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Phase 1 Med (Liv) > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

How can the skeleton be split?

A

Into the axial component and the appendicular component

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2
Q

What does the axial component of the skeleton consist of?

A

Skull, spine and thorax

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3
Q

What does the appendicular component of the skeleton consist of?

A

The upper and lower limbs

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4
Q

What is the anatomical position?

A
  • Standing erect with feet flat
  • Straight back with eyes and head forward
  • Arms by the side with forearms and hands facing forwards
  • Eyes focused at infinity
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5
Q

Where is the coronal plane?

A

The vertical plane which divides the body into ‘belly and back’

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6
Q

Where is the Sagittal plane?

A

It divides the body into left and right

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7
Q

Where is the axial plane?

A

It gives a view as if you are looking up from the feet

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8
Q

Define superior

A

Above

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9
Q

Define inferior

A

Below

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10
Q

Define lateral

A

Further from the sagittal plane

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11
Q

Define medial

A

Closer to the sagittal plane

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12
Q

Define superficial

A

Closer to the surface

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13
Q

Define deep

A

Further from the surface

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14
Q

Define anterior

A

Closer to the front of the body

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15
Q

Define posterior

A

Closer to the back of the body

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16
Q

Define proximal

A

Closer to the starting point

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17
Q

Define distal

A

Further from the starting point

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18
Q

Define ipsilateral

A

Same side of the body

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19
Q

Define contralateral

A

Opposite side of the body

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20
Q

Define supine

A

Variation of the anatomical position where the person is flat on their back

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21
Q

Define prone

A

Variation of the anatomical position where the person is lying face down

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22
Q

What are the three types of joints?

A

Fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial

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23
Q

What are some properties of synovial joints?

A
  • Allow free movement between the bones they join

- Majority of limbs are synovial

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24
Q

What is the structure of fibrous joints?

A
  • Bone —> fibrous tissue —> bone
  • Bones in fibrous joints are united by fibrous tissue
  • There is no joint cavity
  • The amount of movement depends on the length of the fibres
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25
Q

What are the two types of cartilaginous joints and what are their features?

A
  • The bones in a cartilaginous joint are united by cartilage
  • In primary structure, there is some flexibility
  • In secondary structures, there is some strength provided by fibrocartilage
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26
Q

What is the structure of primary cartilaginous joints?

A

Bone —> hyaline cartilage —> bone

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27
Q

What is the structure of secondary cartilaginous joints?

A

Bone —> hyaline cartilage —> fibro-cartilage —> hyaline cartilage —> bone

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28
Q

What does the knee joint consist of?

A

A synovial hinge joint with articulation between the lateral and medial condyles of the distal femur, the lateral and medial condyles of the tibia and the patella

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29
Q

What does the meniscus of the knee do and what is it made of?

A
  • For protection

- Made from fibrocartilage

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30
Q

Where does hyaline cartilage cover in the knee and what does it allow?

A

Articulating surfaces and allows smooth movements

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31
Q

What do the collateral ligaments do?

A

Stabilise the femur and tibia in the coronal plane

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32
Q

What will a lateral force to the knee do?

A

Strain or tear the medial (tibial) collateral ligament

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33
Q

What will a medial force to the knee do?

A

Strain or tear the lateral (fibular) collateral ligament

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34
Q

What does the ACL and PCL do?

A

Prevent excessive movements in the sagittal plane

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35
Q

What does the ACL join?

A

Attaches posterior part of the lateral condyle of the femur and the anterior part of the tibial plateau

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36
Q

What does the ACL prevent?

A

Excessive forward movements of the tibia in relation to the femur

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37
Q

What does the PCL join?

A

Attaches the posterior tibial plateau and the anterior part of the medial condyle of the femur

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38
Q

What does the PCL prevent?

A

Excessive movement of the femur anteriorly in relation to the tibia

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39
Q

How can you injure the ACL?

A

Excessive twisting or anterior movement of the tibia when fully weight bearing

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40
Q

How can you injure the PCL?

A

Excessive forward movement of the femur on the tibia (usually when flexed)

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41
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle?

A

Skeletal, smooth and cardiac

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42
Q

What is the structure of smooth muscles, where is it present and is it voluntary?

A
  • Narrow, tapered rod-shaped cells
  • Has non-striated, uninucleated fibres
  • Occurs in walls of internal organs and blood vessels
  • Involuntary control
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43
Q

What is the structure of cardiac muscles, where is it present and is it voluntary?

A
  • Striated, tubular, branched uninucleated fibres
  • Occurs in walls of the heart
  • Involuntary control
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44
Q

What is the structure of skeletal muscles, where is it present and is it voluntary?

A
  • Striated, tubular, multinucleated fibres
  • Usually attaches to skeleton
  • Voluntary
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45
Q

Where is cardiac muscle present?

A

The heart

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46
Q

Where is smooth muscle present, what is it controlled by and what does it contribute to?

A
  • Hollow organs and blood vessels
  • Controlled by the autonomic nervous system
  • Linked with involuntary bodily functions e.g. BP, digestion and micturition
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47
Q

What is micturition?

A

Control of the bladder

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48
Q

What is the function of skeletal muscle?

A

To move the skeleton. It is under voluntary control

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49
Q

How is the skeletal muscle joined to skeleton?

A

By two or more attachments to the bony skeleton, usually with at least one joint between the attachments

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50
Q

What happens when skeletal muscles contract?

A

Brings the two attachments (to the skeleton) closer and causes a movement

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51
Q

What is an attachment with less movement in skeletal muscle?

A

Origin. The other side is insertion

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52
Q

Is there always an intervening tendon between the muscle and bone?

A

Yes

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53
Q

Why might long tendons be present in the body?

A

To ensure muscle doesn’t crowd certain areas of the body e.g. the muscle in the lower arm for the hands

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54
Q

What are the 8 muscle structures?

A

Convergent, circular, multipennate, parallel, fusiform, unipennate, bipennate

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55
Q

Name an example of a convergent muscle

A

Pectoralis major

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56
Q

Name an example of a circular muscle

A

Orbicularis oris

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57
Q

Name an example of a multipennate muscle

A

Deltoid

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58
Q

Name an example of a parallel muscle

A

Sartorius

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59
Q

Name an example of a fusiform muscle

A

Biceps branchii

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60
Q

Name an example of a unipennate muscle

A

Extensor digitorum longus

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61
Q

Name an example of a bipennate muscle

A

Rectus femoris

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62
Q

Where may dendrites originate?

A

The spinal cord

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63
Q

How many muscle fibres are supplied when fine control is needed?

A

One or two

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64
Q

How many muscle fibres are supplied when fine control isn’t needed?

A

Thousands

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65
Q

Define synergistic

A

Act together

66
Q

Define antagonistic

A

Act against each other

67
Q

Define flexion

A

When a joint becomes more bent. In the back, this is forwards

68
Q

Define extension

A

When a joint becomes less bent. In the back, this is backwards

69
Q

Define rotation

A

Where the angle of two bones doesn’t change but the axis of one of the bones rotates relative to the other e.g. turning of the head to look sideways

70
Q

Define abduction

A

Movement away from the midline

71
Q

Define adduction

A

Movement towards the midline

72
Q

Define lateral flexion

A

When the upper body bends to the side. This also happens in the neck

73
Q

Define pronation

A

When the palm of the hand faces posteriorly (downwards)

74
Q

Define supination

A

When the palm of the hand faces anteriorly (upwards)

75
Q

Define protraction

A

To move forwards

76
Q

Define retraction

A

To move backwards

77
Q

Define opposition

A

When the thumb and little finger meet

78
Q

Define inversion

A

The sole of the foot faces onwards towards the other foot

79
Q

Define eversion

A

The sole of the foot faces outwards

80
Q

Do the upper and lower limbs develop the same way embryologically?

A

Yes. They have similar arrangements of blood vessels, muscles and bones

81
Q

What is the general anatomical structure of the lower and upper limbs?

A
  • 1 large bone proximally
  • 2 parallel bones distally
  • Reduction in bone size as you go distally with an increase on bone number
82
Q

What are the components of the hindbrain?

A
  • Medulla oblongata
  • Pons
  • Cerebellum
83
Q

What are the parts of the midbrain?

A
  • Tectum

- Cerebral peduncle

84
Q

What are the divisions of the forebrain?

A
  • Diencephalon

- Telencephalon

85
Q

What are the components of the diencephalon?

A
  • Thalamus

- Hypothalamus

86
Q

What are the components of the telencephalon?

A
  • Cerebral cortex

- Basal ganglia

87
Q

Define rostral

A

Towards the front (the beak)

88
Q

Define caudal

A

Towards the tail

89
Q

What is the white matter compromised of?

A

Collections of nerve fibres (axons and dendrites) with few or no neuronal cell bodies

90
Q

What is the grey matter of the CNS compromised of?

A

Aggregations of neuronal cell bodies and their local processes

91
Q

What is the neuropil?

A

Dense network of nerve fibres, branches and synapses

92
Q

What are nuclei/ganglia?

A

Collections of nerve cells within the brain

93
Q

What is the cortex?

A

The outer surface of the brain, which is formed by flatter sheets of neurones

94
Q

Briefly describe the structure of the dura

A
  • Latticed appearance

- Cranially, has an outer endosteal layer and a inner meningeal layer

95
Q

Briefly describe the structure of arachnoid matter

A
  • A loose connective tissue consisting of collagen, elastin and reticulin
  • Poor vasculation
  • Tight junctions
96
Q

Briefly describe the structure of the pia matter

A
  • Pial cells lay on the CNS. This is formed by astrocytes and their basement membrane
  • There is a connective tissue part of the pia
97
Q

Where is CSF present?

A

The subarachnoid space

98
Q

What does the central sulcus separate?

A

The frontal and parietal lobes

99
Q

What does the lateral sulcus separate?

A

The temporal from the parietal and frontal lobes

100
Q

What is the insula?

A

Forms the floor of the lateral sulcus

101
Q

What is the opercula?

A

The parts of the temporal, frontal and parietal lobes that overlie the insula

102
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

A large bundle of white matter connecting the two hemispheres

103
Q

Where are the olfactory tracts located?

A

On the inferior surface of the frontal lobes

104
Q

Where are the optic nerves?

A

Passing backwards and medially, converging in the midline to form the optic chiasma, then backwards and laterally two form the optic tracts

105
Q

Where are the mammillary bodies found?

A

Behind the optic chiasma

106
Q

Where is the hypothalamus?

A

Behind the optic chiasma up to and including the mammillary bodies

107
Q

What is the only part of the diencephalon visible on the outside of the brain?

A

Hypothalamus

108
Q

What are the crura cerebri?

A

Two large masses of white matter emerging behind the mammillary bodies on each side

109
Q

What is the interpenduncular fossa?

A

Space between the crura roofed over by arachnoid

110
Q

Where is the pons?

A

Behind where the crura meet in the midline

111
Q

Where is the cerebellum?

A

Two lobes, one either side of the medulla and a central vermis joining the two hemispheres

112
Q

Where is the medulla oblongata?

A

Runs from the caudal border of the pons to the spinal cord

113
Q

What is the function of the left parietal lobe?

A
  • Perception
  • Interpretation of sensory information
  • Meaningful motor response
114
Q

What is the function of the right parietal lobe?

A

Visuospatial functions

115
Q

What are some of the functions of the frontal lobe?

A
  • Motor function
  • Problem solving
  • Memory
  • Language
116
Q

Where is Broca’s area and what is it’s function?

A
  • Found in the inferior frontal Gyrus

- Important for language production and comprehension

117
Q

What are some of the contents of the temporal lobe?

A
  • Primary auditory cortex
  • Hippocampus
  • Amygdala
  • Wernicke’s area
118
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area and what is it’s function?

A
  • Located in the superior temporal Gyrus of the left hemisphere
  • Concerned with understanding spoken word
119
Q

What are some of the functions of the temporal lobe?

A
  • Short term memory
  • Equilibrium
  • Emotion
120
Q

What is the location and function of the occipital lobe?

A
  • Located at the posterior aspect of the brain

- Contains the primary visual and visual association cortex

121
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A
  • Emotions
  • Memories
  • Arousal
122
Q

Name 2 systems what the limbic systems influences

A
  • Endocrine system

- Autonomic nervous system

123
Q

What are the components of the limbic system?

A

The hippocampus, fornix and amygdala

124
Q

What are the two layers of the dura?

A

The outer endosteal layer and the inner meningeal layer

125
Q

Where does the outer endosteal layer line?

A
  • The interior of the skull

- Adheres to and sends blood vessels and fibrous processes into the cranial bones

126
Q

Where does the inner meningeal layer line?

A

Envelopes the CNS

127
Q

What is the falx cerebri?

A

A small sickle-shaped reflection of the dura separating the two lobes of the cerebellum

128
Q

What is the superior sagittal sinus?

A

Where the falx cerebri attaches to the cranium

129
Q

Where is the inferior sagittal sinus?

A

At the free border of the falx cerebri

130
Q

What are the subarachnoid cisterns?

A

Spaces caused by openings in subarachnoid space

131
Q

What are the features of the blood- brain barrier which makes it protective?

A
  • Edges of adjacent endothelial cells are bonded by tight junctions
  • Basement membrane of CNS blood vessels lack fenestrations
  • Pericytes which regulate blood flow, immunity and vascular permeability
  • Astrocytes for control of blood-brain barrier & axon guidance/support
132
Q

Where do arteries and veins lie in the brain?

A

Within the subarachnoid

133
Q

What are the components of the blood-brain barrier?

A
  • Endothelial cells of the capillaries
  • Basement membrane (formed of true basement membrane and the pia)
  • The astrocytic end-feet themselves
134
Q

How does arterial blood arrive at the brain?

A

By the internal carotid (20%) and the vertebral arteries (80%)

135
Q

Where does the internal carotid artery arise?

A

At the division of the common carotid artery

136
Q

What does the internal carotid artery divide into?

A

It’s terminal branches, the anterior and middle cerebral arteries

137
Q

What is the function of the anterior communicating artery?

A

Connects the anterior cerebral arteries and gives anterior perforating branches

138
Q

What is the function of the posterior communicating artery?

A

Connects the internal carotid and vertebra-basilar systems via the posterior cerebral artery

139
Q

Where does the anterior cerebral artery supply?

A

The top strip of the brain

140
Q

Where does the middle cerebral arteries supply?

A

Around the sides of the brain

141
Q

Where does the posterior cerebral artery supply?

A

The bottom of the brain

142
Q

Which artery goes through the carotid canal in the skull?

A

The internal carotid artery

143
Q

Which vein goes through the jugular foramen in the brain?

A

The internal jugular vein

144
Q

Which arteries come through the foramen magnum in the brain?

A

Vertebral arteries

145
Q

What is anastomosis?

A

A connection made between 2 channels of the body

146
Q

How does venous blood drain in the brain?

A
  • Drain into Dural venous sinuses

- Then back into the heart

147
Q

Where are the Dural venous sinuses formed?

A

Between the two layers of dura matter

148
Q

Where do internal cerebral arteries run?

A

Within the substance of the brain tissue and end when they reach the surface of the brain where they become external cerebral veins

149
Q

Where do external cerebral veins run?

A

On the surface of the brain, crossing the subarachnoid space to drain into the Dural venous sinuses

150
Q

What is the difference between Dural venous sinuses and veins?

A

Dural venous sinuses have no valves & no adventitia/media

151
Q

What is the function of internal jugular veins?

A

Collects blood from the brain & superficial parts of the face/neck

152
Q

What is the function of the tentorium cerebelli?

A

Divides the cerebellum and inferior part of occipital lobes

153
Q

What are the 5 cranial nerves and the artery which runs through the cavernous sinus?

A
  • Oculomotor nerve
  • Trochlear nerve
  • Abducens nerve
  • Ophthalmic nerve
  • Maxillary nerve
  • Internal carotid artery
154
Q

What is the significance of emissary veins?

A

They are a possible route for infection and inflammation

155
Q

What is the function of arachnoid granulations?

A

Allow CSF to flow into the venous system

156
Q

What is a choroid plexus?

A

A group of cells which produce CSF

157
Q

What are ventricles in the brain?

A

The central space from within the hollow neural tube

158
Q

How is close control over the volume and composition of the CSF done?

A

Tight junctions in the ventricles prevent fluid passage

159
Q

What is ependyma?

A

A thin membrane of glial cells lining ventricles of the brain

160
Q

Is the pre-central Gyrus motor or sensory?

A

Motor

161
Q

Is the post-central Gyrus motor or sensory?

A

Sensory

Phase 1 Med (Liv) (13 decks)

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