Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MIP 260 > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Will a negative SNAP giardia test have any spots present? What about if the test is positive?

A

Yes, 1 spot; Yes, 2 spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two tests used for heartworm diagnostics?

A

Knott’s Test and Immunodiagnostic Tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the Baermann technique test for?

A

larvae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which test involves the binding of a conjugate to an antibody, initiating a color change to show a positive results for a virus?

A

ELISA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If you want to test for a current infection, which ELISA would you want to use?

A

An ELISA testing for antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If you want to test to see if a patient has ever had an infection, what would you test for?

A

Antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is the control line relative to the test line in a lateral flow device and why is it located there?

A

Above the control line; to ensure the sample reaches the site of the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If you are positive an animal has heartworm, but tests are showing up negative, what can you do and why

A

Heat treat the sample to break up any antigen-antibody complexes that have formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which type of immune response is stimulated by the presence of an antigen which is then recognized by T-cell receptors and antibodies

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Proteins called immunoglobins

A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of cells do B lymphocytes give rise to and what can these cells secrete

A

plasma cells; antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When a mature B/T cell encounters an antigen that matches the receptor on their surface, leading to proliferation of cells with the same receptor

A

clonal selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

“Non-self” recognition involves proteins encoded by genes known as what

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which MHC classes exist and where are they found?

A

Class I are found on all cells in vertebrates

Class II are only found on some cells (lymphocytes and macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the structure of an antibody and which regions are variable/conserved?

A
  • 2 light chains, 2 heavy chains

- top ends of y are variable, heavy chains/base are conserved (particularly among antibodies of the same class)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE are all what type of molecule?

A

antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does the class of antibody determine

A

The role it plays in immune response (not specific antigens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When foreign particles are coated with antibody, which is recognized by a macrophage and engulfed

A

opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The release of a molecule that results in the perforation and destruction of a foreign cell (pokes holes)

A

Activation by complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When an antibody bound to the surface of an invader triggers cell death by host cells; particularly important with parasites

A

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two types of T cells?

A

CD8+ (cytotoxic T cells)

CD4+ (T helper cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What response do these steps outline:

  • antigen binds to B cells
  • B cells proliferate and produce plasma cells
  • Plasma cells bear antibodies that are then release
  • memory cells provide future memory
A

The humoral response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of immunity to the following belong to:

  • Delayed type hypersensitivity
  • Cytolytic T lymphocyte responses
  • Natural killer cell responses
  • Immediate hypersensitivity
A

Cell Mediated Immunity (CMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When TH1 cells are activated by a specific antigen, secreting cytokines that lead to inflammation

Triggered by schistosomes

A

Delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When CD8+ cells become CTLs and begin lysing cells that display the antigen on their surface

Important in organ transplant rejection and viral infections as well as protozoal infections such as malaria

A

Cytolytic T Lymphocyte (CTL) responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Large granular lymphocytes that are important in infections, organ transplant, and get involved quickly

A

Natural Killer Cell Responses (NK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When eosinophils are recruited to an area of inflammation to participate in a reaction to kill parasites, mediated by IgE

A

Immediate Hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens if antigen is not destroyed

A

fibrous connective tissue can be deposited – known as “fibrosis” – or nodules of inflammatory tissue called “granulomas” can be found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What happens to mast cells in when their surface bears IgE, histamine is released into the blood to dialate the vessels, and when they escape into tissues

A

degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the basis for allergies and asthma

A

immediate hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the parasite-related theory for how allergies evolved

A

Evolved to help the body ward of parasites – only allergens and parasite antigens stimulate a large production of IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In inflammation, what is the first line of defense and what follows

A

neutrophils followed by macrophages

33
Q

How do eosinophils kill parasites

A

through antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

34
Q

What can be created when inflammation leads to cell death and the necrotic debris is confined to a specific area – the pus increases hydrostatic pressure

A

abscess

35
Q

What is the name for inflammation that opens out to skin or mucous surface

A

ulcer

36
Q

What can amoebas cause with regard to inflammation

A

ulcers and abscesses

37
Q

In ascaris/hookworm infections, they penetrate lung capillaries to enter airways and damage vessels

What type of pathogenesis is this an example of

A

trauma

38
Q

Hookworms bit the mucosa and suck blood in the intestine, causing anemia

What type of pathogenesis is this

A

trauma

39
Q

E. histolytica digests the mucosa of the large intestine, causing ulcers and abscesses

What type of pathogenesis is this an example of

A

trauma

40
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum absorbs vitamin B12from the GI wall and lumen contents

What type of pathogenesis is this an example of

A

nutritional deficits

41
Q

Ascaris lumbricoides (whipworms) consume large amounts of food causing childhood malnutrition and growth retardation

What type of pathogenesis is this an example of

A

nutritional deficits

42
Q

Giardia suctions into the intestinal epithelium, covering the absorptive surface of the GI tract

What type of pathogenesis is this an example of

A

nutritional deficits

43
Q

In malaria, parasites invade red blood cells, which are lysed and harmful products are released – this unleashed waste products and cellular debris

What type of pathogenesis is this an example of

A

toxic effects

44
Q

What forms around schistosome eggs when they are carried to the liver and become lodged in vessels; what is the name for the ailment this causes

A

granulomas; cirrhosis and portal hypertension

45
Q

Which parasite has adults who live in the dermis and whose degenerating juveniles become foci of inflammation, causing keratitis and blindness

A

Onchocerca volvulus

46
Q

A host is ______ if the host cannot eliminate the parasite before the parasite becomes established

A

susceptible

47
Q

A host is _____ if physiological status prevents establishment and survival of a parasite

A

resistant

48
Q

Rather than referring to the host as susceptible or resistant, what two terms can the parasite be referred to as

A

infective or non-infective

49
Q

an animal demonstrates ____ if it possesses cells or tissues that are capable of recognizing and protecting the animal against non-self invaders

A

immunity

50
Q

Which type of immunity is shown by all animals to some degree and does not depend on prior exposure

A

innate immunity

51
Q

which type of immunity is specific to the particular non-self material, requires time to develop, and occurs faster upon secondary exposure

A

adaptive immunity

52
Q

what is the term for when resistance may be incomplete but the host recovers clinically (when the parasites are “held in check” by the host immune system so the host is asymptomatic)

A

premunition

53
Q

when a parasite may protect against reinfection by remaining in the host unaffected by the immune response

schistosomiasis is a good example

A

concomitant immunity

54
Q

Which type of innate immunity can be cornified, sclerotized, soft/layer of mucus

A

Barrier

55
Q

What do useful defense systems require the ability to differentiate between

A

Self and Non-self

56
Q

What two innate immunity responses are important for cell signaling

A
  • cytokines/cytokine receptors

- pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

57
Q

All of these are locations for what molecules:

  • the surface of neighboring cells
  • dissolved in the blood (cytokines)
  • on the surface of secreted pathogens
A

ligands

58
Q 
Which of these are affected by cytokines:
A) the same cells that produce them
B) cells nearby
C) dells distant in the body
D) all of the above
A

D) all of the above

59
Q

Which pathways lead to the production of IFN-gamma, controlling the differentiation of T helper cells toward TH1 or TH2

A

JAK-STAT

60
Q

What was discovered when moth larvae released antimicrobials, killing the bacteria they were inoculated with despite having no prior exposure

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR)

61
Q

Do antimicrobial molecules have low specificity or high specificity?

A

low specificity – peptides target different categories of microbes

62
Q

What on the surface of host cells recognize pattern associated molecular patterns (PAMPS)

A

PRRs

63
Q

What is a series of enzymes activated in sequence that can be triggered upon the binding of molecules on the surface of parasites or microbes

A

complement

64
Q

What is the difference between the classical complement pathway and the alternative pathway and what is the end result

A

classical – antibody binding to antigen
alternative – enzyme activated in the blood, binds to cell surfaces
ends – in cell lysis/destruction of invader (not host cell)

65
Q

Scavenger receptors, toll-like receptors, and complement receptors are all types of what

A

PRRs

66
Q

What is the function of complement receptors

A

they mediate phagocytosis and other processes

67
Q

What type of PRR is a conserved family of receptors that activates innate immunity and initiates adaptive immunity

A

TLRs

68
Q

What ubiquitous molecules in eukaryotic cell membranes function by anchoring proteins to cell membranes

A

Glycophosphatidylinositols (GPIs)

69
Q

Which two substances are considered mucicidal and can cross cellular barriers (they are present in saliva, sweat, and certain red blood cells)

A

IgA and lysozyme

70
Q

What two protective compounds are made by cells in the adaptive immune response

A

Interferons (cytokines)

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) – a mediator of inflammation that can cause fever

71
Q

What natural defense can aid in preventing the establishment of pathogenic infections

A

GI microflora

72
Q

Substances in human ____ can kill intestinal protozoans such as giardia and entamoeba histolytica

A

milk

73
Q

the process of engulfing an invading particle via invagination of the cell membrane (lysosomes then pour in digestive enzymes to destroy the foreign particle)

A

phagocytosis

74
Q

What contains enzymes that initiate the production of reactive oxygen intermediates (ROIs) and reactive nitrogen intermediates (RNIs) – potentially toxic molecules for invading organisms

A

Lysosomes

75
Q

Which types of cells are capable of phagocytosis

A

Monocytes and dendritic cells

76
Q

which cells arise in the bone marrow and leave the blood to become active phagocytes (macrophages, Kupffer cells, and microglial cells), expressing an abundance of TLRs

A

monocytes

77
Q

what cells arise in the bone marrow, the immature cells are phagocytic, and mature to activate the adaptive immune response

A

Dendritic cells

78
Q

Which type of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are often associated with allergic response and parasitism

A

Eosinophilia

MIP 260 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions