Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

General Boards > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Macrophages remove things from where in the lungs?

A

Alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Canine Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (CLAD)?

A

CD18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What stimulates CD4 cells (T-helper)

A

MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do NK cells make

A

interferon gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What prevents thrombus formation on the endothelial cells

A

thrombomodulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is the classical complement pathway mediated

A

Antibody - C1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is the alternative complement pathway mediated

A

Antigen - C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is the lectin complement pathway mediated

A

Mannose - mannose binding lectin –> C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does TLR4 recognize

A

LPS (gram -)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a RBC abnormality seen with IMHA

A

spherocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do cytotoxic T cells (CD8) kill cells

A

secrete perforins and puts pore into the cell to allow granzymes to be released and activate caspases leading to proteolytic cellular destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does apoptosis do

A

causes degradation of the cell cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a type IV hypersensitivity

A

Cell mediated (T-cell) - delayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is type I hypersensitivity

A

IgE mediated - anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is type II hypersensitivity

A

IgM and IgG autoimmune (transfusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is type III hypersensitivity

A

AbAg complexes (glomerulonephritis, SLE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does bradykinin do

A

vasodilation - part of local inflammation with damaged tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Treg marker

A

CD25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What increases eosinophils

A

Th2 (IL-5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes M2 increase

A

virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What marker can distinguish between acute leukemia and LSA

A

CD34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are B cell markers

A

CD20, CD21, and CD79

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What immune cell does FIV replicate in

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The loss of what causes lymphophenia in cats with FIV/FeLV

A

CD4 (T helper)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a major acute phase protein in cats

A

serum amyloid a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What immunoglobulin in the upper respiratory mucosa gets rid of antigens

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the mechanism of action of leflunomide

A

DHODH (dihydroorotate dehydrogenase) inhibitor - inhibits production of T regulatory cells

Side effect: GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where do cytokines act

A

Local and systemically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What leukocyte adhesion deficiency do dogs and cows get

A

CD18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do NK cells produce

A

IFN gamma - stimulate macrophage proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by

A

T-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What increases eosinophils

A

Th2 - IL-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how do cytotoxic T-cells kill other cells

A

creates perforins and granzymes interact with caspases to cause apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does apoptosis cause

A

degradation of the cell cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What destroys tumor cells if lacking MHC I

A

NK and cytotoxic T cells (CD8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is IMHA

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

B-cell markers

A

CD20, CD21, CD79

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you differentiate between ALL and LSA

A

CD34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What cell type is lost causes lymphopenia in cat with FIV

A

CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How does the upper respiratory mucosa get ride of antigens

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where does FIV replicate

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the MOA leflunomide

A

inhibits pyrimidine and inhibits production of Treg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How to reduce drug resistance

A

pick a narrow spectrum after C/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Most common AE with apoquel

A

GI - diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Major acute phase protein in cats

A

serum amyloid A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the function of MHC II molecules

A

present antigen to APC and then present to T helper cels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What do NK cells produce

A

IFN gamma

48
Q

What is a type II immune response caused by

A

helminth infection

49
Q

What immune cells are associated with eosinophils

A

Th2 and IL-5

50
Q

What is the only cell type that expresses CD25

A

T cells and T reg (IL-2)

51
Q

What is the most antigenic blood type

A

DEA 1.1

52
Q

Where does IgA work

A

mucosal

53
Q

What is IgE associated with

A

anaphylaxis (histamine)

54
Q

What is IgG associated wtih

A

majority of long term antibody based immunity against invading pathogens

55
Q

What is IgM

A

first responder and more potent for complement compared to IgG

56
Q

What CD binds lipoproteins

A

CD36

57
Q

What does IL-2 do to T-cells

A

activated T helper cells

58
Q

What are the arachidonic acid break down and which is most potent

A

leukotriene and PG –> leukotriene B4

59
Q

What is nucleotide substitution of introns rather than exons

A

selective advantage

60
Q

What will happen if there is a mutation that increases TLR4 receptor sensitivity and increases NFKB moving to nucleus and increasing cytokine production

A

Will decrease susceptibility to G-bacteria and decrease chance of sepsis

61
Q

What are pyrogens

A

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF alpha

62
Q

What are CpG and LPS

A

PAMPs

63
Q

What causes PMN (polymorphonuclear neutrophils)

A

respiratory (oxidative) burst) and activity of NADPH

64
Q

What on the endothelium binds neutrophils (PMN)

A

p-selectin

65
Q

Which PMN marker is responsible for phagocytosing bacteria

A

CD32

66
Q

Leukocyte extravasation occurs with the help of what to allow rolling along the endothelium

A

selectins

67
Q

What cytokines cause macrophages to become M2

A

IL-4, IL-13, and IL-10

68
Q

Endothelial cells produce what to cause WBC adhesion

A

integrins

69
Q

PMN adhesion and rolling

A

IL-1, TNF, IL-8 causes endothelial expression of selectins and ICAMS –> bind via CD11/CD18

70
Q

NADPH oxidase is

A

important in PMN killing mechanism

71
Q

What is formed from cytokine IL-4

A

T-helper2 and M2

72
Q

Basophils contain what and activate what type of reaction

A

granules similar to mast cells and type 1

73
Q

what are granules in neutrophils

A

primary - myeloperoxidase, BPI, defensins, cathepsins, lysozyme
secondary - lactoferrin, collagenase, lysozyme

74
Q

Classical complement pathway

A

Antibody/antigen –> IgM or lots of IgG

C1–>C2–>C4–>C3–>C3b–>C5b–>C6-C9

Membrane attack complex C5b-C9

75
Q

What does C3a and C5a do

A

improve chemotaxis

76
Q

What factors inhibit C3b

A

C1 inhibitor, C4 binding protein, plasma protease factors I and H

77
Q

What is complement cascade factor 1

A

protease that degrades C3b

78
Q

which MHC is at CD4

A

MHC II

79
Q

Which MHC is at CD8

A

MHC I

80
Q

Where does NK cells mature

A

bone marrow

81
Q

What are secreted by T regulatory cells

A

IL-10 and TGFB

82
Q

What are T regulatory cells positive for

A

CD34, CD25, and Foxp3

83
Q

How do you differentiate between ALL and LSA

A

CD4, CD34, and CD18

84
Q

What activated eosinophils

A

Th2 – IL-5

type 1 hypersen - allergic - histamine

85
Q

What is the TH10 regulatory cytokine

A

IL-10

86
Q

What immunoglobulin is more common in IMHA

A

IgG (extravascular)
IgM (intravascular)

87
Q

What is the most common immunoglobulin in circulation

A

IgG

88
Q

IgA functions

A

mucosal

does not induce complement, not a pentamer, and is secreted in milk

89
Q

What interleukin is important for class switching Abs

A

IL-4 (IgG and IgE)
IL-5 IgA

90
Q

What is B cell tolerance

A

receptor editing in bone marrow, anergy in periphrey if it recognizes self antigen without TH assistance

91
Q

B cell markers

A

CD79 and CD21

92
Q

what interleukin stimulates IgE production from B cells

A

IL-5

93
Q

How do you diagnose food allergy

A

Saliva IgA, serum IgE/IgA, hydrolyzed diet trial

94
Q

What mediates mast cells in Type 1 hypersen

A

IgE

95
Q

What mediated eosinophils in Type 4 hypersen

A

Th2 effector T cells, IL-5 and eotaxin

96
Q

What cells play an important role in type IV hypersen

A

T-cells

97
Q

What type of hypersen is hemolysis following a blood transfusion

A

type II

98
Q

complement fixation is necessary step for what

A

intravascular hemolysis

99
Q

snake bite hypersen causing glomerulonephritis is what type of reaction

A

type III

100
Q

What are mechanisms of autoimmunity

A

super antigens, activation of anergic t-cells, molecular mimicry, exposure of immune-privileged sites, failure of tolerance mechanisms, and hapten presentation

101
Q

What do live vaccines use

A

MHC 1

102
Q

What do killed vaccines use

A

MHC 2

103
Q

What breed is seen with X-linked SCID and what is the abnormality

A

basset and corgi

Deficiency in IL-2 or IL-2 receptors

104
Q

What CD is associated with CLAD

A

CD18

105
Q

6 month irish setter with neutrophilia - CLAD

A

integrin CD11b.18 is affected in disease

106
Q

What does lupus look like on histopathology

A

apoptotic keratinocytes on basal layer

107
Q

What constitutes a lupus erythematous cell?

A

neutrophil that phagocytized nuclear material

108
Q

pemphigus foliaceous lesions - head and ears which can progress to generalized and foot pad changes

A

antibodies against desmogelin 1

109
Q

What do you see on IMHA RBC cytology

A

spherocytes and reticulocytes

110
Q

Oclacitinib (apoquel) SE

A

diarrhea

111
Q

MOA leflunomide

A

inhibits lymphocyte reproduction by inhibiting DHODH –> inhibits rUMP –> inhibtis DNA/RNA synthesis

Pyrimidine analog

112
Q

MOA azathiprine

A

purine analog

113
Q

MOA cyclosporine

A

binds cyclophilin of Tcells –> inhibits calcineurin –> decreases NF-AT binding and action –> decreased IL-2 production and T cell activation

114
Q

MOA pentoxyfylline

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor - helps with wound healing

can decrease PLT aggregation

115
Q

MOA Rapamycin

A

Macrocyclic ABX similar to tacrolimus

116
Q

What blocks mTOR

A

protein kinase involved in gene translation regulation in response to growth factors, cytokines

117
Q

What is a type of rapacmycin that targets mTOR

A

sirolimus

General Boards (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions