Immune Responses Flashcards

1
Q

What three things contribute to the diversity of an antibody?

A
  1. Random Recombination
  2. Random addition of nucleotides by terminal deoxynucletotidyl transferase
  3. Random combination of heavy chain with light chain
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2
Q

Which part of the antibody determines the isotype?

A

Fc portion

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3
Q

What are the three functions of antibodies?

A
  1. Compliment
  2. Neutralization
  3. Opsonization
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4
Q

Which portion of the antibody has the carboxy terminal?

A

Fc

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5
Q

Which portion of the antibody participates in antigen binding?

A

Fab

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6
Q

Which portion of the antibody has carbohydrate side chains?

A

Fc

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7
Q

Mature B cells have what three things on them?

A

MHC Class II
IgD antibody
IgM antibody

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8
Q

Which two antibody isotypes fix complement?

A

IgG and IgM

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9
Q

What antibody can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

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10
Q

Which antibody is produced in the primary immune response?

A

IgM

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11
Q

Which antibody requires a secretory component?

A

IgA

protects it from lipases

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12
Q

Which ab contributes to immunity against parasites?

A

IgE (eosinophils)

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13
Q

Which antibody is given to the baby thru breast milk?

A

IgA

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14
Q

Which antibody protects against GI infection?

A

IgA

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15
Q

Which antibody neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses>

A

IgG

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16
Q

What form does IgM take in a B cell?

A

Monomer

becomes tetratmer when released into serum

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17
Q

What class switching will occur if a B cells presents to Th1 cell?

A

IgG

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18
Q

What class switching will occur if a B cell presents to a Th2 cell?

A

IgE

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19
Q

Which type of memory is the most robust and why?

A
Thymus Dependent
The most robust memory is the one that includes IgG and B cells can not undergo class switching without T cells.
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20
Q

Why is thymus independent memory not as strong?

A

Antigens that lack a peptide component (gram negative) means that B cells can not display the antigen on MHC molecules therefore only IgM can be produced. IgM is not as robust as IgG

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21
Q

Which complement molecules vasodilate?

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

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22
Q

Which complement molecule acts as an opsonin?

A

C3b

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23
Q

Which pathway is initiated with gram negative bacterial endotoxin A?

A

Alternative pathway

24
Q

What sets off the classical pathway?

A

Antibody-Antigen Complex

25
Q

What inhibits the complement cascade?

A

CD55 or DAF and C1 esterase inhibitor

26
Q

What are the two primary opsonins in bacterial defense?

A

C3b and IgG

27
Q

Classical pathway is mediated by what ab?

A

IgM and IgG

28
Q

Classical pathway is important for protection against what specific bacteria?

A

Neisseria

29
Q

IL-1 Has what functions?

A

Induces fever thru PGE-2
Acute inflammation
Activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules
Induces chemokine secretion to recruit WBCs
Also known as osteoclast activating factor (multiple Myeloma)

30
Q

IL-6 has what functions?

A

Fever and stimulates production of acute phase proteins

31
Q

IL-8 has what function?

A

Major chemotactic factor for neutrophils

32
Q

IL-12 has what function?

A

Induces differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells and activates NK cells

33
Q

TNF alpha function?

A

Activates endothelium and causes WBC recruitment, vascular leak

34
Q

IL-2 function?

A

Stimulate growth of helper, cytotoxic, and regulatory T cells

35
Q

IL-3 function?

A

Supports growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells. Functions like GM-CSF

36
Q

Interferon gamma?

A

Secreted by NK cells and T cells into Th 2 cells in response to antigen or IL-12 from macrophages
Stimulates macrophage to kill phagocytosed pathogens
Inhibits differentiation of Th2 cells

37
Q

IL-4 function

A

Induced differentiation of T cells in Th2 cells
Promotes growth of B cells
Enhances class switching to IgE and IgG

38
Q

IL-5 function

A

Promotes growth and differentiation of B cells
Enhanced class switching to IgA
Stimulates growth and differentiation of eosinophils

39
Q

IL-10 function

A

Attenuates inflammatory response
Decreases expression of MHC class II and Th1 cytokines
Inhibits activated macrophages and dendritic cells
Also secreted by reg T cells

40
Q

Pt who are deficient in NADPH oxidase are at an increase risk for what pathogens?

A

Catalase positive pathogens

41
Q

Which molecules are important in viral immune response?

A
Interferon alpha, beta, gamma
They decrease the synthesis of viral mRNA via ribonuclease and increase the expression of MHC class I
42
Q

What is the receptor on B cells responsible for EBV entry?

A

CD 21 (Eptein Barr must be over 21)

43
Q

What are the receptors on T cells that are responsible for HIV entry?

A

CXCR4 and CCR5

44
Q

What receptors on macrophages is responsible for PAMPs?

A

CD14

45
Q

What is anergy?

A

Is type of self tolerance where a T or B cells is in a state that they can not become activated by exposure to antigen. Usually do to lack of signal 2 in the co-stim cascade

46
Q

After exposure to tetanus, botulinum, HBV, varicella, and rabies patient are given PREFORMED Ab. What type of immunity is this?

A

Passive -> RAPID

47
Q

What are the toxoid vaccines? (2)

A

Clostridium Tetani

Corynebacterium diptheriae

48
Q

What are the subunit vaccines? (7)

A
HBV
HPV
Acellular pertusis
N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae B
49
Q

What are the Killed or Inactivated vaccines? (4)

A
Rabies
Influenza
Polio
Hep A
(Killed vaccine -> RIP Always)
50
Q

Killed vaccines mainly induce what response?

A

Humoral

as compared to live vaccines which induce Cellular response

51
Q

What is one example of a type 1 HS rxn?

A

Anaphylaxis

IgE and mast cell degranulation

52
Q

What are some examples of a type 2 HS rxn?

A
Autoimmune-Hemolytic Anemia
Immune Thrombocytopenia
Hemolytic Disease of a Newborn
Goodpasture
Rheumatic Fever
Graves Disease
Myasthenia Gravis
Pemphigus Vulgaris
53
Q

What are some examples of type 3 HS rxn?

A

SLE
Polyarteritis nodosa
Post-strep glomerulonephritis

54
Q

What are some examples of type 4 HS rxn?

A

Contact Dermatitis
Graft vs Host Disease
PPD Skin Test
Patch Test

55
Q

If a women has been pregnant before but has had no blood transfusions, the pregnancy put her at increase risk for what type of transfusion reaction?

A

Febrile Non-Hemolytic
(Host Ab against donor HLA and WBC- a person that has never had a transfusion SHOULD NOT have ab against HLA or WBC but a women who has prev been pregnant can have them due to babies blood)

56
Q

What is delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Memory B cells present from a prev exposure (pregnancy or transfusion) but no antibodies so you get a massive proliferation of B cells leading to plasma cells.
Presents about a week later with jaundice