Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Will a negative SNAP giardia test have any spots present? What about if the test is positive?

A

Yes, 1 spot; Yes, 2 spots

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2
Q

What are the two tests used for heartworm diagnostics?

A

Knott’s Test and Immunodiagnostic Tests

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3
Q

What does the Baermann technique test for?

A

larvae

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4
Q

Which test involves the binding of a conjugate to an antibody, initiating a color change to show a positive results for a virus?

A

ELISA

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5
Q

If you want to test for a current infection, which ELISA would you want to use?

A

An ELISA testing for antigen

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6
Q

If you want to test to see if a patient has ever had an infection, what would you test for?

A

Antibody

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7
Q

Where is the control line relative to the test line in a lateral flow device and why is it located there?

A

Above the control line; to ensure the sample reaches the site of the test

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8
Q

If you are positive an animal has heartworm, but tests are showing up negative, what can you do and why

A

Heat treat the sample to break up any antigen-antibody complexes that have formed

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9
Q

Which type of immune response is stimulated by the presence of an antigen which is then recognized by T-cell receptors and antibodies

A

Adaptive Immunity

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10
Q

Proteins called immunoglobins

A

Antibodies

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11
Q

What type of cells do B lymphocytes give rise to and what can these cells secrete

A

plasma cells; antibodies

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12
Q

When a mature B/T cell encounters an antigen that matches the receptor on their surface, leading to proliferation of cells with the same receptor

A

clonal selection

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13
Q

“Non-self” recognition involves proteins encoded by genes known as what

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

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14
Q

Which MHC classes exist and where are they found?

A

Class I are found on all cells in vertebrates

Class II are only found on some cells (lymphocytes and macrophages)

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15
Q

What is the structure of an antibody and which regions are variable/conserved?

A
  • 2 light chains, 2 heavy chains

- top ends of y are variable, heavy chains/base are conserved (particularly among antibodies of the same class)

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16
Q

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE are all what type of molecule?

A

antibodies

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17
Q

what does the class of antibody determine

A

The role it plays in immune response (not specific antigens)

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18
Q

When foreign particles are coated with antibody, which is recognized by a macrophage and engulfed

A

opsonization

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19
Q

The release of a molecule that results in the perforation and destruction of a foreign cell (pokes holes)

A

Activation by complement

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20
Q

When an antibody bound to the surface of an invader triggers cell death by host cells; particularly important with parasites

A

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

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21
Q

What are the two types of T cells?

A

CD8+ (cytotoxic T cells)

CD4+ (T helper cells)

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22
Q

What response do these steps outline:

  • antigen binds to B cells
  • B cells proliferate and produce plasma cells
  • Plasma cells bear antibodies that are then release
  • memory cells provide future memory
A

The humoral response

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23
Q

What type of immunity to the following belong to:

  • Delayed type hypersensitivity
  • Cytolytic T lymphocyte responses
  • Natural killer cell responses
  • Immediate hypersensitivity
A

Cell Mediated Immunity (CMI)

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24
Q

When TH1 cells are activated by a specific antigen, secreting cytokines that lead to inflammation

Triggered by schistosomes

A

Delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH)

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25
When CD8+ cells become CTLs and begin lysing cells that display the antigen on their surface Important in organ transplant rejection and viral infections as well as protozoal infections such as malaria
Cytolytic T Lymphocyte (CTL) responses
26
Large granular lymphocytes that are important in infections, organ transplant, and get involved quickly
Natural Killer Cell Responses (NK)
27
When eosinophils are recruited to an area of inflammation to participate in a reaction to kill parasites, mediated by IgE
Immediate Hypersensitivity
28
What happens if antigen is not destroyed
fibrous connective tissue can be deposited -- known as "fibrosis" -- or nodules of inflammatory tissue called "granulomas" can be found
29
What happens to mast cells in when their surface bears IgE, histamine is released into the blood to dialate the vessels, and when they escape into tissues
degranulation
30
What is the basis for allergies and asthma
immediate hypersensitivity
31
What is the parasite-related theory for how allergies evolved
Evolved to help the body ward of parasites -- only allergens and parasite antigens stimulate a large production of IgE
32
In inflammation, what is the first line of defense and what follows
neutrophils followed by macrophages
33
How do eosinophils kill parasites
through antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
34
What can be created when inflammation leads to cell death and the necrotic debris is confined to a specific area -- the pus increases hydrostatic pressure
abscess
35
What is the name for inflammation that opens out to skin or mucous surface
ulcer
36
What can amoebas cause with regard to inflammation
ulcers and abscesses
37
In ascaris/hookworm infections, they penetrate lung capillaries to enter airways and damage vessels What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
trauma
38
Hookworms bit the mucosa and suck blood in the intestine, causing anemia What type of pathogenesis is this
trauma
39
E. histolytica digests the mucosa of the large intestine, causing ulcers and abscesses What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
trauma
40
Diphyllobothrium latum absorbs vitamin B12from the GI wall and lumen contents What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
nutritional deficits
41
Ascaris lumbricoides (whipworms) consume large amounts of food causing childhood malnutrition and growth retardation What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
nutritional deficits
42
Giardia suctions into the intestinal epithelium, covering the absorptive surface of the GI tract What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
nutritional deficits
43
In malaria, parasites invade red blood cells, which are lysed and harmful products are released -- this unleashed waste products and cellular debris What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
toxic effects
44
What forms around schistosome eggs when they are carried to the liver and become lodged in vessels; what is the name for the ailment this causes
granulomas; cirrhosis and portal hypertension
45
Which parasite has adults who live in the dermis and whose degenerating juveniles become foci of inflammation, causing keratitis and blindness
Onchocerca volvulus
46
A host is ______ if the host cannot eliminate the parasite before the parasite becomes established
susceptible
47
A host is _____ if physiological status prevents establishment and survival of a parasite
resistant
48
Rather than referring to the host as susceptible or resistant, what two terms can the parasite be referred to as
infective or non-infective
49
an animal demonstrates ____ if it possesses cells or tissues that are capable of recognizing and protecting the animal against non-self invaders
immunity
50
Which type of immunity is shown by all animals to some degree and does not depend on prior exposure
innate immunity
51
which type of immunity is specific to the particular non-self material, requires time to develop, and occurs faster upon secondary exposure
adaptive immunity
52
what is the term for when resistance may be incomplete but the host recovers clinically (when the parasites are "held in check" by the host immune system so the host is asymptomatic)
premunition
53
when a parasite may protect against reinfection by remaining in the host unaffected by the immune response schistosomiasis is a good example
concomitant immunity
54
Which type of innate immunity can be cornified, sclerotized, soft/layer of mucus
Barrier
55
What do useful defense systems require the ability to differentiate between
Self and Non-self
56
What two innate immunity responses are important for cell signaling
- cytokines/cytokine receptors | - pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
57
All of these are locations for what molecules: - the surface of neighboring cells - dissolved in the blood (cytokines) - on the surface of secreted pathogens
ligands
58
``` Which of these are affected by cytokines: A) the same cells that produce them B) cells nearby C) dells distant in the body D) all of the above ```
D) all of the above
59
Which pathways lead to the production of IFN-gamma, controlling the differentiation of T helper cells toward TH1 or TH2
JAK-STAT
60
What was discovered when moth larvae released antimicrobials, killing the bacteria they were inoculated with despite having no prior exposure
Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR)
61
Do antimicrobial molecules have low specificity or high specificity?
low specificity -- peptides target different categories of microbes
62
What on the surface of host cells recognize pattern associated molecular patterns (PAMPS)
PRRs
63
What is a series of enzymes activated in sequence that can be triggered upon the binding of molecules on the surface of parasites or microbes
complement
64
What is the difference between the classical complement pathway and the alternative pathway and what is the end result
classical -- antibody binding to antigen alternative -- enzyme activated in the blood, binds to cell surfaces ends -- in cell lysis/destruction of invader (not host cell)
65
Scavenger receptors, toll-like receptors, and complement receptors are all types of what
PRRs
66
What is the function of complement receptors
they mediate phagocytosis and other processes
67
What type of PRR is a conserved family of receptors that activates innate immunity and initiates adaptive immunity
TLRs
68
What ubiquitous molecules in eukaryotic cell membranes function by anchoring proteins to cell membranes
Glycophosphatidylinositols (GPIs)
69
Which two substances are considered mucicidal and can cross cellular barriers (they are present in saliva, sweat, and certain red blood cells)
IgA and lysozyme
70
What two protective compounds are made by cells in the adaptive immune response
Interferons (cytokines) | Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) -- a mediator of inflammation that can cause fever
71
What natural defense can aid in preventing the establishment of pathogenic infections
GI microflora
72
Substances in human ____ can kill intestinal protozoans such as giardia and entamoeba histolytica
milk
73
the process of engulfing an invading particle via invagination of the cell membrane (lysosomes then pour in digestive enzymes to destroy the foreign particle)
phagocytosis
74
What contains enzymes that initiate the production of reactive oxygen intermediates (ROIs) and reactive nitrogen intermediates (RNIs) -- potentially toxic molecules for invading organisms
Lysosomes
75
Which types of cells are capable of phagocytosis
Monocytes and dendritic cells
76
which cells arise in the bone marrow and leave the blood to become active phagocytes (macrophages, Kupffer cells, and microglial cells), expressing an abundance of TLRs
monocytes
77
what cells arise in the bone marrow, the immature cells are phagocytic, and mature to activate the adaptive immune response
Dendritic cells
78
Which type of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are often associated with allergic response and parasitism
Eosinophilia