Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

What are causes of pericardial disease in cats

A

Left sided CHF (#1)
Neoplasia - lymphoma/adenocarcinoma (#2)

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2
Q

MOA of digoxin and what are indications

A

Na-K ATPase inhibitor (increased intracellular Na –> decrease in Na-Ca exchange –> increased Ca leads to increase in strength of contraction

Ionotrope (pump better)

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3
Q

What electrolyte abnormality can be seen with digoxin

A

Hyperkalemia (blocks the Na-K pump that results in less K being pumped into the cell

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4
Q

What are two heart diseases in dogs that are exclusively arrhythmogenic?

A

ARVC (boxers) and inherited sudden cardiac death (GSD - ventricular)

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5
Q

What is torsade de pointes

A

Ventricular arrhythmia leading to tachycardia that arises from prolongation of QT intervals.

Rhythm prior is slow and the QT interval is prolonged along with R-on-T extrasystole

The occurs a rapid ventricular rhythm has QRS complexes that are regular, but changing amplitude and polarity

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6
Q

What is sick sinus syndrome

A

AV conduction disturbances and disturbances of supraventricular/ventricular excitability.

Breeds - Min. schnauzers, cockers, westies

ECG: 1st or 2nd degree AV block with prolonged sinus pauses and escape beats –> bursts of supraventricular tachycardia

Dx - atropine response –> normal heart will have an increase in rate

Tx - if there is a response to atropine –> theophylline/aminophylline, proapantheline, hycosamine; no response pacemaker

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7
Q

What test is more sensitive for heartworm detection in the cat compared to dog

A

echocardiogram

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8
Q

Which test should be used as a screening test for feline HWD

A

HW antibody

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9
Q

What is responsible for the S4 heart sound?

A

Atrial contraction (atrial kick)

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10
Q

S3 heart sound?

A

rapid ventricular filling

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11
Q

S2 heart sound

A

aortic valve closing

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12
Q

S1 heart sound

A

mitral valve closing

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13
Q

what valvular condition predisposes a patient to endocarditis

A

subaortic stenosis

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14
Q

What is isovolumic contraction

A

period just before ventricular ejection –> pressure is rising while volume stays the same –> all valves are closed (up on curve)

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15
Q

What is isovolumic relaxation

A

period just after ventricular systole –> pressure is decreasing in ventricles and volume stays the same –> all valves closed (down on curve)

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16
Q

Where are baroreceptors peripherally

A

carotid and aortic bodies

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17
Q

What stimulates baroreceptors

A

hypoxia, and changes in BP –> when carotid baroreceptors detect MAP < 100 mmHg –> stimulates vasomotor centers to decrease parasympathetic and increase sympathetic output

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18
Q

Where are central barareceptors

A

medulla - respond to increased CO2 and H

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19
Q

Where are chemoreceptors and what do they respond to?

A

Peripheral - carotid/aortic –> hypoxia, increased CO2, and acidosis

Central - medulla –> increased CO2 and acidosis (NOT hypoxia)

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20
Q

What condition would cause a hyperdynamic pulse

A

PDA and aortic insufficiency

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21
Q

What neurohormone is inactivated in the lungs

A

bradykinin and angiotensin I and PG

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22
Q

What congenital heart disease causes splintered QRS wave on ECG

A

Tricuspid valve dysplasia

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23
Q

What is the most common congenital heart condition in cat

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

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24
Q

What is the major stimulus for aldosterone

A

hyperkalemia

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25
What is the major stimulus for ADH
increased osmolarity of the blood
26
What are the phases of a cardiac myocyte action potential (non-pacemaker cell)
Phase 0: depolarization --> Na IN (fast) Phase 1: initial repolarization --> K OUT and fast Na channels close Phase 2: plateau --> Ca IN (slow) and K OUT Phase 3: rapid repolarization --> K OUT Phase 4: resting --> K IN and Na out --> maintenance
27
What are phases of SA node action potential (pacemaker cell)
Phase 0: depolarization --> Ca IN (L type channels) Phase 3: repolarization --> K OUT Phase 4: resting membrane (no true RMP) - slow depolarization caused by Na IN and K OUT and small amount Ca IN nearing depolarization --> accounts for pacemaker activity
28
What is perfusion pressure
systolic pressure - diastolic pressure
29
How is the radius of a blood vessel related to blood flow
Poiseuille's Law --> resistance = viscosity x length of vessels/r^4 decreasing the radius will increase the resistance more leading to a decrease in blood flow `
30
What is ANP
atrial natriuretic peptide Secreted by atrial myocytes with atria is stretched Leads to increase Na excretion by increasing GFR (dilates afferent and constricts efferent). Also relaxes vascular smooth muscle
31
What are examples of cardiac glycosides
foxglove and digitoxin
32
What are the stages of MMVD
Stage A: at risk - cavaliers Stage B1: murmur - no cardiac enlargement Stage B2: murmur - cardiac enlargement Stage C: CHF Stage D: refractory CHF
33
MOA pimobendan
phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitor (leads to increased Ca) --> increases contractility inodilator
34
What is responsible for the automaticity of the SA node
Slow Na and Ca channels
35
What vasoactive factors are decreased in pulmonary hypertension
Nitric oxide
36
What are causes of pulmonary hypertension
Pulmonary arteriolar vascular disease (parasites -HWD and angiostrongylus & congenital - ASD, PDA< VSD) Left sided heart disease (pulmonary venous hypertension --> MMVD, myocardial disease) Pulmonary disease (COPD, high-altitude, interstitial pulmonary fibrosis neoplasia, tracheobronchial disease) PTE HWD
37
What are the components of tetralogy of fallot
VSD RV hypertrophy PS Overriding aorta
38
In relation to cardiac myocyte (non-pacemaker) action potential what channels are open during phase 0 depolarization?
Fast Na channels
39
How much will A-fib decrease cardiac out by
25-39% and it increases ventricular filling pressure
40
What are class Ia antiarrhythmics
Fast Na channel blockers; quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide
41
What is the MOA of class Ia antiarrhythmics
Na channel blockers --> phase 0 Use with ventricular arrhythmias
42
What are class Ib antiarrhythmics
intermediate Na channel blockers phase 0; lidocaine, phenytoin, mexiletine Use with ventricular tachycardia and atrial fibrillation
43
What are class II antiarrhythmics
Beta blockers (adrenergic); propranolol, atenolol, carvedilol Negative inotrope and negative chronotrope
44
What are class II antiarrhythmics
amiodarone and sotalol K+ channel blockers --> phase 3 ventricular tachycardias and atrial fib
45
What are class Iv antiarrhythmics
Slow Ca channel blockers --> prolongs refractory period Prevent ventricular rate in patients with a-fib
46
Is digoxin rate or rhythm control?
rate
47
What is ANP function and clearance
Atrial natriuretic peptide --> produced by atrial myocytes in response to stretch of atria Function: *kidney --> increase Na excretion (dilates afferent arteriole increases GFR) *Vessels --> increases capillary permeability and relaxes vascular smooth muscle *inhibits renin secretion and ADH
48
What are central chemo receptors
medulla (sensitive to pH and altered breathing)
49
What are peripheral chemoreceptors
Carotid and aortic bodies
50
What cardiac disease is seen with bounding arterial pulses
aortic insufficiency
51
What receptor causes release of Ca from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Ryanodine receptors
52
Hormones that cause vasodilation
epi(liver and SKm), bradykinin, histamine, PG
53
Hormones that cause vasoconstriction
AT II, vasopressin, norepo, epi (kidneys/skin)
54
Where in the sarcomere is the action potential generated
T-tubules
55
What is the anti-thrombotic effect of vascular endothelium
thrombomodulin
56
What increases cardiac contractility
myofibril stretch
57
What substances are affected with pulmonary hypertension
decreased prostacyclin and NO increased endothelin, thromboxane A2, serotonin
58
Young GSD regurgitating and not gaining weight
PRAA
59
What is the gold standard diagnosis for PTE
CT angiogram
60
What are cardiac biomarkers
BNP (NT-proBNP) ANP (NT-proANP) Cardiac troponin
61
Cause of PDA
failure of the ductus arteriosus muscle to constrict - leaves passage for blood to flow from aorta to pulmonary circulation (L to R shunt) leading to left sided heart disease
62
Causes of pulmonary hypertension in dogs
left sided heart disease HWD PTE idiopathic/primary chronic lung disease
63
what breed are predisposed to DCM
golden - taurine
64
L to R shunt of PDA causes what
left sided volume overload
65
HCM pathologic finding cat
left concentric ventricular hypertrophy maine coon MyBCP3
66
How do you treat 2nd degree AV block
atropine, terbutaline, aminophylline, propantheline