Immune Defense Against Bacterial Infections Lec Flashcards
1
Q
are involved in
protecting the body against foreign materials, including
Bacteria.
A
Both innate and adaptive immunity
2
Q
Innate immunity is also known as
A
Natural immunity
3
Q
a nonspecific
immunity (naturally occurring) wherein it has a
standardized response to all antigens. It lacks
memory.
A
Innate immunity
4
Q
Innate immunity Common examples are
A
exogenous and
endogenous materials
5
Q
Defense mechanism against invading
microorganisms
A
Physical barriers
6
Q
Physical barriers The portal of entry of the microorganisms are
the
A
Mucus membrane
7
Q
serves as our physical barriers to that
particular invading microorganism
A
Skin
8
Q
is the hydrochloric acid
within our stomach that serves as a prevention
of bacterial growth through the digestion
process
A
Endogenous material
9
Q
Enzyme found in secretions such as tears and
saliva and is capable of destroying bacteria
A
Lysozymes
10
Q
Other soluble innate components that protects
us from the pathogenic bacteria:
A
interleukines,
Prostaglandins, and Leukotrienes
11
Q
Acute phase reactants such as
A
C-reactive protein,
haptoglobin, and ceruloplasmin
12
Q
which either
coat bacteria or remove substances that might
promote bacterial growth
A
C reactive proteins, haptoglobin and ceruplasmin
13
Q
are mainly involved in the
inflammation.
A
Acute phase reaction
14
Q
is a polypeptide that acts to APRs.
They are mainly involved in the triggering
factors of the other activities of the cell.
A
Cytokines
15
Q
process is
enhanced by the activation of the alternative
complement cascade
A
Phagocytosis
16
Q
is the cell eating cell
A
Phagocytosis
17
Q
It is triggered by the microbial cell walls or
other products of the microbial metabolism
A
Phagocytosis
18
Q
are
cellular defense mechanisms that are mainly
involved in the process of Phagocytosis
A
Neutrophil, macrophages and monocytes
19
Q
Adaptive immunity Also called
A
Specific immunity or acquired immunity
20
Q
The secondary response is better than the primary
response because it has memory B cells.
A
Adaptive immunity
21
Q
The mechanism of the adaptive immunity
A
memory of B cell
22
Q
Defense mechanism against the extracellular bacteria
occurs
A
Adaptive immunity
23
Q
Against exotoxins
and other secreted bacterial products
A
Antibody production
24
Q
Activation of Classical pathway
A
Cell lysis
25
is the formation of membrane attack complex
and the end result is cell lysis
MAC
26
other branch of a specific
immune response and helpful in attacking intracellular
bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
Legionella pneumophila , Listeria monocytogenes and
Rickettsia species
Cell mediated immunity
27
Cell Mediated Immunity other branch of a specific
immune response and helpful in attacking intracellular
bacteria such as
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Legionella pneumophila
Listeria monocytogenes
Rickettsia species
28
Production of _________ as by product can aid to enhance phagocytosis
opsonin's
29
Three main mechanisms:
OPPOSING IMMUNE RESPONSE
1. Avoiding antibody
2. Blocking phagocytosis
3. Inactivating the complement cascade
30
Bacteria that can perform this mutation.
Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus pyogenes
31
is capable of graph rejection
Major histocompatibility complex
32
Different microorganisms that can cleave the IgA2:
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Haemophilus influenza
c. Streptococcus sanguis
33
inhibition of several stages in phagocytosis
Blocking phagocytosis
34
is towards the stimulus
positive chemotaxis
35
is away from the stimulus
Negative chemotaxis
36
can inhibit the
release mechanism of chemotactic factors
Neisseria gonorrhea
37
M protein. A
group A streptococcus, inhibition of
adhesion
Streptococcus pyogenes
38
Encapsulated bacteria
Neisseria meningitides
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Yersinia pestis
Haemophilus influenzae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
39
inhibition of phagolysosome
formation
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium leprae
Salmonella spp.
40
has Leukocidin that will block the
process of phagocytosis
Staphylococcus
41
Listeria monocytogenes has
Listeriolysin O
42
Streptococcus has
Streptolysin
43
do not bind the
complement component C3b
Encapsulated bacteria
44
important in
enhancing phagocytosis
C3b
45
takes part in the complex form of alternative
classical and elected pathway
C3b
46
are gram-positive spherical, ovoid, or
lancet-shaped organisms that are catalase negative and
are often seen in pairs or chains.
Streptococci
47
Streptococci are divided into groups or
serotypes/serogroup on the basis of certain cell wall
components.
Serotype/Serogroup
Group-Specific Carbohydrate
48
Serve as the virulence factor for the streptococci
through M and T protein
Serotype/serogroup
49
Outermost cell wall components contains two
major proteins known as the M and T protein.
Serotype/Serogroup
50
Interior to the protein layer is the group-specific
carbohydrate that divides streptococci into 20
defined groups, designated A through H and K
through V.
Group-Specific Carbohydrate
51
Group A
Streptococcus pyogenes
52
Group B
Streptococcus agalactiae
53
Group C
Equisimilis
Streptococcus equi
Streptococcus dysagalactiae
Streptococcus zooepidemicus
54
Group D
Streptococcus bovis
Enterococcus faecalis,
Enterococcus faecium,
Enterococcus durans
55
is one of the most
common and ubiquitous pathogenic bacteria and
causes a variety of infection.
Streptococcus pyogenes
56
is the major virulence factor of the
group.
M protein
57
responsible
for the rash seen in scarlet fever and also appear
to contribute to pathogenicity.
Pyrogenic exotoxins A, B, and C
58
Production of enzymes also add to its virulence factor.
These includes:
Exoenzymes
59
The most diagnostically important antibodies are the
following:
Anti-streptolysin O (ASO), anti-DNase B,
anti-NADase, and anti-hyaluroni dase.
60
Presence of these antibodies is an indication of Group
A streptococcus infection and is seen in many
conditions/ disease like
Scarlet fever
Acute glomerulonephritis
Acute Rheumatic fever
Necrotizing fasciitis
streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
61
Employs the principle of Passive agglutination.
ASO AGGLUTINATION TEST
62
is the indirect type of the
agglutination
Passive agglutination
63
is accompanied by a carrier particle
Antigen
64
Significant titer: Aso
adult: 240 Todd unit or 240 IU/mL
Children: 320 Todd units or 320 IU/mL
65
Anti-streptolysin O agglutination test Replaced by
Nephelometry
66
Antigen Reagent:
Streptolysin
67
Reacts with patients Anti-Streptolysin
Precipitation
68
indicative of Streptococcal
glomerulonephritis
Anti-DNAse
69
ANTI-DNASE B TESTING May also be detected in
Acute rheumatic
fever
70
Normal Titer anti-DNAse B testing
children between the ages of 2
and 12 years range from: 240 to 640 units.
71
Presence of DNase is measured by its effect on a DNA
methyl-green conjugate (another reagent).
DNAse neutralization
72
Complex color of intact form
Green
73
when hydrolyzed by DNase, the methyl green is reduced and becomes
Colorless
74
DNAse neutralization test An overnight incubation at temperature
37C
75
The result is reported as the reciprocal of the
highest dilution, demonstrating a polar
intensity of between
2 and 4
76
Can be considered as a screening test and the
principle behind it is the passage agglutination
Slide Agglutination Test/ streptoenzyme testing
77
Strepto enzymes Detects antibody to
streptolysin, streptokinase,
hyaluronidase, DNase, and NADase
78
Sheep red blood cells coated with
streptolysin,
streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase, and
NADase.
79
Non specific test
STREPTOZYME TESTING
80
This gram-negative, microaerophilic spiral bacterium
is the major cause of both gastric and duodenal ulcers.
Helicobacter pylori
81
Helicobacter produce enzyme
Urease
82
If untreated, H. pylori infection will last for
the patient’s life and may lead to
Gastric carcinoma
83
Chronic stage in H. pylori is
Immunoglobulin G
84
Early and acute infection in H. pylori is
Immunoglobulin M
85
Helicobacter pylori Detection
Cultivation, histologically examining
gastric biopsy tissue, performing a urease biopsy test,
urea breath testing,
86
Helicobacter pylori Detection of antibodies
IgG
87
Method of choice in detecting antibody of helicobacter pylori
Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
88
It is more specific and sensitive test for helicobacter pylori
Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
89
remains the most commonly acquired
spirochete disease in the United States.
Syphilis
90
Syphilis infection Also associated with
Borellia and leptospira species
91
The causative agent of syphilis is
Treponema pallidium subsp. Pallidium
92
the agent of yaws
Treponema pallidum subsp. Pertenue
93
the cause of
nonvenereal endemic syphilis
T. pallidum subspecies endemicum
94
Mode of transmission
Congenital infection
95
can also occur during
pregnancy.
Congenital infection
96
Syphilis Easily destroyed by
Heat cold and dry
97
1st stage: Formation of Chancre → develops ________ day after infection AKA “primary Syphilis”
10-90
days
98
1st stage: Formation of Chancre → develops 10-90 days after infection AKA “_________________”
primary Syphilis
99
1st stage of syphilis
Formation of chancre
100
1st stage of syphilis could be seen
Mouth, genital area and lesion
101
1st stage May give positive result to
Direct detection (immunofluorescent assay)
102
2nd stage: Symptoms of the secondary stage include generalized give atleast 2-3
Enlargement lymph nodes
malaise
fever
pharyngitis
rash on the skin and mucous membranes
103
A stage of syphilis that is Systemic dissemination of microorganism and the primary lesion may still be present
2nd stage
104
Patients are noninfectious at this time,
with the exception of pregnant women, who can pass
the disease on to the fetus even if they exhibit no
symptoms.
Latent stage
105
Latent stage also known as
Latent syphilis
106
Stage of syphilis that is Vertical transmission follows the disappearance of
the secondary syphilis, lack of clinical symptoms
Latent stage
107
This stage appears anywhere from
months to years after secondary infection
Third stage
108
3rd stage This stage appears anywhere from
________to _______ (timeline) after secondary infection
months
years
109
3rd stage Typically, this occurs most often between ______ to. _________ years
10 to 30 years
110
Tertiary syphilis has three major manifestations:
Gummas/ Gummatous syphilis
Cardiovascular disease
Neurosyphilis
111
more
severe than chancre, localized area of
granulomatous inflammation often found in
bones, skin or subcutaneous tissue
Gummas
112
it appears anywhere from
months to years after the secondary infection
Tertiary syphilis
113
Traditional laboratory tests for syphilis can be
classified into three main types:
Direct detection of Spirochetes
Nontreponemal serological test
Treponemal Serological Test
114
Fluorescent labeled antibody
Direct and indirect immunofluorescence assay
115
Fluorescent labeled antibody
Direct and indirect immunofluorescence assay
116
which
detect antibody to cardiolipin, have
traditionally been used to screen for syphilis
because of their high sensitivity and ease of
performance
Nontreponemal serological test:
117
Specific type
of precipitation that occurs over a
narrow range of antigen
concentrations.
Flocculation
118
Examples of Non-Treponemal Test:
VDRL, RPR, TRUST, USR, RST
119
Non-Treponemal Test most widely used
VDRL (Venereal disease research laboratory) AND RPR (rapid plasma reagent)
120
Detecting the treponemal antibodies
Treponemal Serological Test
121
Other test for treponemal testing
Fluorescence Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test (FTA-ABS)
122
Is both a qualitative and quantitative slide flocculation
test for serum and spinal fluid.
Venereal disease research laboratory
123
VDRL sample of choice
Serum
124
Serum is the sample of choice
50 ul /0.05 mL
125
How to Inactivated Serum in VDRL
heating serum for 56o C for 30
min.
126
The reagent (antigen) is consist of :
0.03% cardiolipin
0.9% cholesterol
0.21% lecithin
127
The reagent (antigen) is consist of :
0.03% cardiolipin
0.9% cholesterol
0.21% lecithin
128
VDRL antigen via a dropper
Hamilton Syringe
129
diameter ring for VDRL
14 mm
130
For serum VDRL: rpm and mins
180rpm
for 4 minutes
131
For CSF VDRL: rpm and mins
180 rpm
for 8 minutes
132
Tests must be performed at room temperature within
the range of
23C to 29C
133
VRDL two-fold dilutions of serum ranging that initially used
1:2 and 1:32
134
Qualitative Serum VDRL syringe used
HAMILTON SYRINGE
135
Qualitative Serum VDRL: uses a gauge
18 gauge
136
Hamilton syringe Could deliver a drop for atleast
1:60 or 60
137
Hamilton syringe: If the delivery is off by more than (drops)
2 out of 60
138
VDRL Quantitative Serum VDRL: uses a gauge of
19 gauge
139
Quantitative Serum VDRL: It can accommodate a drops for about (19 gauge)
75 drops
140
Quantitative Serum VDRL: other gauge may use
23 gauge
141
Quantitative Serum VDRL: It can accommodate a drops for about (23 gauge)
100 drops per mL
142
CSF VDRL: use gauge
21 or 22 gauge
143
CSF VDRL: Appropriate volume of drops (21 or 22 gauge)
100 drop/mL
144
CSF VDRL: Appropriate volume of drops (21 or 22 gauge)
100 drop/mL
145
Remarks OF FLOCCULATION: reactive
MEDIUM TO LARGE
CLUMPS
146
Remarks of flocculation: WEAKLY REACTIVE
Small clumps of
147
Remarks of flocculation: non reactive
NO CLUMPS OR SLIGHT
ROUGHNESS
148
Modification of VDRL which involves macroscopic
agglutination.
Rapid plasma reagent
149
Rapid plasma reagent containing antigen suspension
Cardiolipin
150
Rapid plasma reagent formation of
Black floccules
151
RPR Specimen is about
50ul or 0.05 ml
152
Reagent that can inactivate the
complement of RPR
Chloride
153
Gauge use for RPR
20
154
Rpr gauge Can accommodate
60 drops/ml
155
diameter ring for RPR
18 mm
156
diameter ring for RPR
18 mm
157
Time and speed RPR:
100rpm 8mins
158
an indirect fluorescent antibody test.
Fluorescence Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test (FTA-ABS)
159
Used to inactivated patient serum
is incubated with a sorbent consisting of an
extract of nonpathogenic treponemes
Heat
160
removes the cross strain activity with
treponemes other than Treponema pallidum
Reiter strain
161
Slides used for this test have the ____________ of T. pallidum fixed to them.
Nichols strain
162
FTA-abs meduim is applied, and coverslips
are placed on the slides.
Mounting medium
163
Type of Agglutination test used for RPR
Passive hemagglutination test
164
short rods, or coccobacilli,
that are obligate, intracellular, gram-negative
bacteria.
Rickettsiae and coxiella
165
is translated via inhalation and
contact through fomites or ingestion of
contaminated milk
Coxiella burnetti
166
Rickettsiae has two distinct group
Spotted Fever group (SFG)
Typhus group (TG)
167
transmitted through a
fleas/lice/mites/tick bite.
Vector Borne Disease
168
SEROLOGICAL DIAGNOSI rickettsia
Weil-felix agglutination test
169
Rickettsia Significant titer is
160
170
More sensitive and specific test of rickettsia
Immunofluorescence assay, immunoperoxidase assay, enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
