen-specific IgE

226
Q

what does raised CRP levels indicate

A

infection or inflammation

227
Q

what does low levels of immunoglobulins indicate

A

antibody deficiency

e.g. primary immunodeficiency

228
Q

what does raised IgE suggest

A

allergy

229
Q

what does raised neutrophils suggest

A

bacterial infection

230
Q

what does low neutrophils suggest

A

secondary immune deficiency

231
Q

what does high eosinophils suggest

A

allergic or parasitic disease

232
Q

what does low levels CD4 suggest

A

HIV

233
Q

what does double stranded DNA autoantibodies suggest

A

rheumatoid arthritis

234
Q

what is ANCA for

A

vasculitis

235
Q

what is mitochondrial autoantibodies for

A

primary biliary cholangitis

236
Q

when does primary immunodeficiency arise

A

birth

237
Q

what diseases can T lymphocyte deficiency cause

A
  • DiGeorge syndrome
  • AIDS / HIV
  • T cell activation defects
  • X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
238
Q

what disease can B lymphocyte deficiency cause

A
  • X-linked agammaglobulinaemia
  • common variable immunodeficiency
  • IgA deficiency
239
Q

what disease does combined T and B cell defects cause

A
  • severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
240
Q

what diseases does neutrophil defects cause

A
  • chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

- leucocyte adhesion deficiency

241
Q

what are features of infections associated with immunodeficiency

A
  • chronic, severe or recurrent
  • resolve only partly
  • caused by unusual organisms
242
Q

do opportunistic pathogens have low or high virulence

A

low

243
Q

examples of opportunistic organisms

A
  • atypical mycobacteria
  • pneumocystis jiroveci
  • staphylococcus epidermidis
244
Q

what do phagocyte defects cause

A
  • deep skin infections
  • abscesses
  • osteomyelitis
245
Q

what does T lymphocyte deficiency cause

A
  • infection with fungi
  • Protozoa infection
  • intracellular organism
246
Q

when do congenital deficiencies present

A

several months after birth due to 28 day half life of maternal IgG

247
Q

what inheritance if only males of the family are affected

A

X-linked

248
Q

what is Di-George syndrome due to

A

T lymphocyte deficiency

249
Q

what is Di-George syndrome

A

when the third and fourth pharyngeal arches fail to develop

so no parathyroid gland, aortic arch or thymus

250
Q

how does Di-George syndrome present

A
  • at birth
  • dysmorphic facies
  • hypoparathyroidism
  • cardiac defects
  • infections
251
Q

what chromosome is Di-George syndrome affected by

A

chromosome 22

252
Q

acronym to help remember Di-George syndrome

A

CATCH 22

  • cardiac abnormalities
  • abnormal facies
  • thymic dysfunction
  • cleft deformities
  • hypokalaemia
    +
    chromosome 22
253
Q

what causes the lack of T lymphocytes in Di-George syndrome

A

no thymus

254
Q

what is treatment for Di-George syndrome

A
  • calcium supplementation
  • correction of cardiac abnormalities
  • prophylactic antibiotics
  • thymic transplantation
255
Q

what is severe combined immunodeficiencies due to

A

impaired T, NK, B lymphocyte

256
Q

what is most common SCID defect in

A

IL-2 receptor

257
Q

treatment for SCID

A

SCT preferably from HLA-identical donors e.g. siblings

258
Q

what is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

X-linked defect in a gene involved in signal transduction and cytoskeleton function

259
Q

what is chronic granulomatous disease characterised by

A

deep-seated infections

260
Q

when is chronic granulomatous disease present

A

toddler age

261
Q

treatment of chronic granulomatous disease

A
  • prophylactic antibiotics

- anti fungal therapy

262
Q

what is allergic hypersensitivity

A

binding of an antigen to specific IgE

263
Q

how many phases do allergic reactions have

A

2

264
Q

what are the late phase responses mediated by

A

Th2 cells

- they recruit eosinophils

265
Q

what does the late phase response give rise to

A

chronic inflammation

266
Q

what does the late phase response cause in asthma

A

prolonged wheezing

267
Q

where do Th2 cells accumulate

A

around small blood vessels

268
Q

how long do Th2 cells persist for

A

1-2 days

269
Q

what do histamine and serotonin cause

A
  • bronchoconstriction

- increased vascular permeability

270
Q

what do leukotrienes do

A

chemoattract

271
Q

what are the Th2 cytokines

A
  • IL-4

- IL-5

272
Q

what makes some allergens so powerful

A

they are proteolytic enzymes this allows them to cross skin and mucosal barriers

273
Q

what is atopy

A

allergic response

274
Q

how is allergic disease made

A

skin prick testing

275
Q

treatment for allergic reactions

A
  • avoidance = 1
  • antihistamine
  • corticosteroids
  • CYLTs receptors
  • ## omalizumab
276
Q

how do corticosteroids help in allergic reaction

A

inhibit prostaglandin and leukotrienes mediators

cause vasoconstriction which leads to reduced cell and fluid leakage from vasculature

277
Q

what do CYSTL antagonistic do

A

inhibit leukotrienes by blocking the type 1 receptors

278
Q

what is omalizumab

A

monoclonal antibody that binds IgE

279
Q

when is omalizumab used

A

in asthma that cannot be controlled by corticosteroids plus LABA

280
Q

what is anaphylaxis

A

serious allergic reactions that is rapid in on set and may cause death

281
Q

how does anaphylaxis start

A

as an acute, generalised IgE-mediated immune reaction involving specific antigen, mast cells and basophils

282
Q

what foods can cause anaphylaxis

A
  • nuts
  • shell fish
  • dairy products
  • egg
  • citrus fruits
283
Q

other causes of anaphylaxis

A
  • wasp, bee stings

- medications (antibiotics)

284
Q

what is central to the cause of anaphylaxis

A

activation of mast cells and basophils

285
Q

what are initial symptoms of anaphylaxis

A
  • tingling
  • warmth
  • itchiness
286
Q

what are late symptoms of anaphylaxis

A
  • generalised flush
  • angio-oedema
  • hypotension
  • bronchospasm
  • laryngeal oedema
  • cardiac arrhythmia
  • death may occur within minutes
287
Q

management of anaphylaxis

A

ABCDE

  • lie patient flat on bed with feet raised
  • ensure airway is free
  • give O2
  • monitor blood pressure
  • find venous access
  • administer IV adrenaline
  • administer IV antihistamine
  • administer IV hydrocortisone
288
Q

what is best treatment of anaphylaxis

A

prevention by avoiding triggers

289
Q

what adrenaline is given for anaphylaxis

A

epinephrine

290
Q

what is autoimmunity

A

when the immune response turns against itself

291
Q

what does IL-12 stimulate

A

Th1

292
Q

what do cytokines recruit

A

effector cells (macrophages)

293
Q

what is IgG4 disease

A

fibro-inflammatory condition with the formation of swellings in multiple sites

294
Q

what is IgG4 related disease driven by

A

Th2 T cells

295
Q

what is Addisons disease

A

rare chronic endocrine system disorder

296
Q

who does autoimmune hepatitis usually affect

A

women

297
Q

what are risk factors of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • smoking
  • previous viral infections
  • human herpes virus
  • vitamin D deficiency
298
Q

what is major criteria for autoimmune disease

A
  • evidence of autoreactivity
  • clinical response to immune suppression
  • passive transfer of the putative immune effectors
299
Q

what is acute organ rejection mediated by

A

CD4 and CD8 T lymphocytes

300
Q

what do glucocorticoids do

A
  • potent effects on monocyte production
  • blockade of T lymphocyte production of IL-2
  • reduced activation of a range of innate immune cells
301
Q

what is an example of a purine analogue

A

azathioprine

302
Q

how does azathioprine work

A

inhibits DNA synthesis in dividing adaptive immune cells

303
Q

what are cytokines

A

pleiotropic agents

principles (8 decks)

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