Immunology Flashcards
Will a negative SNAP giardia test have any spots present? What about if the test is positive?
Yes, 1 spot; Yes, 2 spots
What are the two tests used for heartworm diagnostics?
Knott’s Test and Immunodiagnostic Tests
What does the Baermann technique test for?
larvae
Which test involves the binding of a conjugate to an antibody, initiating a color change to show a positive results for a virus?
ELISA
If you want to test for a current infection, which ELISA would you want to use?
An ELISA testing for antigen
If you want to test to see if a patient has ever had an infection, what would you test for?
Antibody
Where is the control line relative to the test line in a lateral flow device and why is it located there?
Above the control line; to ensure the sample reaches the site of the test
If you are positive an animal has heartworm, but tests are showing up negative, what can you do and why
Heat treat the sample to break up any antigen-antibody complexes that have formed
Which type of immune response is stimulated by the presence of an antigen which is then recognized by T-cell receptors and antibodies
Adaptive Immunity
Proteins called immunoglobins
Antibodies
What type of cells do B lymphocytes give rise to and what can these cells secrete
plasma cells; antibodies
When a mature B/T cell encounters an antigen that matches the receptor on their surface, leading to proliferation of cells with the same receptor
clonal selection
“Non-self” recognition involves proteins encoded by genes known as what
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)
Which MHC classes exist and where are they found?
Class I are found on all cells in vertebrates
Class II are only found on some cells (lymphocytes and macrophages)
What is the structure of an antibody and which regions are variable/conserved?
- 2 light chains, 2 heavy chains
- top ends of y are variable, heavy chains/base are conserved (particularly among antibodies of the same class)
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE are all what type of molecule?
antibodies
what does the class of antibody determine
The role it plays in immune response (not specific antigens)
When foreign particles are coated with antibody, which is recognized by a macrophage and engulfed
opsonization
The release of a molecule that results in the perforation and destruction of a foreign cell (pokes holes)
Activation by complement
When an antibody bound to the surface of an invader triggers cell death by host cells; particularly important with parasites
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
What are the two types of T cells?
CD8+ (cytotoxic T cells)
CD4+ (T helper cells)
What response do these steps outline:
- antigen binds to B cells
- B cells proliferate and produce plasma cells
- Plasma cells bear antibodies that are then release
- memory cells provide future memory
The humoral response
What type of immunity to the following belong to:
- Delayed type hypersensitivity
- Cytolytic T lymphocyte responses
- Natural killer cell responses
- Immediate hypersensitivity
Cell Mediated Immunity (CMI)
When TH1 cells are activated by a specific antigen, secreting cytokines that lead to inflammation
Triggered by schistosomes
Delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH)
When CD8+ cells become CTLs and begin lysing cells that display the antigen on their surface
Important in organ transplant rejection and viral infections as well as protozoal infections such as malaria
Cytolytic T Lymphocyte (CTL) responses
Large granular lymphocytes that are important in infections, organ transplant, and get involved quickly
Natural Killer Cell Responses (NK)
When eosinophils are recruited to an area of inflammation to participate in a reaction to kill parasites, mediated by IgE
Immediate Hypersensitivity
What happens if antigen is not destroyed
fibrous connective tissue can be deposited – known as “fibrosis” – or nodules of inflammatory tissue called “granulomas” can be found
What happens to mast cells in when their surface bears IgE, histamine is released into the blood to dialate the vessels, and when they escape into tissues
degranulation
What is the basis for allergies and asthma
immediate hypersensitivity
What is the parasite-related theory for how allergies evolved
Evolved to help the body ward of parasites – only allergens and parasite antigens stimulate a large production of IgE
In inflammation, what is the first line of defense and what follows
neutrophils followed by macrophages
How do eosinophils kill parasites
through antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
What can be created when inflammation leads to cell death and the necrotic debris is confined to a specific area – the pus increases hydrostatic pressure
abscess
What is the name for inflammation that opens out to skin or mucous surface
ulcer
What can amoebas cause with regard to inflammation
ulcers and abscesses
In ascaris/hookworm infections, they penetrate lung capillaries to enter airways and damage vessels
What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
trauma
Hookworms bit the mucosa and suck blood in the intestine, causing anemia
What type of pathogenesis is this
trauma
E. histolytica digests the mucosa of the large intestine, causing ulcers and abscesses
What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
trauma
Diphyllobothrium latum absorbs vitamin B12from the GI wall and lumen contents
What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
nutritional deficits
Ascaris lumbricoides (whipworms) consume large amounts of food causing childhood malnutrition and growth retardation
What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
nutritional deficits
Giardia suctions into the intestinal epithelium, covering the absorptive surface of the GI tract
What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
nutritional deficits
In malaria, parasites invade red blood cells, which are lysed and harmful products are released – this unleashed waste products and cellular debris
What type of pathogenesis is this an example of
toxic effects
What forms around schistosome eggs when they are carried to the liver and become lodged in vessels; what is the name for the ailment this causes
granulomas; cirrhosis and portal hypertension
Which parasite has adults who live in the dermis and whose degenerating juveniles become foci of inflammation, causing keratitis and blindness
Onchocerca volvulus
A host is ______ if the host cannot eliminate the parasite before the parasite becomes established
susceptible
A host is _____ if physiological status prevents establishment and survival of a parasite
resistant
Rather than referring to the host as susceptible or resistant, what two terms can the parasite be referred to as
infective or non-infective
an animal demonstrates ____ if it possesses cells or tissues that are capable of recognizing and protecting the animal against non-self invaders
immunity
Which type of immunity is shown by all animals to some degree and does not depend on prior exposure
innate immunity
which type of immunity is specific to the particular non-self material, requires time to develop, and occurs faster upon secondary exposure
adaptive immunity
what is the term for when resistance may be incomplete but the host recovers clinically (when the parasites are “held in check” by the host immune system so the host is asymptomatic)
premunition
when a parasite may protect against reinfection by remaining in the host unaffected by the immune response
schistosomiasis is a good example
concomitant immunity
Which type of innate immunity can be cornified, sclerotized, soft/layer of mucus
Barrier
What do useful defense systems require the ability to differentiate between
Self and Non-self
What two innate immunity responses are important for cell signaling
- cytokines/cytokine receptors
- pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
All of these are locations for what molecules:
- the surface of neighboring cells
- dissolved in the blood (cytokines)
- on the surface of secreted pathogens
ligands
Which of these are affected by cytokines: A) the same cells that produce them B) cells nearby C) dells distant in the body D) all of the above
D) all of the above
Which pathways lead to the production of IFN-gamma, controlling the differentiation of T helper cells toward TH1 or TH2
JAK-STAT
What was discovered when moth larvae released antimicrobials, killing the bacteria they were inoculated with despite having no prior exposure
Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR)
Do antimicrobial molecules have low specificity or high specificity?
low specificity – peptides target different categories of microbes
What on the surface of host cells recognize pattern associated molecular patterns (PAMPS)
PRRs
What is a series of enzymes activated in sequence that can be triggered upon the binding of molecules on the surface of parasites or microbes
complement
What is the difference between the classical complement pathway and the alternative pathway and what is the end result
classical – antibody binding to antigen
alternative – enzyme activated in the blood, binds to cell surfaces
ends – in cell lysis/destruction of invader (not host cell)
Scavenger receptors, toll-like receptors, and complement receptors are all types of what
PRRs
What is the function of complement receptors
they mediate phagocytosis and other processes
What type of PRR is a conserved family of receptors that activates innate immunity and initiates adaptive immunity
TLRs
What ubiquitous molecules in eukaryotic cell membranes function by anchoring proteins to cell membranes
Glycophosphatidylinositols (GPIs)
Which two substances are considered mucicidal and can cross cellular barriers (they are present in saliva, sweat, and certain red blood cells)
IgA and lysozyme
What two protective compounds are made by cells in the adaptive immune response
Interferons (cytokines)
Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) – a mediator of inflammation that can cause fever
What natural defense can aid in preventing the establishment of pathogenic infections
GI microflora
Substances in human ____ can kill intestinal protozoans such as giardia and entamoeba histolytica
milk
the process of engulfing an invading particle via invagination of the cell membrane (lysosomes then pour in digestive enzymes to destroy the foreign particle)
phagocytosis
What contains enzymes that initiate the production of reactive oxygen intermediates (ROIs) and reactive nitrogen intermediates (RNIs) – potentially toxic molecules for invading organisms
Lysosomes
Which types of cells are capable of phagocytosis
Monocytes and dendritic cells
which cells arise in the bone marrow and leave the blood to become active phagocytes (macrophages, Kupffer cells, and microglial cells), expressing an abundance of TLRs
monocytes
what cells arise in the bone marrow, the immature cells are phagocytic, and mature to activate the adaptive immune response
Dendritic cells
Which type of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are often associated with allergic response and parasitism
Eosinophilia
