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Phase 1 Med (Liv) > GP > Flashcards

GP Flashcards

1
Q

What is a FOBT kit used for?

A

To detect for bowel cancer

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2
Q

What is a colonic polyp?

A

A benign tumour off the colon

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3
Q

What is a suppository?

A

A tablet up the back passage as a treatment

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4
Q

What is a colonoscopy?

A

A camera up the back passage

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5
Q

How does CT scanning work?

A

Using X-rays

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6
Q

What is a metastases?

A

A cancer which has spread

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7
Q

What are haemorrhoids?

A

The blowing up of veins near/in the back passage

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8
Q

What does an MRI scan locate in the body?

A

Water molecules

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9
Q

What percentage of people are affected by bowel cancer?

A

5%

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10
Q

At what age is bowel cancer screening offered?

A

55+

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11
Q

What is bowel scope screening?

A

Screening using a camera on a thin tube

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12
Q

When is bowel scope screening offered?

A

At age 55

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13
Q

What does bowel scope screening look for?

A

Benign polyps

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14
Q

What is the risk of bowel cancer screening?

A

Severe bleeding

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15
Q

How common is a normal result for bowel cancer screening?

A

95%

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16
Q

What is done if a polyp is found to be cancerous?

A

Another colonoscopy and a referral

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17
Q

When is the home screening test provided?

A

Between 60-74 years

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18
Q

How often is the home bowel screening test sent?

A

Every 2 years once past 60

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19
Q

What does the home testing kit for bowel cancer test for?

A

Blood in the faeces

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20
Q

What is required for the bowel cancer home screening?

A

2 samples of faeces on 3 occasions

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21
Q

What is an unclear result on the home testing kit for bowel cancer?

A

A small amount of blood in the sample

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22
Q

What is an abnormal result in the home bowel cancer screening?

A

A fair amount of blood in the sample. The patient will be invited for a colonoscopy

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23
Q

What are the 4 types of bowel cancer?

A

Small bowel, colon (large bowel), rectal (back passage) and anal (bowel opening)

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24
Q

What is a digital rectal examination (DRE)?

A

A finger up the back passage to feel for abnormalities

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25
Q

What is a colonoscopy?

A

A camera up the back passage to examine for abnormalities

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26
Q

What does a 3D colonography do?

A

Produces a 3D image of the large bowel and rectum

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27
Q

What is relapse?

A

The reoccurrence of cancer

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28
Q

Name 5 symptoms of bowel cancer

A
  • Bleeding from back passage/blood in faeces
  • A persistent and unexplained change in bowel habits
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • Extreme tiredness
  • A pain/lump in the abdomen
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29
Q

What does PC stand for?

A

Present complaint

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30
Q

What does HPC stand for?

A

History of presenting complaint

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31
Q

What does PMHx stand for?

A

Past medical history

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32
Q

What does DHx stand for?

A

Drug history

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33
Q

What does FHx stand for?

A

Family history

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34
Q

What does SHx stand for?

A

Social history

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35
Q

What is osteoarthritis due to?

A

Wear and tear

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36
Q

What is a long term condition?

A

Can’t be cured at present but can be controlled by medication and other therapies

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37
Q

Give 5 examples of long term conditions

A
  • Diabetes
  • Heart disease
  • Arthritis
  • Hypertension
  • COPD
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38
Q

How many people are living with a long term condition in England?

A

15 million

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39
Q

Where are long term conditions more prevalent?

A

In the over 60’s and in more deprived groups

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40
Q

What is multimorbidity?

A

The presence of two or more chronic medical conditions in an individual

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41
Q

What are the most common pair of conditions (multi morbidity)?

A

A cardio metabolic condition and osteoarthritis

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42
Q

What is polypharmacy?

A

The concurrent use of multiple medications by a patient (widely regarded as 5 or more)

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43
Q

What are some issues with polypharmacy?

A

Adverse drug interactions, prescription cascades, medication compliance, higher costs

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44
Q

What is the purpose of medication reviews?

A

Improves medication compliance, allows a joint approach between professional and patient

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45
Q

What does SOBOE stand for?

A

Shortness of breath on exertion

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46
Q

What is an underweight BMI?

A

Less than 18.5

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47
Q

What is a healthy BMI?

A

18.5 to 24.9

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48
Q

What is an overweight BMI?

A

25 to 29.9

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49
Q

What is an obese BMI?

A

30 or more

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50
Q

What is the maximum amount of units of alcohol you should consume per week?

A

Around 14 units

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51
Q

What is a coronary angiography?

A

X-ray and dye

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52
Q

What are some conditions which fall under cardiovascular disease?

A

Coronary heart disease, stroke, peripheral arterial disease, aortic disease (aneurysm)

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53
Q

What is a multidisciplinary approach?

A

Drawing multiple team members from multiple disciplines

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54
Q

What are the types of cardiac chest pain?

A

Ischaemic and non-ischaemic

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55
Q

What is the definition of ischaemic?

A

Restriction of blood flow

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56
Q

What is a bypass?

A

Adding a vein from elsewhere around the blockage

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57
Q

What are modifiable risks?

A

Physical activity, smoking, diet, saturated/trans fats, obesity and hypertension

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58
Q

What are some examples of primary prevention?

A

Changing exercise, diet, smoking habits, and lowering BMI into a healthy range

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59
Q

What are some examples of secondary prevention?

A

The use of statins, anti-hypertensive therapies ad controlled blood glucose

60
Q

What are some non-modifiable factors?

A

Family history and being diabetic

61
Q

What are the physiological effects of nicotine?

A

Activation of nicotinic ACh receptors in the brain, causing dopamine release in the NAcc (nucleus accumbens)

62
Q

What are the two different types of smoking cessation?

A

Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) (e.g. patches, gums, nasal spray, microtab, inhaler) and non-nicotine pharmacotherapy (e.g. champix and zyban)

63
Q

What are the stages of the transtheoretical model?

A
  • Pre-contemplation
  • Contemplation
  • Preparation
  • Action
  • Maintenance/relapse
64
Q

What is the patient approach (3 A’s)?

A

Ask, advise, assist

65
Q

What does spirometry do?

A

Measures the rate of air flow and estimates lung capacity

66
Q

What do lung volume tests do?

A

Measure how much air the lungs can hold

67
Q

What do lung diffusion capacity tests do?

A

Assess how well oxygen gets into the blood from the air inspired

68
Q

What does pulse oximetry do?

A

Estimates oxygen levels in the blood

69
Q

What do arterial blood gases do?

A

Directly tests the level of gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood

70
Q

What do fractional exhaled nitric oxide tests do?

A

Measure how much nitric oxide is in the air is exhaled. The patient will initially inhale the nitric oxide

71
Q

Name 3 progressive lung diseases

A
  • Emphysema
  • Chronic bronchitis
  • Refractory asthma
72
Q

What is the aetiology of COPD?

A

Smoking, air pollution, occupational exposure

73
Q

What is the physiology of COPD?

A
  • Increased airway resistance due to decreased elastic recoil
  • Fibrotic changes
  • Luminal obstruction of airways by mucus secretion
74
Q

What are some symptoms of COPD?

A
  • Daily cough and mucus production
  • Shortness of breath
  • Wheezing
  • Chest tightness
  • Frequent respiratory infections
  • Lack of energy
75
Q

What is the management of COPD?

A
  • Dependent of FEV1
  • Corticosteroids
  • Bronchodilators
  • Nebulisers
76
Q

What is self-management?

A

Encouraged by a care plan, shared decision making and patient partnership. Promotes confidence and understanding to patient’s long-term conditions

77
Q

What is patient partnership?

A

Patient collaboration. Encourages patients to be more involved in care and self-management

78
Q

What is a care plan?

A

A document about management aims made by a patient and a professional. Ensures that patient’s needs are regularly reviewed, care is patient centred and encourages self-management

79
Q

What does patient centred mean?

A

Care adapted for an individual patient

80
Q

What is shared decision making?

A

The sharing of ideas on how to manage care. identifies how aware patient is to their conditions and their motivation to manage it. Opportunity to clarify any issues with professional and set goals

81
Q

What is a ‘standard’ blood pressure?

A

140/80

82
Q

What is the health-illness continuem?

A

A common concept of health as a continuous spectrum ranging from optimal wellness at one end to illness cumulating in death at the other end

83
Q

What is the WHO definition of health?

A

A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease

84
Q

What is the definition of physical health?

A

Essential to the complete health of an individual, a state of well-being in which the individual is able to perform daily activities without problems

85
Q

What is social well-being?

A

A person’s ability to establish and maintain healthy relationships, as well as socialise and interact with others

86
Q

What is mental health?

A

A person’s condition with regard to their psychological and emotional well-being

87
Q

What is ill-health?

A

A condition of inferior health in which some disease or impairment of function is present but is usually not as serious in terms of curtailing activity as an illness

88
Q

What is a NHS health check?

A

At age 40-74, every 5 years, designed to spot early signs of stroke, kidney disease, heart disease, type II diabetes or dementia

89
Q

What is the most obvious symptom of dementia?

A

Memory loss

90
Q

Name a less common symptom of dementia

A

Restlessness

91
Q

What is tested in cognitive assessments?

A
  • Short/long term memory
  • Concentration and attention span
  • Language and communication skills
  • Orientation
92
Q

What causes Alzheimer’s?

A

Deposits of amyloid proteins (plaques) and tau proteins which form tangles

93
Q

What happens to neurotransmitters in Alzheimer’s?

A

Decreases

94
Q

What are the levels of acetylcholine like in patients with Alzheimer’s?

A

Low

95
Q

Where in the brain tends to be affected in Alzheimer’s and what happens at this point?

A

This hippocampus, it is responsible for laying down new memories

96
Q

What causes vascular dementia?

A

Reduced blood flow to the brain

97
Q

What happens when there is a reduced blood flow in the brain?

A

Nerve cells are deprived of oxygen and nutrients, so a decline in function and death

98
Q

What can cause a reduced blood flow in the brain?

A
  • Small vessel disease
  • Stroke
  • TIAs
99
Q

What are Lewy bodies?

A

Small clumps of alpha-synuclein protein that can develop inside brain cells

100
Q

What do Lewy bodies do?

A

Damage the way cells work and communicate with each other in the brain

101
Q

What causes frontotemporal dementia?

A

Abnormal clumping of proteins in the frontal and temporal lobes in the brain. This damages nerve cells, causing brain cells to die

102
Q

What is the mental capacity act?

A

Protects and empower people who may lack the metal capacity to make their own decisions about their care and treatment

103
Q

What is the 2 stage test of the MCA?

A
  • Does the person have an impairment of their brain/mind?

- Does this mean they are unable to make a specific decision when needed?

104
Q

What is power of attorney?

A

A legal document which allows someone to make decisions for you, or act on your behalf, if you no longer can or don’t want to

105
Q

What is the most common symptom of dementia?

A

Memory loss

106
Q

What are the point of cognitive assessments?

A

They may show whether there is memory difficulty

107
Q

What do cognitive assessments test?

A

Short & long term memory, concentration & attention span, language & communication skill and orientation

108
Q

What is aetiology?

A

Cause or set of causes for a disease or condition

109
Q

What happens to the amount of neurotransmitters in patients with Alzheimer’s?

A
  • Decrease in neurotransmitters travelling between brain cells
  • Levels of acetylcholine are low
110
Q

What is Epidemiology?

A

Study of how often diseases occur in different groups of people

111
Q

Give 8 ways to prevent cerebrovascular disease

A
  • Beta blockers
  • Lifestyle factors
  • Aspirin
  • Carotid enterectomy
  • Lipid management
  • Stents
  • Anticoagulants
  • Antithrombotic treatment
112
Q

What kind of prevention are beta blockers?

A

Primary

113
Q

What kind of prevention is lifestyle factors?

A

Primary and secondary

114
Q

What kind of prevention is aspirin in cerebrovascular disease?

A

Primary and secondary

115
Q

What kind of prevention is a carotid enterectomy?

A

Secondary

116
Q

What kind of prevention is lipid management?

A

Primary

117
Q

What kind of prevention is a stent?

A

Secondary

118
Q

What kind of prevention is anticoagulants?

A

Primary and secondary

119
Q

What kind of prevention is antithrombotic treatment?

A

Secondary

120
Q

What is the most common type of cerebral disease?

A

Stroke

121
Q

In what demographics are strokes most common?

A
  • Males
  • Over 65
  • FHx of stroke
122
Q

Give 6 factors which increase the risk of cerebrovascular disease

A
  • Hypertension
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Poor diet/lack of exercise
  • Diabetes
  • High blood cholesterol
123
Q

What does atherosclerosis do in blood vessels?

A

Causes blockages

124
Q

Name 7 signs of a stroke

A
  • Hemiplegia
  • Hemiparesis
  • Confusion
  • Difficulty communicating
  • Loss of half of vision
  • Loss of balance
  • Loss of consciousness
125
Q

What is cerebrovascular attack?

A

TIA/stroke

126
Q

What is a cerebrovascular disease?

A

Narrowing of arteries

127
Q

What does the ABCD2 score assess?

A

Risk of a stroke within the next 7 days

128
Q

What does the Glasgow coma scale assess?

A

Level of consciousness

129
Q

What is the most common form of eczema?

A

Atopic eczema

130
Q

What does atopic eczema cause?

A

Skin becomes itchy, red, dry and cracked

131
Q

In what age group is atopic eczema more prevalent?

A

Children

132
Q

What kind of condition is atopic eczema?

A

Chronic condition

133
Q

What are the two main treatment options for atopic eczema?

A
  • Emollients (use as much as required)

- Topical corticosteroids (only use in regulated amounts)

134
Q

Name 5 triggers for atopic eczema

A
  • Irritants
  • Environmental factors
  • Food allergies
  • Certain materials
  • Hormonal changes
135
Q

Why should soft cheese and pates be avoided in pregnancy?

A

To avoid listeria bacterial growth risk

136
Q

Why should partially cooked eggs be avoided in pregnancy?

A

To avoid salmonella risk

137
Q

Why should liver be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Too much vitamin A

138
Q

Why should some fish be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Too much mercury

139
Q

What supplements should be used in pregnancy?

A

10mg vitamin D and 400mg folic acid

140
Q

What is aminocentesis?

A

A test offered to pregnant women as a diagnostic test for downs. Tissue sample is taken from uterus fluid surrounding the baby

141
Q

What is chorionic villus sampling?

A

A test where a needle is used to take a tissue sample from the placenta. This is a diagnostic test that can be done at 11-14 weeks

142
Q

What is chronic kidney disease?

A

A long term condition where the kidneys don’t work effectively as they should

143
Q

What is EGFR?

A

Estimated glomerular filtration rate.

144
Q

What is the EGFR altered by?

A
  • Age
  • Body mass
  • Ethnicity
  • Gender
145
Q

What is looked at in a U&E blood test?

A
  • Urea (created by liver - break down of proteins)
  • Sodium ions (extracellular - should be high)
  • Potassium ions (intracellular - should be low)
  • Creatine (muscles - cleared by kidneys)
146
Q

Give two examples of NSAIDs?

A

Ibuprofen and aspirin

Phase 1 Med (Liv) (13 decks)

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