Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

what is SPUR

A

Serious, Persistent, Unusual and Recurrent infection.

Hallmark for immune deficiency

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2
Q

what is a secondary immune disorder

A

acquired in life

common

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3
Q

what is a primary immune disorder

A

genetically acquired

rarer

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4
Q

most common complication of PID

A

respiratory diseases

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5
Q

what is the most frequent PID with sinusitis and otitis media

A

primary antibody deficiencies

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6
Q

layngeal angiodema is associated with _____

A

complement system disorders

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7
Q

what PID is associates with pneumonia

A

PAD
complement system disorders
congenital phagocytosis deficiency
combined immunodeficiences

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8
Q

what disease has a high number of precursor cells but cannot produce neutrophils

A

severe congenital neutropenia

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9
Q

SCN type 1 is autosomal ______

A

dominant

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10
Q

what PID may be associated with high neutrophil count in blood

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

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11
Q

What is CGD

A

chronic granulomatous disease

Inability to produce ROS/RNS

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12
Q

what type of infections do SCID patients get?

A

unusual and opportunistic pathogens

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13
Q

what is X-linked SCID

A

mutation of IL-2 receptor so t and NK cells cannot be produced

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14
Q

how is SCID treated

A
avoidance of infection
antibiotics
antibody replacement 
stem cell transplant 
gene therapy
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15
Q

what is bruton’s X linked hypogammaglobuninaemia

A

no circulating B or plasma cells

no circulating antibodies after the first 6 months

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16
Q

infection of mycobacteria causes macrophages to secrete which interferon?

A

IL-12

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17
Q

what does IL-12 stimulate

A

secretion of IFNy by NK and TH1 to stimulate production of TNFa and NADPH oxidase

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18
Q

An immediate hypersensitivity would be classed as type ___

A

1

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19
Q

what antibody mediates type I hypersensitivity

A

IgE

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20
Q

what % of asthmatics are sensitive to aspirin and NSAIDS

A

20%

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21
Q

What theory describes the prevalence of type I hypersensitivity increasing

A

hygiene hypothesis

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22
Q

true/false - the TH2 response is better equipped for viral infecton

A

false - it is better suited for bacterial infection

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23
Q

what response occurs when the body is kept in a clean environment to prevent the immune system retraining

A

TH2 response

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24
Q

where do mast cell receptors bind to IgE

A

Fc site

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25
what happens when an allergen binds to an IgE coated mast cell?
membrane disruption releases histamine and increases expression of cytokines and leukotrienes
26
what happens in type II hypersensitivity
direct cell effect | IgM/IgG target self antigen and bind to cell surface
27
what is goodpastures syndrome
autoimmune disease causing kidney disease and pulmonary alveolar haemorrhage
28
why is there pulmonary alveolar haemorrhage in goodpastures syndrome
complement overpowers human tissue cells and forms MAC, cell contents and blood in vessels leaks out
29
the presence of autoreactive to __________ is a feature in goodpastures
a3 chain of type IV collagen in basal lamina of alveoli
30
how is goodpastures treated
antibody removed by plasmapheresis immunosuppression with corticosteroids smoking cessation to remove enviromental insult
31
What is type III hypersensitivity
immune complex deposited in blood vessels and joints
32
What is an immune complex
soluble antigens bound to antibodies
33
what happens to immune complexes when they are deposited
complement activation antibody mediated phagocytosis activation of neutrophils and macrophages
34
symptoms of HP
Wheeze, SOB, malaise, pyrexia
35
How is HP caused
Antigen deposits in lung and immune complex formed | complement and neutrophils activated causing inflammation and tissue damage
36
treatment of HP?
Steroids - reduce inflammation and suppress immune system | Allergen avoidance
37
Type IV hypersensitivity is a _____ type hypersensitivity
delayed
38
what is sarcoid
multisystem granulomatous disease of unknown aetiology
39
what is sarcoidosis characterised by
granulomas
40
how is a granuloma formed in sarcoid
allergen causes activation of macrophages, CD4/8 t cells chain of events causing TNFa and free radicals to produce inflammation antigen fails to get cleared so granuloma formed
41
treatment of sarcoid
watchful waiting NSAIDS - acute onset Systemic corticosteroids - block T cell and macrophage activation
42
what is autoimmunity
immune responses against self
43
what part of an antibody chain changes to make it specific
heavy chain
44
what is central tolerance
test to determine if T cells react to self peptides - if yes then apoptosed
45
what is peripheral tolerance
inactivation of autoreactive T cells that are in the body by regulatory t cells
46
what are regulatory T cells
suppress hyperreactive or autoreactive T cells with inflammatory cytokines
47
factors contributing to autoimmune disease
Genes Environment Super antigens Antigen sequestriation
48
How do genes contribute to autoimmune disease
Single genetic defects | HLA association to disease (no predisposition)
49
How do super antigens contribute to autoimmune disease
toxic shock syndrome | Staph proteins/clostridium endotoxin reactivate autoreactive T cells inhibited by peripheral tolerance
50
How does antigen sequestriation contribute to autoimmune disease
injury or infection causes release of self reactive antigens from places such as testis or eye
51
How does the environment contribute to autoimmune disease
infection - acute rheumatic fever following GAS smoking hormone levels
52
IPEX is a single gene defect. true/false
true
53
how is IPEX treated
haemopoietic stem cell transplant | supportive care
54
IPEX is a failure in _____ tolerance due to a mutatin in the _____ gene
Peripheral | FOXP3
55
if a female carrier had a boy would be be affected by IPEX?
yes, it is X-linked
56
what class I HLA is expressed on every cell surface
HLA-A HLA-B HLA-C
57
What is graves disease
autoantibodies binding to TSH receptor causing hyperthyroidism
58
what hypersensitivity class is graves disease
Type II (type V as so unusual)
59
SLE is a type ____ hypersensitivity
III
60
why should those with SLE not sunbathe?
increases formation of deposition in tissues
61
in a primary infection when do clinical features present
after IgM spike and before/during IgG
62
are there generally clinical manifestations in secondary infection
no
63
vaccines cause the production of _____ from naive B and T cells
memory cells
64
true/false - memory cells require co-stimulation
false - they can differentiate immediately on antigen stimulation
65
What is active immunity
protection by persons immune system, usually permanent
66
What is passive immunity
protection transferred from one to another that fades over time Antibodies in breast milk/placental antibodies
67
What is an inactivated vaccine
killed pathogens that are inserted into host, do not make memory T cells and need boosters
68
what is a live attenuated vaccine
life long vaccination that inserts a weakened pathogen to make memory cells it can cause disease in immunocompromised host
69
where is the flu vaccine made
inside eggs