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Phase 1 Med (Liv) > IMMS (summary Sheets) > Flashcards

IMMS (summary Sheets) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the structure of DNA?

A
  • Double helix
  • Complimentary base pairs (A - T & G - C)
  • Coils around nucleosomes —> supercoils —> chromosomes
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2
Q

What is a autosome?

A

Any chromosome which isn’t sex determining

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3
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes are there in humans?

A

22 pairs of autosomes & a pair of sex chromosomes

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4
Q

What are the sex chromosomes in males and females?

A

XY - males

XX - female

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5
Q

Define karyotype

A

Number and appearance of chromosomes in a cell

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6
Q

What does each chromosome contain?

A

A continuous DNA duplex of 10^7 base pairs and contains several hundred genes

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7
Q

How many genes does each individual have?

A

30,000

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8
Q

What is the structure of a chromosome?

A

Has a long arm (q) and a short arm (p) separated by a centromere

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9
Q

What is the purpose of mitosis?

A

To produce 2 daughter cells, genetically identical to parent cells

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10
Q

What is mitosis used for?

A

Growth and to replace dead cells

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11
Q

What is the DNA structure called when not in replication?

A

Chromatin

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12
Q

What is the DNA structure called when in replication?

A

Chromosomes

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13
Q

What is the DNA structure called when after replication?

A

Chromatids

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14
Q

What must happen for mitosis to occur?

A

The cell must be in cell cycle - interphase

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15
Q

What is the longest phase of mitosis?

A

Interphase

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16
Q

What happens in G1 of interphase?

A
  • No visible activity
  • Rapid growth
  • Normal metabolic function
  • New organelles produced
  • Protein synthesis of proteins involved in spindle formation
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17
Q

What happens in S (synthesis) of interphase?

A
  • DNA doubles through DNA replication
  • Histone proteins double through protein synthesis (2x as much DNA at end of S)
  • Centrosome replication
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18
Q

What happens in G2 of interphase?

A
  • Chromosomes condense (coil up and become visible)
  • Energy stores accumulate
  • Mitochondria and centrioles double
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19
Q

What happens in prophase in mitosis?

A
  • Chromatin condenses into chromosomes

- Centrosomes nucleate microtubules and move to opposite poles of nucleus

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20
Q

What happens in prometaphase in mitosis?

A
  • Nuclear membrane breaks down
  • Microtubules invade nuclear space
  • Chromatids attach to microtubules
  • Cell no longer has a nucleus
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21
Q

What happens in metaphase in mitosis?

A
  • Chromosomes line up along equatorial plane (metaphase plate)
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22
Q

What happens in anaphase in mitosis?

A
  • Sister chromatids separate, and are push to opposite poles of the cells, centromere first, as spindle fibres contract
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23
Q

What happens in telophase in mitosis?

A
  • Nucelar membrane reforms
  • Chromosomes unfold into chromatin
  • Cytokinesis begins
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24
Q

What happens in cytokinesis in mitosis?

A
  • Cell organelle become evenly distributed around each nucleus
  • Cell divides into two daughter cells with a nucleus in each and 46 chromosomes
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25
Q

Histologically, how can you tell if a cell is undergoing mitosis?

A

If the nucleus is dark and the nuclei are not the same size

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26
Q

When is something defined as malignant?

A

If there are too many mitotic figures e.g. lots of dark nuclei of different sizes

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27
Q

What are mitotic figures used for?

A

Determine how bad cancer is - more there are, the worse it is

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28
Q

What differentiates meiosis from mitosis?

A

Meiosis:

  • Only in gametes
  • Recombination of genetic material results in genetic diversity
  • Two cell divisions
  • 4 haploid (HALF number of chromosomes - 23) cells produced, which are genetically distinct from each other and the parent cell
  • Not a cycle
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29
Q

What happens in meiosis I?

A
  • Chromosome number is halved
  • In prophase I, crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids (genes sort independently thus if 1 gene switches over, doesn’t mean another one will), resulting in genetic diversity
  • In metaphase I, random assortment occurs on the metaphase plate - also resulting in genetic diversity
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30
Q

What happens in meiosis II?

A
  • Sister chromatids separate

- Haploid cells produced

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31
Q

What is the first stage of gametogenesis?

A

The proliferation of primordial (undifferentiated) germ cells (developing gametes) by mitosis

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32
Q

What is the process of gametogenesis in males?

A
  • Primordial germ cells to lots of mitoses to spermatogonia (mature sperm)
  • Some mitosis occurs in embryonic stages to produce primary spermatocytes present at birth
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33
Q

What is the process of gametogenesis in males at puberty?

A
  • Mitosis really begins during puberty and continues throughout life
  • Cytoplasm divides evenly
  • After meiosis 2 - four equal size gametes
  • Millions of mature sperm continually produced
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34
Q

How long does the production of mature sperm take?

A

60-65 days

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35
Q

How many sperm are there per ejaculate?

A

100-200 million

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36
Q

What is the process of gametogenesis in females?

A
  • Primordial germ cell to 30 mitoses to oogonia
  • Oogonia enter prophase I of meiosis 1 by 8th month of in-utero life
  • Process then suspended
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37
Q

What is the process of gametogenesis in females at puberty?

A
  • Cells enter ovulation
  • Cytoplasm divides unequally (1 egg and 3 polar bodies - PB apoptose)
  • Meiosis I is completed at ovulation (there is 1 big cells 1 small cell each with diploid DNA)
  • Then goes on to divide again each (after fertilisation) to form 1 big cell (egg) and 3 small cells (polar bodies)
  • Meiosis 2 is only completed if fertilisation occurs
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38
Q

What is non-disjunction?

A

Failure of chromosome pairs to separate in meiosis I or sister chromatids to separate properly in meiosis II

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39
Q

When does gonadal mosaicism occur?

A

When precursor germline cells to ova or spermatozoa are a mixture of two or more genetically different cell lines

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40
Q

Gonadal mosaicism mainly causes which genetic problems?

A

Autosomal dominant or X-linked

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41
Q

What are the 3 causes of diseases?

A

Genetic, multifactorial and environmental

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42
Q

Give 4 examples of genetic diseases

A
  • Down’s syndrome
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Huntington disease
  • Haemophilia
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43
Q

Give 4 examples of multifactorial diseases

A
  • Spina bifida
  • Cleft lip/palate
  • Diabetes
  • Schizophrenia
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44
Q

Give 4 examples of environemental diseases

A
  • Poor diet
  • Infection
  • Drugs
  • Accidents
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45
Q

Define autosomal

A

Chromosomes 1-22, all chromosomes except the sex chromosomes (X/Y)

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46
Q

Define locus

A

The position of a gene/DNA on the genetic map

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47
Q

Define genotype

A

Genetic constitution of an individual

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48
Q

Define phenotype

A

Appearance of an individual which results from the interaction of the environment and the genotype

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49
Q

Define allele

A

One of several alternative forms of a gene at a specific locus

  • Normal allele is also referred to as wild type
  • Disease allele carries the pathogenic mutation
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50
Q

Define polymorphism

A

Frequent hereditary variations at a locus. Doesn’t cause problems. They make you more/less efficient or more/less susceptible to disease

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51
Q

Define consanguinity

A

Reproductive union between two relatives

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52
Q

Define autozygosity

A

Homozygous by descent e.g. inheritance of the same mutant allele through two branches of the same family

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53
Q

Define homozygous

A

Both alleles are the same at a locus

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54
Q

Define heterozygous

A

Alleles at a locus are different

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55
Q

Define hemizygous

A

Describes genes that are carried on an unpaired chromosomes. Refers to a locus on an X chromosomes in a male

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56
Q

Define penetrance

A

Proportion of people with a gene/genotype who show the expected phenotype

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57
Q

Define complete penetrance

A

Gene or genes for the trait are expressed in all the population

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58
Q

Define incomplete penetrance

A

The genetic trait is only expressed in parts of the population

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59
Q

Define variable expression

A

Variation in clinical features (type and severity) of a genetic disorder between individuals with the same gene alteration

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60
Q

Define sex limitation

A

Expression of a particular characteristic limited to one of the sexes

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61
Q

Define multifactorial condition

A

Diseases due to a combination of genetic and environmental factors. In relation to family: if a male has condition, then female relatives are more at risk and vice versa (if condition is more prevalent in one sex)

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62
Q

Define late-onset

A

Condition not manifested at birth

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63
Q

Define congenital onset

A

Condition manifested at birth

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64
Q

Define autosomal dominant (Mendelian)

A
  • A disease that only manifests in the heterozygous state
  • Affects both males and females in equal proportions
  • Affected individuals in multiple generations
  • Transmission by individuals of both sexes to both sexes
  • Only way to pass disease male to male
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65
Q

Define autosomal recessive (Mendelian)

A
  • A disease that manifests in the homozygous state
  • Two defective genes required
  • Healthy siblings have a 2/3 chance of being carriers
  • Male and females affected in equal proportions
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66
Q

Define X-linked (sex-linked) inheritance (Mendelian)

A

Caused by a mutation in genes on the X-chromosome

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67
Q

Why are X-linked conditions never passed from father to son?

A

Due to sons getting their X-chromosome from their mother

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68
Q

What are the outcomes to offspring of males with an X-linked condition?

A
  • All daughters are carriers
  • All sons are unaffected
  • Males can never be carriers
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69
Q

Define lyonisation

A

The process of X chromosome inactivation

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70
Q

What happens to one of the two X chromosomes in every cell in a female and why?

A
  • It is randomly inactivated early in embryonic development

- To prevent female cells having twice as many gene products compared to males

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71
Q

What happens to the inactive X chromosome in females?

A

Packaged in heterochromatin (can’t be transcprited)

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72
Q

What causes sporadic cancers?

A

2 acquired mutations

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73
Q

What causes hereditary cancers?

A

1 inherited mutation and 1 acquired mutation

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74
Q

What is an ideogram?

A

Diagrammatic form of chromosome bands, bands are numbered according to distance to centromere

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75
Q

What are the classifications of genetic disease?

A
  • Chromosomal
  • Mendelian (autosomal dominant/recessive or X linked)
  • Non-traditional e.g. mitochondrial, imprinting, mosaicism
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76
Q

What does a square mean in a genetic pedigree?

A

Male

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77
Q

What does a circle mean in a genetic pedigree?

A

Female

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78
Q

What does a coloured-in object mean in a genetic pedigree?

A

Affected

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79
Q

What is epithelia?

A

One or more layers of cells that line a body cavity

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80
Q

What are the 3 functions of epithelia?

A

Protection, absorption or secretion

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81
Q

Name 4 supporting tissues of the body

A
  • Cartilage
  • Bones
  • Tendons
  • Blood
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82
Q

What is the function of supporting tissues?

A

Structure and protection

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83
Q

What are the three types of muscle?

A

Smooth, skeletal and heart

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84
Q

What are the 3 broad types of nerves?

A

Brain, peripheral and visceral

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85
Q

What are the two germ cells?

A

Ova and sperm

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86
Q

What does haemtoxylin stain and what colour?

A

Acid things - blue

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87
Q

What colour does eosin stain and what colour?

A

Alkaline things - pink

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88
Q

What colour does haemotoxylin stain cell nuclei and RNA?

A

Blue

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89
Q

What colour does eosin stain cytoplasm and colloidal proteins?

A

Pink

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90
Q

What colour does eosin stain keratin?

A

Orange/red

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91
Q

What colour does eosin stain extracellular fibres (e.g. collagen and elastic)?

A

Pink

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92
Q

What doesn’t stain with H&E?

A

Extra-cellular jelly & fat

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93
Q

What colour does alcian blue stain GAG rich structures?

A

Blue

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94
Q

Where are GAG rich structures found?

A

In all connective tissue and extracellular matrix

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95
Q

What colour does alcian blue stain mucous goblet cells?

A

Blue

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96
Q

What colour does alcian blue stain mast cell granules?

A

Blue

97
Q

What colour does alcian blue stain the cartilage matrix?

A

Blue

98
Q

What colour does iron haemotoxylin stain nuclei and elastic fibres?

A

Black

99
Q

What colour does PAS stain hexose sugars?

A

Magenta

100
Q

What colour does toluidine blue stain nuclei, ribosomes and cytoplasm?

A

Dark blue

101
Q

What colour does toluidine blue stain the cartilage matrix and mast cell granules?

A

Pale blue

102
Q

What colour does toluidine blue stain GAG-rich components?

A

Bright purple

103
Q

What is the structure of the nucleus of the cell?

A
  • Brain of the cell

- Double nuclear membrane

104
Q

Where in the cell houses DNA?

A

The nucleus - in the form of chromatin within the nucleus

105
Q

What is the site of rRNA formation?

A

The nucleolus

106
Q

What is the site of oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Mitochondria

107
Q

What is the structure of the mitochondria?

A
  • Double membrane

- Inner membrane is highly folded

108
Q

What happens in the outer membrane of the mitochondria?

A
  • Lipid synthesis

- Fatty acid metabolism

109
Q

What happens in the inner membrane of the mitochondria?

A

Respiratory chain (electron transport) ATP production

110
Q

What happens in the matrix of the mitochondria?

A

TCA (Krebs’) cycle

111
Q

What happens in the intramembranous space of the mitochondria?

A

Nucelotide phosphorylation (ADP to ATP)

112
Q

What makes RER rough?

A

Due to numerous ribosomes on the surface

113
Q

What is the site of protein synthesis?

A

RER

114
Q

What is the structure of the RER?

A

Highly folded flattened membrane sheets

115
Q

What is the site of membrane lipid synthesis?

A

SER

116
Q

Where in the cell processes and stores synthesised proteins?

A

The SER

117
Q

What is the structure of the SER?

A

Highly folded flattened membrane sheets

118
Q

What is the structure and general function of the Golgi apparatus?

A
  • Parallel stacks of membrane

- Processes and modifies macromolecules synthesised in the ER

119
Q

What is the function of the cis Golgi?

A
  • Receives SER vesicles

- Protein phosphorylation occurs here

120
Q

What is the function of the medial Golgi?

A
  • Modifies products by adding sugars

- Forms complex oligosaccharides by adding sugars to lipids and proteins

121
Q

What is the function of the trans Golgi network?

A
  • Proteolysis of peptides into active forms

- Sorting molecules into vesicles which bud from the surface

122
Q

In which cells can the Golgi apparatus be clearly seen?

A

Plasma cells

123
Q

What are vesicles?

A

Very small, spherical membrane-bound organelles which transport & store material and exchange cell membrane between compartments

124
Q

Name 4 types of vesicles

A
  • Cell-surface derived (pinocytotic & phagocytotic)
  • Golgi-dervied
  • ER-derived
  • Lysosomes & peroxisomes
125
Q

How does the waste-dsiposal system of the lysosomes work?

A
  • H ions are pumped onto membrane
  • Creates a low pH to enable acid hydrolases to function
  • Break down debris from dead cells
126
Q

What are the functions of peroxisomes?

A
  • Involved in the process which fatty acids are broken down

- Used to destroy hydrogen peroxide which is a product of FA breakdown.

127
Q

What is the cytoskeleton and what is its function?

A
  • Filamentous proteins which brace the internal structure of the cell
  • Helps cells maintain their shape and internal organisation
128
Q

Are cytoskeletons visible in light microscopy?

A

No

129
Q

Name the 3 filaments of the cytoskeleton in increasing size

A
  • Microfilaments (5nm)
  • Intermediate filaments (10nm)
  • Microtubules (25nm)
130
Q

Name a microfilament?

A

Actin

131
Q

How does actin work as a microfilament?

A

Forms a bracing mesh on the inner surface of the cell membrane

132
Q

How do intermediate filaments work?

A

Anchored transmembrane proteins which can spread tensile force through tissues

133
Q

Where can cytokeratins be found?

A

Epithelial cells

134
Q

Where can desmin be found

A

Myocytes

135
Q

Where can glial fibrillary acidic protein be found and what is its function?

A
  • Astrocytic glial cells

- Supports neurones in the brain

136
Q

Where can neurofilament protein be found?

A

Neurones

137
Q

Where can nuclear laminin be found?

A

Nuclei of all cells

138
Q

Where can vimentin be found?

A

Mesodermal cells

139
Q

Name a type of microtubule

A

Tubulin

140
Q

Where do microtubules originate from?

A

A centrosome

141
Q

In what cells can microtubules be found in?

A

All cells except from erythrocytes

142
Q

What is lipofuscin?

A
  • Membrane-Bound orange-brown pigment

- Peroxidation of of lipids in older cells

143
Q

Where is lipofuscin common?

A

In the heart and liver (sign of wear and tear)

144
Q

How does lipid appear as a storage product?

A
  • Non-membrane bound vacuoles
145
Q

Where is lipid stored in the body?

A

In adipocytes and liver

146
Q

How does lipid appear histologically?

A

As empty space

147
Q

What is the structure of glycogen as a storage product?

A

CHO polymer in cytoplasm

148
Q

Which elements are the molecular building blocks?

A

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur and phosphate

149
Q

What are macromolecules and what are their functions?

A
  • Simple molecules such as sugars, lipids and amino acids which can form complex large molecules
  • Have osmotic, structural, optical, enzymatic and other complex functions
150
Q

Give 5 examples of macromolecules

A
  • Haemoglobin
  • DNA
  • Glycogen
  • Rhodopsin
  • Collagen
151
Q

What is the general formula of carbohydrates?

A

Cn(H2O)n

152
Q

Give 4 examples of general carbohydrates?

A
  • Monosaccharides
  • Disaccharides
  • Oligosaccharides
  • Polysaccharides
153
Q

What is maltose compromised of?

A

2 x glucose

154
Q

What is sucrose comprised of?

A

Glucose & fructose

155
Q

What is lactose compromised of?

A

Glucose & galactose

156
Q

What is the general structure of a monosaccharide?

A

Chain of carbons, hydroxyl groups and one carbonyl (C=O) group

157
Q

What is an aldose?

A

A monosaccharide with an aldehyde group

158
Q

What is an ketose?

A

A monosaccharide with a ketone group

159
Q

What is a chiral centre?

A

A carbon with 4 different chemical groups

160
Q

What is the difference in D&L monosaccharides?

A

Have the same chemical properties but different biological ones

161
Q

Are most sugars in living organisms in the D or L form?

A

D

162
Q

What is a glycosidic bond?

A

When he hydroxyl group of a monosaccharide can react with an OH or an NH group of another monosaccharide

163
Q

Where are O-glycosidic bonds found?

A

In disaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides

164
Q

Where are N-glycosidic bonds found?

A

In nucleotides and DNA

165
Q

What is an oligosaccharide?

A

Disaccharide joined by a O-glycosidic bond

166
Q

What is a proteoglycan?

A

Long, unbranched polysaccharides radiating from a core protein

167
Q

What is the structure of starch?

A
  • Storage in plants

- Made of amylose (glucose alpha 1,4) and amylopectin (glucose alpha 1,4 & alpha 1,6 glycosidic bonds)

168
Q

What is the structure of glycogen?

A
  • Storage in animals
  • Branched polysaccharide formed of glucose residues
  • Linking is both alpha 1,4 & alpha 1,6
169
Q

What is a triglyceride compromised of?

A

3 fatty acids bound to glycerol

170
Q

What happens to the melting point of a lipid with increased fluidity?

A

Decreases

171
Q

What are the building blocks of DNA?

A

Nucleotides

172
Q

What are nucleotides compromised of?

A

A nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and a phosphate group

173
Q

What are the bonds between bases in-between nucleotides?

A

Hydrogen bonds

174
Q

What are the bonds between phosphate and sugar in nucleotides?

A

Phosphodiester bonds

175
Q

What is the source of energy in nucleotides?

A

The phosphate bonds

176
Q

What are the building blocks of proteins?

A

Amino acids

177
Q

How many amino acids are there?

A

20

178
Q

What are the structures of amino acids?

A

Carbon with amino group, carboxyl group and side chain

179
Q

How is the charge of an amino acid determined?

A

By all three components. Charge changes somewhat with the pH of the solution

180
Q

How is the polarity of the amino acid determined?

A

By the side chain

181
Q

Are the carboxyl groups of amino acids positive or negative?

A

Negative

182
Q

Are the amino groups of amino acids positive or negative?

A

Positive

183
Q

Are amino acids naturally in the D or L form?

A

L

184
Q

How are peptide bonds formed?

A

By condensation reaction (water released) between carboxyl group and amino group

185
Q

How are proteins formed?

A

By linked amino acids which are bonded together by peptide bonds

186
Q

What is the folding of a protein determined by?

A
  • Charged interactions
  • Flexibility
  • Physical dimensions
187
Q

How is the identity of the protein determined?

A

By the sequence of amino acids, folding and structure

188
Q

Are peptide bonds stable?

A

Yes - very

189
Q

How are peptide bonds cleaved?

A

Proteolytic enzymes - proteases or peptidases

190
Q

What is a protein?

A

A large polypeptide, usually form 10s to 1000s of amino acids

191
Q

What is the function of a protein dependent on?

A

Structure

192
Q

What is the primary structure of a protein?

A

A linear sequence of amino acids, held together by covalent bonds

193
Q

What is the secondary structure of a protein?

A

Formation of either alpha helix or beta pleated sheets due to hydrogen bonds between amino acids - determined by the local interactions between the side chains and sequence of amino acids

194
Q

What is a super-secondary structure of a protein?

A

Combination of secondary structures

195
Q

What is the tertiary structure of a protein?

A
  • Overall 3D conformation of a protein
  • Bonding involved is electrostatic, H-bonds and covalent bonds
  • This occurs due to ionic bonds, disulphide bridges or Van Der Waals forces
196
Q

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

A
  • 3D structure of protein composed of multiple subunits
  • Same non-covalent interactions as tertiary structures
  • 2 or more tertiary structure joined together to form a protein
197
Q

What are the 5 forces which hold proteins together?

A
  • Van der Waals forces
  • Hydrogen bonds
  • Hydrophobic forces
  • Ionic bonds
  • Disulphide bonds
198
Q

What is a Van der Waals force?

A

Weak attractive/repulsive force between all atoms due to fluctuating electrical charge

199
Q

What is a hydrogen bond?

A

Interaction between polar groups

200
Q

What is a hydrophobic force?

A

As uncharged and non-polar side chain are repelled by water, these hydrophobic side chains tend to form tightly packed cores in the interior of proteins, excluding water molecules.

201
Q

What is an ionic bond?

A
  • Between fully/partially charged groups

- Weakened in aq systems by water molecules and other ions in solution

202
Q

What are disulphide bonds?

A

Very strong covalent bonds between sulphur atoms

203
Q

Name 6 factors which influence the rate of reaction

A
  • Temperature
  • pH
  • Conc of reactants
  • Catalyst
  • SA of solid reactant
  • Pressure of gaseous reactants/products
204
Q

How can enzymes be used for diagnostic purposes?

A

As they control metabolism they can be used for disease markers

205
Q

What is the primitive function of enzymes?

A

Provide an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy

206
Q

How do enzymes work?

A

Bind the substrates and convert them to products, they then release the products and return to their original form

207
Q

How can enzymes be regulated?

A

By altering the concentration of substrates, products, inhibitors or activators

208
Q

What is a isoenzyme?

A

Enzymes which have a different structure and sequence but catalyse the same reaction

209
Q

What is a coenzyme?

A

They can’t catalyse a reaction themselves, but can help enzymes to do so. They can bind with the enzyme protein molecule to form the active enzyme

210
Q

What are activation-transfer coenzymes?

A

Form a covalent bond and are regenerated at the end of the reaction

211
Q

What are oxidation-reduction coenzymes?

A

Involved in reactions where electrons are transferred from one compound to the other

212
Q

What is haemoglobin and where is it found?

A
  • Found in red blood cells

- Oxygen carrier in blood

213
Q

What is myoglobin and where is it found?

A
  • Serves as a reserve supply of oxygen
  • Facilitates the movement of oxygen in muscles
  • Found in muscles
214
Q

Are myoglobin and haemoglobin the same?

A

They have the same tertiary structure but not quaternary

215
Q

What is at the core of both haemoglobin and myoglobin?

A

The porphyrin ring which holds an iron atom

216
Q

Name 3 broad factors which influence haemoglobin saturation?

A
  • Partial pressure of O2 in blood, as it increases so does haemoglobin saturation
  • Temperature, H+ and partial pressure of CO2
  • Sickle cell anaemia
217
Q

How do temperature, H+ and partial pressure of CO2 influence haemoglobin saturation?

A

All modify the structure of haemoglobin and alter its affinity for O2

218
Q

What is another name for immunoglobulins?

A

Antibodies

219
Q

What is the main function of immunoglobulins?

A

To bind to antigens

220
Q

What are antibodies produced for?

A

To bind to antigens on toxins or proteins

221
Q

Is antibody-antigen binding specific?

A

Yes - one antibody only matches one antigen

222
Q

How are antigens bound to the antibody?

A
  • By the variable domain

- Amino acid in the variable domain can be varied to produce an infinite variety of foreign antigens

223
Q

Where is DNA found?

A
  • The nucleus

- The mitochondria (purely maternal DNA)

224
Q

What is the structure of DNA in prokaryotes?

A

No nuclear membrane, DNA arranged often in single chromosome

225
Q

What is the structure of DNA in eukaryotes?

A
  • DNA is in the nucleus, bound to proteins (chromatin complex)
226
Q

What are the functions of DNA?

A
  • A template and regulator for transcription and protein synthesis
  • DNA is the genetic material thus the structural basis of hereditary and genetic diseases
227
Q

What is the structure of nucleic acids

A
  • The building blocks to make new DNA

- Free phosphate groups provide energy for the reaction to go through

228
Q

How does DNA polymerase read the template strand?

A

From 3’ to 5’ thus DNA is synthesised on the daughter strand from 5’ to 3’ as DNA runs antiparallel

229
Q

What is phosphate at 5’ of DNA used for?

A

A source of energy for the reaction of DNA synthesis to occur

230
Q

Why is DNA replication semi-conservative?

A

Because each resulting DNA double helix retains one strand of the original DNA

231
Q

What are the enzymes and proteins involved in DNA replication?

A
  • Topoisomerase
  • DNA helicase
  • DNA polymerase
  • Primer
  • Single strand binding protein
  • Primase enzyme
  • RNAse H
232
Q

What is the function of topoisomerase?

A

Unwinds the double helix by relieving the supercoils

233
Q

What is the function of DNA helicase?

A

Separates the DNA apart, by breaking hydrogen bonds between bases, exposing nucleotides

234
Q

What is the function of DNA polymerase?

A

Reads 3’ to 5’ and synthesises DNA on daughter strand 5’ to 3’ - creates DNA by working in pairs to make 2 new strands of DNA. Starts at primer.

235
Q

What is the function of a primer?

A

A short strand of DNA that is the start point for DNA synthesis as DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides on to an existing strand of DNA

236
Q

What is a single strand binding protein?

A

Keeps two strands of DNA apart whilst synthesis of new DNA occurs - prevents annealing to form double stranded DNA

237
Q

What is the function of primase?

A

RNA polymerase that synthesises the short RNA primers needed to start the strand replication process

238
Q

What is the function of RNAse H?

A

Removes the RNA primers that previously began the DNA strand synthesis

Phase 1 Med (Liv) (13 decks)

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