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1. Imse > Immune Defense Against Bacterial Infections Lec > Flashcards

Immune Defense Against Bacterial Infections Lec Flashcards

1
Q

are involved in
protecting the body against foreign materials, including
Bacteria.

A

Both innate and adaptive immunity

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2
Q

Innate immunity is also known as

A

Natural immunity

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3
Q

a nonspecific
immunity (naturally occurring) wherein it has a
standardized response to all antigens. It lacks
memory.

A

Innate immunity

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4
Q

Innate immunity Common examples are

A

exogenous and
endogenous materials

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5
Q

Defense mechanism against invading
microorganisms

A

Physical barriers

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6
Q

Physical barriers The portal of entry of the microorganisms are
the

A

Mucus membrane

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7
Q

serves as our physical barriers to that
particular invading microorganism

A

Skin

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8
Q

is the hydrochloric acid
within our stomach that serves as a prevention
of bacterial growth through the digestion
process

A

Endogenous material

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9
Q

Enzyme found in secretions such as tears and
saliva and is capable of destroying bacteria

A

Lysozymes

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10
Q

Other soluble innate components that protects
us from the pathogenic bacteria:

A

interleukines,
Prostaglandins, and Leukotrienes

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11
Q

Acute phase reactants such as

A

C-reactive protein,
haptoglobin, and ceruloplasmin

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12
Q

which either
coat bacteria or remove substances that might
promote bacterial growth

A

C reactive proteins, haptoglobin and ceruplasmin

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13
Q

are mainly involved in the
inflammation.

A

Acute phase reaction

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14
Q

is a polypeptide that acts to APRs.
They are mainly involved in the triggering
factors of the other activities of the cell.

A

Cytokines

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15
Q

process is
enhanced by the activation of the alternative
complement cascade

A

Phagocytosis

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16
Q

is the cell eating cell

A

Phagocytosis

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17
Q

It is triggered by the microbial cell walls or
other products of the microbial metabolism

A

Phagocytosis

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18
Q

are
cellular defense mechanisms that are mainly
involved in the process of Phagocytosis

A

Neutrophil, macrophages and monocytes

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19
Q

Adaptive immunity Also called

A

Specific immunity or acquired immunity

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20
Q

The secondary response is better than the primary
response because it has memory B cells.

A

Adaptive immunity

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21
Q

The mechanism of the adaptive immunity

A

memory of B cell

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22
Q

Defense mechanism against the extracellular bacteria
occurs

A

Adaptive immunity

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23
Q

Against exotoxins
and other secreted bacterial products

A

Antibody production

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24
Q

Activation of Classical pathway

A

Cell lysis

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25
Q

is the formation of membrane attack complex
and the end result is cell lysis

A

MAC

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26
Q

other branch of a specific
immune response and helpful in attacking intracellular
bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
Legionella pneumophila , Listeria monocytogenes and
Rickettsia species

A

Cell mediated immunity

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27
Q

Cell Mediated Immunity other branch of a specific
immune response and helpful in attacking intracellular
bacteria such as

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Legionella pneumophila

Listeria monocytogenes

Rickettsia species

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28
Q

Production of _________ as by product can aid to enhance phagocytosis

A

opsonin’s

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29
Q

Three main mechanisms:
OPPOSING IMMUNE RESPONSE

A
  1. Avoiding antibody
  2. Blocking phagocytosis
  3. Inactivating the complement cascade
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30
Q

Bacteria that can perform this mutation.

A

Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus pyogenes

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31
Q

is capable of graph rejection

A

Major histocompatibility complex

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32
Q

Different microorganisms that can cleave the IgA2:

A

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Haemophilus influenza
c. Streptococcus sanguis

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33
Q

inhibition of several stages in phagocytosis

A

Blocking phagocytosis

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34
Q

is towards the stimulus

A

positive chemotaxis

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35
Q

is away from the stimulus

A

Negative chemotaxis

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36
Q

can inhibit the
release mechanism of chemotactic factors

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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37
Q

M protein. A
group A streptococcus, inhibition of
adhesion

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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38
Q

Encapsulated bacteria

A

Neisseria meningitides
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Yersinia pestis
Haemophilus influenzae
Klebsiella pneumoniae

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39
Q

inhibition of phagolysosome
formation

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium leprae
Salmonella spp.

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40
Q

has Leukocidin that will block the
process of phagocytosis

A

Staphylococcus

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41
Q

Listeria monocytogenes has

A

Listeriolysin O

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42
Q

Streptococcus has

A

Streptolysin

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43
Q

do not bind the
complement component C3b

A

Encapsulated bacteria

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44
Q

important in
enhancing phagocytosis

A

C3b

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45
Q

takes part in the complex form of alternative
classical and elected pathway

A

C3b

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46
Q

are gram-positive spherical, ovoid, or
lancet-shaped organisms that are catalase negative and
are often seen in pairs or chains.

A

Streptococci

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47
Q

Streptococci are divided into groups or
serotypes/serogroup on the basis of certain cell wall
components.

A

Serotype/Serogroup

Group-Specific Carbohydrate

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48
Q

Serve as the virulence factor for the streptococci
through M and T protein

A

Serotype/serogroup

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49
Q

Outermost cell wall components contains two
major proteins known as the M and T protein.

A

Serotype/Serogroup

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50
Q

Interior to the protein layer is the group-specific
carbohydrate that divides streptococci into 20
defined groups, designated A through H and K
through V.

A

Group-Specific Carbohydrate

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51
Q

Group A

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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52
Q

Group B

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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53
Q

Group C

A

Equisimilis
Streptococcus equi
Streptococcus dysagalactiae
Streptococcus zooepidemicus

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54
Q

Group D

A

Streptococcus bovis
Enterococcus faecalis,
Enterococcus faecium,
Enterococcus durans

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55
Q

is one of the most
common and ubiquitous pathogenic bacteria and
causes a variety of infection.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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56
Q

is the major virulence factor of the
group.

A

M protein

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57
Q

responsible
for the rash seen in scarlet fever and also appear
to contribute to pathogenicity.

A

Pyrogenic exotoxins A, B, and C

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58
Q

Production of enzymes also add to its virulence factor.
These includes:

A

Exoenzymes

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59
Q

The most diagnostically important antibodies are the
following:

A

Anti-streptolysin O (ASO), anti-DNase B,
anti-NADase, and anti-hyaluroni dase.

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60
Q

Presence of these antibodies is an indication of Group
A streptococcus infection and is seen in many
conditions/ disease like

A

Scarlet fever
Acute glomerulonephritis
Acute Rheumatic fever
Necrotizing fasciitis
streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

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61
Q

Employs the principle of Passive agglutination.

A

ASO AGGLUTINATION TEST

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62
Q

is the indirect type of the
agglutination

A

Passive agglutination

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63
Q

is accompanied by a carrier particle

A

Antigen

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64
Q

Significant titer: Aso

A

adult: 240 Todd unit or 240 IU/mL
Children: 320 Todd units or 320 IU/mL

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65
Q

Anti-streptolysin O agglutination test Replaced by

A

Nephelometry

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66
Q

Antigen Reagent:

A

Streptolysin

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67
Q

Reacts with patients Anti-Streptolysin

A

Precipitation

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68
Q

indicative of Streptococcal
glomerulonephritis

A

Anti-DNAse

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69
Q

ANTI-DNASE B TESTING May also be detected in

A

Acute rheumatic
fever

70
Q

Normal Titer anti-DNAse B testing

A

children between the ages of 2
and 12 years range from: 240 to 640 units.

71
Q

Presence of DNase is measured by its effect on a DNA
methyl-green conjugate (another reagent).

A

DNAse neutralization

72
Q

Complex color of intact form

73
Q

when hydrolyzed by DNase, the methyl green is reduced and becomes

74
Q

DNAse neutralization test An overnight incubation at temperature

75
Q

The result is reported as the reciprocal of the
highest dilution, demonstrating a polar
intensity of between

76
Q

Can be considered as a screening test and the
principle behind it is the passage agglutination

A

Slide Agglutination Test/ streptoenzyme testing

77
Q

Strepto enzymes Detects antibody to

A

streptolysin, streptokinase,
hyaluronidase, DNase, and NADase

78
Q

Sheep red blood cells coated with

A

streptolysin,
streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase, and
NADase.

79
Q

Non specific test

A

STREPTOZYME TESTING

80
Q

This gram-negative, microaerophilic spiral bacterium
is the major cause of both gastric and duodenal ulcers.

A

Helicobacter pylori

81
Q

Helicobacter produce enzyme

82
Q

If untreated, H. pylori infection will last for
the patient’s life and may lead to

A

Gastric carcinoma

83
Q

Chronic stage in H. pylori is

A

Immunoglobulin G

84
Q

Early and acute infection in H. pylori is

A

Immunoglobulin M

85
Q

Helicobacter pylori Detection

A

Cultivation, histologically examining
gastric biopsy tissue, performing a urease biopsy test,
urea breath testing,

86
Q

Helicobacter pylori Detection of antibodies

87
Q

Method of choice in detecting antibody of helicobacter pylori

A

Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

88
Q

It is more specific and sensitive test for helicobacter pylori

A

Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

89
Q

remains the most commonly acquired
spirochete disease in the United States.

90
Q

Syphilis infection Also associated with

A

Borellia and leptospira species

91
Q

The causative agent of syphilis is

A

Treponema pallidium subsp. Pallidium

92
Q

the agent of yaws

A

Treponema pallidum subsp. Pertenue

93
Q

the cause of
nonvenereal endemic syphilis

A

T. pallidum subspecies endemicum

94
Q

Mode of transmission

A

Congenital infection

95
Q

can also occur during
pregnancy.

A

Congenital infection

96
Q

Syphilis Easily destroyed by

A

Heat cold and dry

97
Q

1st stage: Formation of Chancre → develops ________ day after infection AKA “primary Syphilis”

98
Q

1st stage: Formation of Chancre → develops 10-90 days after infection AKA “_________________”

A

primary Syphilis

99
Q

1st stage of syphilis

A

Formation of chancre

100
Q

1st stage of syphilis could be seen

A

Mouth, genital area and lesion

101
Q

1st stage May give positive result to

A

Direct detection (immunofluorescent assay)

102
Q

2nd stage: Symptoms of the secondary stage include generalized give atleast 2-3

A

Enlargement lymph nodes
malaise
fever
pharyngitis
rash on the skin and mucous membranes

103
Q

A stage of syphilis that is Systemic dissemination of microorganism and the primary lesion may still be present

104
Q

Patients are noninfectious at this time,
with the exception of pregnant women, who can pass
the disease on to the fetus even if they exhibit no
symptoms.

A

Latent stage

105
Q

Latent stage also known as

A

Latent syphilis

106
Q

Stage of syphilis that is Vertical transmission follows the disappearance of
the secondary syphilis, lack of clinical symptoms

A

Latent stage

107
Q

This stage appears anywhere from
months to years after secondary infection

A

Third stage

108
Q

3rd stage This stage appears anywhere from
________to _______ (timeline) after secondary infection

A

months

years

109
Q

3rd stage Typically, this occurs most often between ______ to. _________ years

A

10 to 30 years

110
Q

Tertiary syphilis has three major manifestations:

A

Gummas/ Gummatous syphilis
Cardiovascular disease
Neurosyphilis

111
Q

more
severe than chancre, localized area of
granulomatous inflammation often found in
bones, skin or subcutaneous tissue

112
Q

it appears anywhere from
months to years after the secondary infection

A

Tertiary syphilis

113
Q

Traditional laboratory tests for syphilis can be
classified into three main types:

A

Direct detection of Spirochetes

Nontreponemal serological test

Treponemal Serological Test

114
Q

Fluorescent labeled antibody

A

Direct and indirect immunofluorescence assay

115
Q

Fluorescent labeled antibody

A

Direct and indirect immunofluorescence assay

116
Q

which
detect antibody to cardiolipin, have
traditionally been used to screen for syphilis
because of their high sensitivity and ease of
performance

A

Nontreponemal serological test:

117
Q

Specific type
of precipitation that occurs over a
narrow range of antigen
concentrations.

A

Flocculation

118
Q

Examples of Non-Treponemal Test:

A

VDRL, RPR, TRUST, USR, RST

119
Q

Non-Treponemal Test most widely used

A

VDRL (Venereal disease research laboratory) AND RPR (rapid plasma reagent)

120
Q

Detecting the treponemal antibodies

A

Treponemal Serological Test

121
Q

Other test for treponemal testing

A

Fluorescence Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test (FTA-ABS)

122
Q

Is both a qualitative and quantitative slide flocculation
test for serum and spinal fluid.

A

Venereal disease research laboratory

123
Q

VDRL sample of choice

124
Q

Serum is the sample of choice

A

50 ul /0.05 mL

125
Q

How to Inactivated Serum in VDRL

A

heating serum for 56o C for 30
min.

126
Q

The reagent (antigen) is consist of :

A

0.03% cardiolipin
0.9% cholesterol
0.21% lecithin

127
Q

The reagent (antigen) is consist of :

A

0.03% cardiolipin
0.9% cholesterol
0.21% lecithin

128
Q

VDRL antigen via a dropper

A

Hamilton Syringe

129
Q

diameter ring for VDRL

130
Q

For serum VDRL: rpm and mins

A

180rpm
for 4 minutes

131
Q

For CSF VDRL: rpm and mins

A

180 rpm
for 8 minutes

132
Q

Tests must be performed at room temperature within
the range of

A

23C to 29C

133
Q

VRDL two-fold dilutions of serum ranging that initially used

A

1:2 and 1:32

134
Q

Qualitative Serum VDRL syringe used

A

HAMILTON SYRINGE

135
Q

Qualitative Serum VDRL: uses a gauge

136
Q

Hamilton syringe Could deliver a drop for atleast

A

1:60 or 60

137
Q

Hamilton syringe: If the delivery is off by more than (drops)

A

2 out of 60

138
Q

VDRL Quantitative Serum VDRL: uses a gauge of

139
Q

Quantitative Serum VDRL: It can accommodate a drops for about (19 gauge)

140
Q

Quantitative Serum VDRL: other gauge may use

141
Q

Quantitative Serum VDRL: It can accommodate a drops for about (23 gauge)

A

100 drops per mL

142
Q

CSF VDRL: use gauge

A

21 or 22 gauge

143
Q

CSF VDRL: Appropriate volume of drops (21 or 22 gauge)

A

100 drop/mL

144
Q

CSF VDRL: Appropriate volume of drops (21 or 22 gauge)

A

100 drop/mL

145
Q

Remarks OF FLOCCULATION: reactive

A

MEDIUM TO LARGE
CLUMPS

146
Q

Remarks of flocculation: WEAKLY REACTIVE

A

Small clumps of

147
Q

Remarks of flocculation: non reactive

A

NO CLUMPS OR SLIGHT
ROUGHNESS

148
Q

Modification of VDRL which involves macroscopic
agglutination.

A

Rapid plasma reagent

149
Q

Rapid plasma reagent containing antigen suspension

A

Cardiolipin

150
Q

Rapid plasma reagent formation of

A

Black floccules

151
Q

RPR Specimen is about

A

50ul or 0.05 ml

152
Q

Reagent that can inactivate the
complement of RPR

153
Q

Gauge use for RPR

154
Q

Rpr gauge Can accommodate

A

60 drops/ml

155
Q

diameter ring for RPR

156
Q

diameter ring for RPR

157
Q

Time and speed RPR:

A

100rpm 8mins

158
Q

an indirect fluorescent antibody test.

A

Fluorescence Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test (FTA-ABS)

159
Q

Used to inactivated patient serum
is incubated with a sorbent consisting of an
extract of nonpathogenic treponemes

160
Q

removes the cross strain activity with
treponemes other than Treponema pallidum

A

Reiter strain

161
Q

Slides used for this test have the ____________ of T. pallidum fixed to them.

A

Nichols strain

162
Q

FTA-abs meduim is applied, and coverslips
are placed on the slides.

A

Mounting medium

163
Q

Type of Agglutination test used for RPR

A

Passive hemagglutination test

164
Q

short rods, or coccobacilli,
that are obligate, intracellular, gram-negative
bacteria.

A

Rickettsiae and coxiella

165
Q

is translated via inhalation and
contact through fomites or ingestion of
contaminated milk

A

Coxiella burnetti

166
Q

Rickettsiae has two distinct group

A

Spotted Fever group (SFG)
Typhus group (TG)

167
Q

transmitted through a
fleas/lice/mites/tick bite.

A

Vector Borne Disease

168
Q

SEROLOGICAL DIAGNOSI rickettsia

A

Weil-felix agglutination test

169
Q

Rickettsia Significant titer is

170
Q

More sensitive and specific test of rickettsia

A

Immunofluorescence assay, immunoperoxidase assay, enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

1. Imse (9 decks)

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