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General Boards > Cardiovascular > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

What are causes of pericardial disease in cats

A

Left sided CHF (#1)
Neoplasia - lymphoma/adenocarcinoma (#2)

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2
Q

MOA of digoxin and what are indications

A

Na-K ATPase inhibitor (increased intracellular Na –> decrease in Na-Ca exchange –> increased Ca leads to increase in strength of contraction

Ionotrope (pump better)

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3
Q

What electrolyte abnormality can be seen with digoxin

A

Hyperkalemia (blocks the Na-K pump that results in less K being pumped into the cell

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4
Q

What are two heart diseases in dogs that are exclusively arrhythmogenic?

A

ARVC (boxers) and inherited sudden cardiac death (GSD - ventricular)

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5
Q

What is torsade de pointes

A

Ventricular arrhythmia leading to tachycardia that arises from prolongation of QT intervals.

Rhythm prior is slow and the QT interval is prolonged along with R-on-T extrasystole

The occurs a rapid ventricular rhythm has QRS complexes that are regular, but changing amplitude and polarity

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6
Q

What is sick sinus syndrome

A

AV conduction disturbances and disturbances of supraventricular/ventricular excitability.

Breeds - Min. schnauzers, cockers, westies

ECG: 1st or 2nd degree AV block with prolonged sinus pauses and escape beats –> bursts of supraventricular tachycardia

Dx - atropine response –> normal heart will have an increase in rate

Tx - if there is a response to atropine –> theophylline/aminophylline, proapantheline, hycosamine; no response pacemaker

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7
Q

What test is more sensitive for heartworm detection in the cat compared to dog

A

echocardiogram

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8
Q

Which test should be used as a screening test for feline HWD

A

HW antibody

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9
Q

What is responsible for the S4 heart sound?

A

Atrial contraction (atrial kick)

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10
Q

S3 heart sound?

A

rapid ventricular filling

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11
Q

S2 heart sound

A

aortic valve closing

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12
Q

S1 heart sound

A

mitral valve closing

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13
Q

what valvular condition predisposes a patient to endocarditis

A

subaortic stenosis

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14
Q

What is isovolumic contraction

A

period just before ventricular ejection –> pressure is rising while volume stays the same –> all valves are closed (up on curve)

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15
Q

What is isovolumic relaxation

A

period just after ventricular systole –> pressure is decreasing in ventricles and volume stays the same –> all valves closed (down on curve)

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16
Q

Where are baroreceptors peripherally

A

carotid and aortic bodies

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17
Q

What stimulates baroreceptors

A

hypoxia, and changes in BP –> when carotid baroreceptors detect MAP < 100 mmHg –> stimulates vasomotor centers to decrease parasympathetic and increase sympathetic output

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18
Q

Where are central barareceptors

A

medulla - respond to increased CO2 and H

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19
Q

Where are chemoreceptors and what do they respond to?

A

Peripheral - carotid/aortic –> hypoxia, increased CO2, and acidosis

Central - medulla –> increased CO2 and acidosis (NOT hypoxia)

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20
Q

What condition would cause a hyperdynamic pulse

A

PDA and aortic insufficiency

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21
Q

What neurohormone is inactivated in the lungs

A

bradykinin and angiotensin I and PG

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22
Q

What congenital heart disease causes splintered QRS wave on ECG

A

Tricuspid valve dysplasia

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23
Q

What is the most common congenital heart condition in cat

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

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24
Q

What is the major stimulus for aldosterone

A

hyperkalemia

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25
Q

What is the major stimulus for ADH

A

increased osmolarity of the blood

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26
Q

What are the phases of a cardiac myocyte action potential (non-pacemaker cell)

A

Phase 0: depolarization –> Na IN (fast)
Phase 1: initial repolarization –> K OUT and fast Na channels close
Phase 2: plateau –> Ca IN (slow) and K OUT
Phase 3: rapid repolarization –> K OUT
Phase 4: resting –> K IN and Na out –> maintenance

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27
Q

What are phases of SA node action potential (pacemaker cell)

A

Phase 0: depolarization –> Ca IN (L type channels)
Phase 3: repolarization –> K OUT
Phase 4: resting membrane (no true RMP) - slow depolarization caused by Na IN and K OUT and small amount Ca IN nearing depolarization –> accounts for pacemaker activity

28
Q

What is perfusion pressure

A

systolic pressure - diastolic pressure

29
Q

How is the radius of a blood vessel related to blood flow

A

Poiseuille’s Law –> resistance = viscosity x length of vessels/r^4

decreasing the radius will increase the resistance more leading to a decrease in blood flow `

30
Q

What is ANP

A

atrial natriuretic peptide

Secreted by atrial myocytes with atria is stretched

Leads to increase Na excretion by increasing GFR (dilates afferent and constricts efferent). Also relaxes vascular smooth muscle

31
Q

What are examples of cardiac glycosides

A

foxglove and digitoxin

32
Q

What are the stages of MMVD

A

Stage A: at risk - cavaliers
Stage B1: murmur - no cardiac enlargement
Stage B2: murmur - cardiac enlargement
Stage C: CHF
Stage D: refractory CHF

33
Q

MOA pimobendan

A

phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitor (leads to increased Ca) –> increases contractility

inodilator

34
Q

What is responsible for the automaticity of the SA node

A

Slow Na and Ca channels

35
Q

What vasoactive factors are decreased in pulmonary hypertension

A

Nitric oxide

36
Q

What are causes of pulmonary hypertension

A

Pulmonary arteriolar vascular disease (parasites -HWD and angiostrongylus & congenital - ASD, PDA< VSD)

Left sided heart disease (pulmonary venous hypertension –> MMVD, myocardial disease)

Pulmonary disease (COPD, high-altitude, interstitial pulmonary fibrosis neoplasia, tracheobronchial disease)

PTE

HWD

37
Q

What are the components of tetralogy of fallot

A

VSD
RV hypertrophy
PS
Overriding aorta

38
Q

In relation to cardiac myocyte (non-pacemaker) action potential what channels are open during phase 0 depolarization?

A

Fast Na channels

39
Q

How much will A-fib decrease cardiac out by

A

25-39% and it increases ventricular filling pressure

40
Q

What are class Ia antiarrhythmics

A

Fast Na channel blockers; quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide

41
Q

What is the MOA of class Ia antiarrhythmics

A

Na channel blockers –> phase 0

Use with ventricular arrhythmias

42
Q

What are class Ib antiarrhythmics

A

intermediate Na channel blockers phase 0; lidocaine, phenytoin, mexiletine

Use with ventricular tachycardia and atrial fibrillation

43
Q

What are class II antiarrhythmics

A

Beta blockers (adrenergic); propranolol, atenolol, carvedilol

Negative inotrope and negative chronotrope

44
Q

What are class II antiarrhythmics

A

amiodarone and sotalol

K+ channel blockers –> phase 3

ventricular tachycardias and atrial fib

45
Q

What are class Iv antiarrhythmics

A

Slow Ca channel blockers –> prolongs refractory period

Prevent ventricular rate in patients with a-fib

46
Q

Is digoxin rate or rhythm control?

A

rate

47
Q

What is ANP function and clearance

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide –> produced by atrial myocytes in response to stretch of atria

Function:
*kidney –> increase Na excretion (dilates afferent arteriole increases GFR)
*Vessels –> increases capillary permeability and relaxes vascular smooth muscle
*inhibits renin secretion and ADH

48
Q

What are central chemo receptors

A

medulla (sensitive to pH and altered breathing)

49
Q

What are peripheral chemoreceptors

A

Carotid and aortic bodies

50
Q

What cardiac disease is seen with bounding arterial pulses

A

aortic insufficiency

51
Q

What receptor causes release of Ca from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Ryanodine receptors

52
Q

Hormones that cause vasodilation

A

epi(liver and SKm), bradykinin, histamine, PG

53
Q

Hormones that cause vasoconstriction

A

AT II, vasopressin, norepo, epi (kidneys/skin)

54
Q

Where in the sarcomere is the action potential generated

A

T-tubules

55
Q

What is the anti-thrombotic effect of vascular endothelium

A

thrombomodulin

56
Q

What increases cardiac contractility

A

myofibril stretch

57
Q

What substances are affected with pulmonary hypertension

A

decreased prostacyclin and NO
increased endothelin, thromboxane A2, serotonin

58
Q

Young GSD regurgitating and not gaining weight

A

PRAA

59
Q

What is the gold standard diagnosis for PTE

A

CT angiogram

60
Q

What are cardiac biomarkers

A

BNP (NT-proBNP)
ANP (NT-proANP)
Cardiac troponin

61
Q

Cause of PDA

A

failure of the ductus arteriosus muscle to constrict - leaves passage for blood to flow from aorta to pulmonary circulation (L to R shunt) leading to left sided heart disease

62
Q

Causes of pulmonary hypertension in dogs

A

left sided heart disease
HWD
PTE
idiopathic/primary
chronic lung disease

63
Q

what breed are predisposed to DCM

A

golden - taurine

64
Q

L to R shunt of PDA causes what

A

left sided volume overload

65
Q

HCM pathologic finding cat

A

left concentric ventricular hypertrophy
maine coon MyBCP3

66
Q

How do you treat 2nd degree AV block

A

atropine, terbutaline, aminophylline, propantheline

General Boards (15 decks)

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