Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Why might asthma prevalence be increasing?

A

Too clean an environment so we produce an overreactive response

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2
Q

examples of anti-inflammatory/immunosuppressive drugs

A

antihistamine, aspirin, ibuprofen, cortisol steroids

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3
Q

what are the two branches of immunity?

A

innate (natural) and acquired (adaptive)

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4
Q

examples of innate (natural) immunity?

A

physical barriers, soluble factors and immune cells

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5
Q

examples of soluble factors that are innate

A

cytokines, acute phase proteins, inflammatory mediators, complement proteins

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6
Q

examples of acquired (adaptive) immunity

A

soluble factors and immune cells

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7
Q

examples of soluble factors that are acquired (adaptive)

A

cytokines and antibodies

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8
Q

pathogens points of entry

A

digestive system, respiratory system, urogenital system, skin damage

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9
Q

when is innate immunity induced and how long does it take to respond?

A
present from birth
rapid response (mins-hrs)
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10
Q

when is acquired immunity induced and how long does it take to respond?

A
induced by the presence of foreign materials
slow response (days)
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11
Q

is innate immunity specific or non-specific?

A

non-specific

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12
Q

is acquired immunity specific or non-specific?

A

specific for each antigen encountered

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13
Q

three modes of ingestion of bacteria and fungi by macrophages?

A

pinocytosis, receptor-mediated endocytosis and phagocytosis

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14
Q

what is pinocytosis?

A

ingestion of fluid surrounding cells

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15
Q

what is receptor-mediated endocytosis?

A

molecules bound to membrane receptors are internalised

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16
Q

what is in lysosomes that allow them to break down cells?

A

acidic Ph and enzymes

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17
Q

what is a macrophage?

A

a type of phagocyte

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18
Q

what are mast cells full of?

A

granules rich in histamine and heparin

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19
Q

what is opsonisation?

A

the coating of pathogens by soluble factors (opsonins) to enhance phagocytosis

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20
Q

examples of opsonins

A

C3b
C-reactive protein
IgG/IgM

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21
Q

where are low levels of inactive complement system proteins found?

A

in the extracellular fluids

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22
Q

what activates complement system proteins?

A

pathogens

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23
Q

what does the activation of complement system proteins trigger?

A

a fast and powerful cascade of chemical reactions

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24
Q

what does the cascade of chemical reactions promote?

A

opsonisation of pathogens, direct pathogen killing, acute inflammation and leukocyte recruitment

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25
Q

what is the inactive precursor of the two active products, C3b and C3a?

A

C3

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26
Q

why does selective activation of the Mannose-binding lectin arise?

A

mannose expression is unique to certain pathogens and it is not expressed on human cells

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27
Q

what happens when an unstable C3b molecule binds to a pathogen?

A

it is stabilised, allowing a series of downstream events of the complement system

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28
Q

what happens once a C3b is generated?

A

an amplification loop stimulates more and more C3 cleavage via the alternative pathway

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29
Q

what cleaves inactive C5 into active C5a and C5b?

A

active C3b

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30
Q

what happens when active C5b associates with other complement system proteins?

A

it produces a pore-forming channel which inserts into the pathogen membrane/cell wall. This is the MAC

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31
Q

what does MAC stand for?

A

membrane attack complex

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32
Q

a key response to local change of the vasculature during infection/injury?

A

the recruitment of innate immune cells such as neutrophils and monocytes into the infected/inflamed tissue

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33
Q

how does vascular permeability increase?

A

tight junctions between epithelial cells break apart

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34
Q

what do neutrophils use to bind to and phagocytose pathogens?

A

pattern recognition receptors

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35
Q

what two types of cells can mediate phagocytosis?

A

macrophages and neutrophils

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36
Q

what type of cell is better at killing via phagocytosis, macrophages or neutrophils and why?

A

neutrophils are better because they have a second way to kill internalised pathogens via a ROS-dependant mechanism

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37
Q

the three neutrophil killing mechanism are…

A

phagocytosis, degranulation and NETs (neutrophil extracellular traps)

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38
Q

what can neutrophils do after phagocytosis??

A

degranulation

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39
Q

what is degranulation?

A

when neutrophils eliminate extracellular pathogens by releasing residual enzymes/toxins

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40
Q

downside to degranulation

A

it can lead to tissue damage and potential systemic inflammation

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41
Q

what do NETs do?

A

they immobilise pathogens so stop them from spreading but also facilitate subsequent phagocytosis of trapped microorganisms

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42
Q

what are nets composed of?

A

genomic DNA, histones, granular proteins and enzymes

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43
Q

two subdivisions of acute inflammation

A

local and systemic

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44
Q

what is the systemic acute phase response driven by?

A

pro-inflammatory mediators released by activated macrophages

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45
Q

what proteins are part of the systemic acute phase response

A

C3, MBL and C reactive protein

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46
Q

what do virally infected cells produce?

A

they release small proteins called interferons (INFalpha and beta)

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47
Q

interferons…are…. specific but not….. specific

A

host specific but not virus specific

48
Q

what type of protection do IFNs produce?

A

general anti-virus protection

49
Q

what three things do interferons do?

A

prevent replication of viruses, signal to cells to produce anti-viral factors that interfere with viral multiplication and activate immune cells (NK cells)

50
Q

what do NK cells specifically kill?

A

infected cells and abnormal cancer cells

51
Q

what are NK cells?

A

lymphocytes that can recognise and destroy viral or cancerous cells

52
Q

what makes up an antibody complex?

A

2x light chain and 2x heavy chain. Complex of four polypeptide chains

53
Q

what on the antibody binds to one specific antigen?

A

a unique variable region

54
Q

what induces the active immune response?

A

an antigen

55
Q

other name for antigens

A

immunoglobulins

56
Q

individual antigens can contain many different …….

A

antigenic epitopes

57
Q

what do B cells use as antigens?

A

antibodies

58
Q

what are the 5 different classes of antibodies?

A

IgM, IgG, IgE, IgA and IgD

59
Q

what receptors are used in non-specific regulation?

A

PAMPs

60
Q

what does PAMPs stand for?

A

pathogen-associated molecular pattern molecules

61
Q

what are PAMPS recognised by?

A

PRR molecules (pattern recognition receptor molecules)

62
Q

where do antigen-specific T cells and B cells develop?

A

in primary lymphoid tissues such as bone marrow and spleen

63
Q

where do adaptive immune responses occur?

A

in secondary lymphoid tissues

64
Q

how do t and b lymphocytes activate?

A

they activate when they meet their specific partner antigen within a secondary lymphoid tissue

65
Q

where do mature T and B cells go?

A

they constantly re-circulate between different tissues in the blood, secondary lymphoid tissues and lymphatic vessels

66
Q

secondary lymphoid tissues

A

lymph nodes, spleen and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues

67
Q

what process do naive T cells and B cells use to enter lymph nodes from HEV?

A

Transendothelial migration

68
Q

what are HEV?

A

high endothelial venules

69
Q

what do B cells and T cells flow through to get into lymph nodes?

A

the HEV

70
Q

where do the B cells go when they enter the lymph node?

A

B cell zones called lymphoid follicles

71
Q

where do T cells go when they enter the lymph node?

A

T cell zones where they mix with dendritic cells

72
Q

how can B cells encounter antigens in lymph nodes?

A

specialised cells within B cell zones can ‘trap’ opsonised antigens

73
Q

what two signals do specialised B cells need in the B cell zone in the lymph node to become fully activated?

A

BCR binding to antigen and help from helper T cells

74
Q

what happens when the B cells become fully activated?

A

B cells clonal proliferate producing daughter cells with the same antigen-specificity as their parent B cell

75
Q

what is the name of the secondary follicle within the B cell zone?

A

the germinal centre

76
Q

what do cells within the germinal centre differentiate into initially?

A

short-lived plasma cells

77
Q

what is initially secreted by short-lived plasma cells?

A

low affinity antigen-specific IgM antibodies

78
Q

later on, what is produced in the germinal centre with the help of helper T cells?

A

IgG antibodies

79
Q

why are IgG antibodies better than IgM antibodies?

A

they have a higher affinity antibody production and IgG can act as an opsonin

80
Q

what else does the production of IgG antibodies allow?

A

B cells to be differentiated into long-lived plasma cells and the production of antigen-specific memory B cells

81
Q

what is the first type of Ig produced during an immune response?

A

IgM

82
Q

what is IgM present in?

A

plasma and secretory fluids

83
Q

what is agglutination?

A

the action of an antibody forming cross-links with multiple antigens producing clumps of antigens

84
Q

what does agglutination do?

A

it increases the efficacy of pathogen elimination by enhancing phagocytosis

85
Q

what do IgE antibodies do?

A

Trigger allergic reactions such as allergy, asthma and anaphylaxis

86
Q

what is the most abundant antibody in normal human serum?

A

IgG (70-85%) of the Ig pool

87
Q

functions of IgG (6)

A

angulation, complement system activation, foetal immune protection, neutralisation, opsonisation and nk cell activation

88
Q

babies don’t produce IgG antibodies until they’re adaptive immune system develops fully (6 months). How are they protected?

A

IgG antibodies are transported across the placenta directly into foetal circulation

89
Q

what does neutralisation do?

A

it prevents viruses from infecting host cells and prevents microbial toxins from disrupting normal cell function

90
Q

what high affinity antibodies can neutralise viral infectivity?

A

IgG and secretory IgA (sIgA)

91
Q

what antibody type is not well understood?

A

IgD (don’t know)

92
Q

what is the second most abundant Ig type?

A

IgA

93
Q
function of monomeric IgA?
what is it present in?
A

Neutralisation

present in serum

94
Q

function of dimeric sIgA? what is it present in?

A

neonatal defence
neutralisation
present in secretory fluids

95
Q

how are the GI tracts of neonates protected?

A

sIgA antibodies are transported into the colostrum and breast milk

96
Q

what are the only things that T cells can recognise?

A

peptide antigens

97
Q

what region is formed by the tips of alpha and beta T cell antigen receptor?

A

a hypervariable region

98
Q

each T cell expresses………. that can bind to ……

A

a unique TCR that can bind to only one specific peptide antigen

99
Q

in what form must the peptide antigen be presented to their TCR ?

A

In a complex with major histocompatibility complex (MHC molecules)

100
Q

do b cells or t cells present antigens in a complex with MHC?

A

T cells

101
Q

another name for the major histocompatibility complex

A

human leucocyte antigens

102
Q

two classes of MHC

A

Class 1 MHC and class 2 MHC

103
Q

what do all Class 1 MHC do?

A

expressed on all nucleated cells

104
Q

what do class 1 MHC present?

A

Present peptide antigens to CD8+T cells

105
Q

what are class 2 MHC only expressed on?

A

only on professional antigen presenting cells (APCs)

106
Q

what are professional antigen presenting cell examples

A

dendritic cells, macrophages and B cells

107
Q

what do class 2 MHC present?

A

peptide antigen to CD4+T cells

108
Q

what is the bridge between the innate system and the acquired immune response?

A

dendritic cells

109
Q

what is the function of dendritic cells?

A

to process (phagocytosis) and present antigens on their cell surface to T cells

110
Q

dendritic cell function once activated in inflamed tissue

A

they phagocytose antigenic debris

111
Q

what stimulates immature dendritic cells that are in tissues to increase the expression of co-stimulatory molecules?

A

pro-inflammatory mediators such as TNFalpha

112
Q

what signals do T cells require to fully activate?

A

peptide antigen/MHC complex and co-stimulatory molecules expressed by dendritic cells

113
Q

what do CD4+T cells differentiate into?

A

different types of effector T cells

114
Q

what do CD4+T cells start to secrete?

A

a growth hormone interleukin 2 (IL-2) and express the IL-2 receptor

115
Q

what induces autocrine mediated production of cd4+ and CD8+ cells?

A

TH0 cells