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Phase 1 Med (Liv) > End of Module Formatives > Flashcards

End of Module Formatives Flashcards

1
Q

Give 3 features of skeletal muscle

A
  • Striated cytoplasm
  • Myofibrils being in register
  • Nuclei which are present against the cell membrane
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2
Q

Give 3 features of cardiac muscle

A
  • Striated
  • Compromises of branched fibres
  • Central nuclei
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3
Q

What does the myometrium compromise of?

A
  • Smooth muscle
  • Lacks striatum
  • Central nuclei
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4
Q

Name 4 things which the cell membrane contains

A
  • Cholesterol
  • Glycolipids
  • Lipoproteins
  • Phospholipids
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5
Q

What enzymes catalyses the reversible reaction between 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate and what pathway is it part of?

A

Phophoglycerate kinase & aerobic glycolysis pathway

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6
Q

Name 4 enzymes which are involved aerobic or anaerobic glycolysis

A
  • Aldolase
  • Hexokinase
  • Phosphoglucose isomerase
  • Triose phosphate isomerase
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7
Q

How many calories are there in a unit of alcohol?

A

56

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8
Q

Name one factor which will lower the basal metabolic rate

A

Dieting

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9
Q

Define basal metabolic rate

A

The amount of energy needed at rest to stay alive

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10
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place?

A

Mitochondrial matrix

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11
Q

What does ATP synthase do?

A

Transports protons into the mitochondrial matrix

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12
Q

What does cytochrome C oxidase complex do?

A

Transports protons out of the mitochondrial matrix

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13
Q

Where does the energy to phosphorylate ADP come from?

A

Protons

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14
Q

What are 5 features of steroid hormones?

A
  • Lipid soluble
  • No storage pool
  • Synthesized from cholesterol
  • Transported in plasma, bound to carrier proteins
  • Bind to intracellular receptors
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15
Q

What are amino acid hormones synthesised from?

A

Tyrosine

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16
Q

Where do peptide hormones bind?

A

To plasma membrane receptors

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17
Q

When does implantation of an embryo occur?

A

When the blastocyst penetrates the endometrial stroma. This occurs 7-8 days after fertilisation

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18
Q

What do epiblasts later become?

A

Ectoderm

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19
Q

What do paraxial mesoderm cells form?

A

Somites

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20
Q

Where is the circulation formed?

A

Lateral plate mesodermal cells (specifically from the splanchnic layer)

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21
Q

How much water does the body roughly contain?

A

42 litres

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22
Q

How does glucose cross the cell membrane?

A

By facilitated diffusion

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23
Q

How does cholesterol enter the cells?

A

By receptor-mediated endocytosis

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24
Q

How does ethanol and oxygen enter cells?

A

By passive diffusion

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25
Q

How do potassium ions enter cells?

A

By active transport

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26
Q

What is anticipation (genetically)?

A

Seen in diseases characterised by trinulceotide repeat disorders, the condition worsens in successive generations

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27
Q

What is gonadal mosaicism?

A

A condition where a mutation is present in some gamete but not in others. The mutation may be absent from somatic cells (pure gonadal mosaicism)

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28
Q

What is haploinsufficiency?

A

Where a diploid organism has only a single functional copy of a gene. This gene doesn’t produce enough gene product, hence resulting in disease

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29
Q

What is penetrated (genetically)?

A

An index of the proportion of individuals with a gene mutation who show it

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30
Q

What is variable expression?

A

Where some affected have severe effects while others are only trivially affected

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31
Q

What does PICO stand for?

A

P - patient/problem/population
I - intervention
C - control/comparison/comparator
O - outcomes

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32
Q

Which arteries is the heart supplied by?

A

The left and right coronary arteries

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33
Q

When does blood flow to the myocardium occur?

A

During diastole

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34
Q

What does the left coronary artery divide into?

A

The left anterior descending (LAD) and circumflex arteries

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35
Q

Why is oxygen saturation low in coronary venous blood?

A

Due to oxygen extraction by the heart muscle being high

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36
Q

Where does the right coronary artery supply?

A

The interior surface of the heart

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37
Q

Name two things which the liver is responsible for making

A
  • Coagulation factors

- Fibrinogen

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38
Q

What is plasminogen?

A

The precursor for plasmin.

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39
Q

What is the function of plasmin?

A

To lyse clots

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40
Q

What is the coagulation cascade?

A

A series of proteolytic enzymes that circulate in plasma, in an inactive form and generate thrombin when active

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41
Q

What does thrombin do?

A

Cleaves fibrinogen to create fibrin

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42
Q

What are platelet dense granules and when are they released?

A
  • Released upon cell activation

- Contain a high concentration of a molecule which acts as a agonist at the platelet P2Y12 receptor

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43
Q

What does the mitral valve do?

A

Prevents the back flow of blood into the left atrium during ventricular systole

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44
Q

What beat is the left ventricle responsible for?

A

The apex beat, normal palpated in the left 5th intercostal space and midclavicular line

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45
Q

What does the pulmonary vein do?

A

Carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left side of the heart

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46
Q

What does the aortic valve do?

A

Maintains the systemic diastolic blood pressure by preventing the back flow of blood into the heart during diastole

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47
Q

What does the inferior vena cava do?

A

Carries oxygenated blood back to the right atrium

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48
Q

What does a T wave represent?

A

Ventricular repolarisation

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49
Q

What is the normal duration for a PR interval?

A

0.12 - 0.2 seconds

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50
Q

Which leads assess the electrical activity within the lateral myocardial territory in a ECG?

A

I, aVL, V5 & V6

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51
Q

What is significant about the aVR lead?

A

Yields complexes that are normally inverted compared to anterior and inferior leads

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52
Q

Which segment of an ECG may normally be elevated during acute injury/infarction of a substantial myocardial territory?

A

The ST segment

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53
Q

What does the P wave represent?

A

Atrial depolarisation

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54
Q

What does the QRS complex represent?

A

Ventricular depolarisation

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55
Q

How long should the QRS complex be?

A

Less than 120 msecs

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56
Q

Which chemoreceptors sense PaCO2 levels?

A

All of them

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57
Q

What centres are important in the control of a human breathing?

A

Centres in both the pons and medulla oblongata

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58
Q

What nerve innervates the larynx’s main motor function?

A

The recurrent laryngeal nerve

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59
Q

Where should you go when considering an emergency chest drain?

A

The second intercostal space (below the second rib)

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60
Q

What is significant about the right main bronchus?

A

It’s more vertically disposed

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61
Q

How thick is the membrane for the alveolus and haemoglobin for gas exchange?

A

1 micron

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62
Q

What does the diaphragm do during inspiration?

A

Contracts and descends

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63
Q

What is the physiological dead space?

A

The volume of air in the trachea that doesn’t contribute to gas exchange plus the volume of air in the alveoli that doesn’t contribute to gas exchange

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64
Q

What does hypoxia in the lungs cause?

A

Vasoconstriction

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65
Q

What does arterial PaCO2 depend on?

A

A constant, the production of carbon dioxide and alveolar ventilation

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66
Q

What is the oxygen/haemoglobin dissociation curve influenced by?

A

By changing affinity for sequential oxygen molecule binding

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67
Q

What initially happens in respiratory acidosis?

A

PaCO2 rises

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68
Q

Define FEV1

A

The volume of air expelled after one second of forced expiration

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69
Q

What is a method to measure gas exchange into the alveolar capillary?

A

The carbon monoxide signal breath transfer factor

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70
Q

What happens to the pressure of inspired oxygen at ascent?

A

It falls

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71
Q

What are some of the features of pulmonary oxygen toxicity (Lorraine Smith effect)?

A
  • Shortness of breath
  • Cough
  • Chest tightness
  • Substernal pain
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72
Q

Name 4 of the structures on the transpyloric plane

A
  • Gallbladder
  • Pancreas
  • Pylorus of stomach
  • Duodenum
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73
Q

Where is McBurney’s point located?

A

1/3 of the distance from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

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74
Q

In which abdominal section is the gallbladder located?

A

Right hypochondrium

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75
Q

Which nerve supplies the sympathetic and pain fibres to the foregut?

A

Greater splanchnic nerve

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76
Q

Which spinal nerves does the lesser splanchnic nerve take origin from?

A

T10-T11

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77
Q

Which nerve is responsible for the sensation of pain in the shoulder caused by inflammation of the gallbladder?

A

Phrenic nerve

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78
Q

Involvement of which structure is likely when pain from appendicitis become well-localised to the right iliac fossa?

A

Parietal peritoneum

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79
Q

Which structure is a remnant of the umbilical vein?

A

Ligamentum teres

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80
Q

Which structure lies in the midline of the anterior abdominal wall?

A

Linea alba

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81
Q

Which structure lies the most anteriorly in the anterior abdominal wall?

A

Aponeurosis of the external oblique

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82
Q

Which spinal nerve supplies the dermatome that includes the umbilicus?

A

T10

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83
Q

Inferior to which line do all of the aponeuroses of the abdominal wall muscles travel anterior to rectus abdominis?

A

Arcuate line

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84
Q

Name 3 attachments of the rectus abdominis

A
  • Pubic crest
  • Xiphisternum
  • Costal cartilages of ribs 5-7
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85
Q

Name 4 structures which have a mesentery

A
  • Appendix
  • Sigmoid colon
  • Jejunum
  • Ileum
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86
Q

Name 4 structures which are found in the porta hepatic

A
  • Hepatic artery
  • Common bile duct
  • Branches of the vagus nerve
  • Lymphatics
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87
Q

Which artery supplies blood to the greater omentum?

A

Gastroepiploic arteries

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88
Q

Name an artery which receives blood from the coeliac axis

A

Short gastric arteries

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89
Q

Venous blood from which GI structure can drain directly into the systemic venous system, rather than the portal venous system?

A

Lower oesophagus

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90
Q

Which artery supplies the fungus of the stomach?

A

Short gastric artery

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91
Q

Where is the plicae circularis found?

A

The small intestine

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92
Q

Which ligament runs from the anterior liver to the deep aspect of the anterior abdominal wall?

A

Falciform ligament

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93
Q

Which structure marks the boundary between the foregut and the midgut?

A

Major duodenal papilla

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94
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?

A

Olfactory

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95
Q

Which gland is located immediately superior to the sphenoid sinus?

A

Pituitary gland

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96
Q

Into which area of the nasal cavity does the nasolacrimal duct drain?

A

Inferior meatus

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97
Q

The Eustachian tube connects the nasopharynx to which other cavity?

A

Middle ear

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98
Q

Into which area of the nasal cavity does the maxillary sinus drain?

A

Middle meatus

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99
Q

Which nerve supplies sensation to the maxillary sinus?

A

Maxillary branches of trigeminal nerve

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100
Q

What is the name of the structure through which olfactory fibres pass to reach the nasal cavity?

A

Cribriform plate

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101
Q

Which nerve carriers taste sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Chorda tympani

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102
Q

Name 4 structures which form part of the origin of the pectoralis major

A
  • Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle
  • Clavicle
  • Sternum
  • Costal cartilages of ribs 1-6
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103
Q

What is the insertion of pectorals major?

A

Bicipital groove of humerus

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104
Q

What is the insertion of pectoralis major?

A

Coracoid process

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105
Q

Which muscle is innervated by the lateral pectoral nerve?

A

Pectoralis major

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106
Q

Which nerve supplies the Serratus anterior muscle?

A

Long thoracic nerve

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107
Q

Which bony process does the clavicle articulate with?

A

Acromion process

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108
Q

Where does lymph from the upper-outer quadrant of the breast drain from?

A

Axillary lymph nodes

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109
Q

Give 4 functions of the pectoralis major

A
  • Internal rotation of the humerus
  • Adduction of the humerus
  • Flexion of the shoulder joint
  • Accessory muscle for respiration
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110
Q

Which blood vessel is found immediately deep and lateral to the sternum on the inside of the anterior thoracic wall?

A

Internal mammary/thoracic artery

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111
Q

What is the innervation of the parietal pleura?

A

Intercostal nerves

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112
Q

What is the innervation of the visceral pleura?

A

Vagus nerve

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113
Q

What is the innervation of the central diaphragm (sensory and motor)?

A

Phrenic nerve

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114
Q

What is the innervation of the pericardium (sensory)?

A

Phrenic nerve

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115
Q

How many fissures are found in the right lung?

A

2

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116
Q

What is the origin of the phrenic nerve?

A

C3-C5 spinal nerves

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117
Q

In the hilum of the left lung, where is the pulmonary artery in relation to the bronchus?

A

Superior

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118
Q

Which organ is responsible for the diaphragm resting higher up in the thoracic cavity in the right compared to the left?

A

Liver

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119
Q

What is/are the first branch(es) of the aorta

A

Coronary arteries

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120
Q

Through which valve must blood travel through to get from the left atrium to the left ventricle?

A

Mitral

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121
Q

Where does the coronary sinus drain into?

A

Right atrium

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122
Q

In the foetus, which structure shunts blood from the right atrium into the left atrium?

A

Foramen ovale

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123
Q

In the adult, which structure represents a remnant of the structure that shunted blood from the pulmonary artery into the aorta?

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

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124
Q

Where does the azygous vein drain into?

A

Superior vena cava

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125
Q

What is the name of the striated muscular tissue found inside the auricles of the atria?

A

Musculi pectinati

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126
Q

What is the name of the groove on the external anterior aspect of the heart that represents the location of the SAN?

A

Suclus terminalis

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127
Q

Which artery most often gives rise to the posterior interventricular artery?

A

Right coronary

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128
Q

Which structure carries electrical impulses from the AVN dow the cardiac septum?

A

Bundle of His

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129
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain into the venous system?

A

Where the left internal jugular vein meets the left subclavian artery

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130
Q

Which nerve travels alongside the oesophagus as it enters the abdomen?

A

Vagus nerve

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131
Q

Which spinal nerves does the sympathetic chain receive fibres from?

A

Thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves

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132
Q

Which artery gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery?

A

Thyrocervical trunk

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133
Q

Damage to which structure causes Horner’s syndrome?

A

Cervical sympathetic chain

134
Q

Thyroxine requires relatively high volumes of which element for its production?

A

Iodine

135
Q

The external jugular vein drains into which vein?

A

Subclavian vein

136
Q

Which muscle is found most superficially beneath the skin overlying the anterior neck?

A

Platysma

137
Q

Which cartilage of the airway is the only complete ring?

A

Cricoid cartilage

138
Q

The left recurrent laryngeal nerve loops underneath which structure before it returns back up the neck?

A

Arch of the aorta

139
Q

Which nerve carries sensory fibres from the internal larynx above the vocal chords

A

Internal laryngeal nerve

140
Q

Which muscle is supplied by the superior laryngeal nerve?

A

Cricothyroid

141
Q

What is the name of the recess between the root of the tongue and epiglottis?

A

Vallecula

142
Q

Which is the only muscle supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)?

A

Stylopharyngeus

143
Q

Which nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Facial (VII)

144
Q

Which nerve supplies secreto-motor function to the submandibular salivary gland?

A

Facial (VII)

145
Q

Which nerve passes through the substance of the parotid salivary gland?

A

Facial (VII)

146
Q

Where does the submandibular salivary ducts open into the oral cavity?

A

Both sides of the lingual frenulum

147
Q

Which nerve carries sympathetic and pain fibres to and from the foregut?

A

Greater splanchnic nerve

148
Q

Irritation of the diaphragm, which may be caused by inflammation of the gall bladder, causes referred pain to be felt in which part of the body?

A

Shoulder

149
Q

Where would oedema quickly develop if there is a sudden rupture of a major papillary muscle in the left ventricle?

A

Lungs (pulmonary oedema)

150
Q

Which of the following is a feature of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Anhydrosis of the face (lack of sweating)

151
Q

Where is the origin of the Vagus nerve?

A

Medulla

152
Q

Where does blood from the cerebral circulation drain?

A

Into sinuses that are formed between the dura and between meningeal and periosteal dural layers

153
Q

Does the cavernous receive blood from the orbit?

A

Yes

154
Q

Where is CSF re-absorbed?

A

The superior sagittal sinus

155
Q

Where does the straight sinus receive venous blood from?

A

The inferior sagittal sinus and the great cerebral vein

156
Q

Where does venous blood from the cerebral circulation exit the cranium?

A

Via the jugular foramina

157
Q

How does the venous blood return to the heart from the cerebral circulation?

A

Via the internal jugular veins

158
Q

Where do the internal jugular veins collect blood from?

A

The brain, superficial parts of the face and the neck

159
Q

Where does the blood supply to the brain come from?

A
  • 20% from the two vertebral arteries

- 80% from the internal carotids (ACA & MCA)

160
Q

Where does the left anterior cerebral artery carry blood to?

A

The motor cortex of the right leg

161
Q

Where do the lenticulo-striate arteries carry blood to and what are the branches of?

A
  • They are branches of the ACA & MCA

- Carries blood to the basal ganglia

162
Q

An embolism in which arteries will infarct the cerebellum?

A

SCA, AICA, PICA

163
Q

Name 2 arteries which are a branch of the basilar artery

A

SCA & AICA

164
Q

Name an artery which is a branch of the vertebral artery

A

PICA

165
Q

Where does blood from the cerebral circulation drain?

A

Into sinuses that are formed between the dura and between meningeal and periosteal dural layers

166
Q

Does the cavernous receive blood from the orbit?

A

Yes

167
Q

Where is CSF re-absorbed?

A

The superior sagittal sinus

168
Q

Where does the straight sinus receive venous blood from?

A

The inferior sagittal sinus and the great cerebral vein

169
Q

Where does venous blood from the cerebral circulation exit the cranium?

A

Via the jugular foramina

170
Q

How does the venous blood return to the heart from the cerebral circulation?

A

Via the internal jugular veins

171
Q

Where do the internal jugular veins collect blood from?

A

The brain, superficial parts of the face and the neck

172
Q

Where does the blood supply to the brain come from?

A
  • 20% from the two vertebral arteries

- 80% from the internal carotids (ACA & MCA)

173
Q

Where does the left anterior cerebral artery carry blood to?

A

The motor cortex of the right leg

174
Q

Where do the lenticulo-striate arteries carry blood to and what are the branches of?

A
  • They are branches of the ACA & MCA

- Carries blood to the basal ganglia

175
Q

An embolism in which arteries will infarct the cerebellum?

A

SCA, AICA, PICA

176
Q

Name 2 arteries which are a branch of the basilar artery

A

SCA & AICA

177
Q

Name an artery which is a branch of the vertebral artery

A

PICA

178
Q

What is the middle cerebral artery a direct continuation of?

A

The internal carotid artery in the Circle of Willis

179
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area found?

A

Temporal lobe

180
Q

Where is Broca’s area found?

A

Frontal lobe

181
Q

What may happen if you have a stroke in the temporal lobe?

A

Memory loss

182
Q

What may happen if you have a stroke in the occipital lobe?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

183
Q

What are the typical characteristics of a stroke affecting the internal capsule?

A
  • Haemorrhagic

- Of the lenticulostriate artery

184
Q

What is the effect of a stroke affecting one side of the motor or sensory cortex?

A

A contralateral neurological deficit

185
Q

Where does the primary motor cortex occupy?

A

The pre-central gyrus

186
Q

Where is the primary motor cortex supplied by?

A

The ACA and MCA

187
Q

What is Brodmann’s area 4?

A

Primary motor cortex

188
Q

What is Brodmann’s area 44?

A

Broca’s area

189
Q

Are the muscles of the lower limbs represented medially or laterally?

A

Medially

190
Q

Are the muscles of the face represented medially or laterally?

A

Laterally

191
Q

Where do the corticospinal (pyramidal) tracts originate?

A

The primary motor cortex

192
Q

Where do the corticospinal tracts pass to enter the cerebral peduncle (internal capsule)?

A

Between the basal ganglia and thalamus

193
Q

Where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate?

A

At the level of the medullary pyramids

194
Q

What is the role of the basal ganglia in Parkinson’s?

A

An abnormal rhythmical output

195
Q

Do lower motor neurones innervate directly?

A

Yes

196
Q

Where are axons of the upper motor neurons mainly located?

A

In the lateral white matter of the spinal cord

197
Q

Where are the cell bodies of the lower motor neurones located?

A

In the ventral horn of the spinal cord

198
Q

Define motor unit

A

A motor neurone and all the muscular motor units it innervates

199
Q

How do lower motor neurones leave the spinal cord?

A

Anteriorly (ventrally)

200
Q

Where do upper motor neurones originate?

A

In the motor region of the cerebral cortex or brainstem

201
Q

Where does a lower motor neurone terminate?

A

On a effector (muscle)

202
Q

What do alpha motor neurones innervate?

A

Extrafusal muscle fibres (muscle contraction)

203
Q

What do gamma motor neurones innervate?

A

Intrafusal muscle fibres (body position, proprioception)

204
Q

Where is the anterior corticopspinal tract located?

A

Anterior-Medially to the anterior horn of the grey matter

205
Q

Which corticospinal tract contains more fibres?

A

Lateral, compared to anterior

206
Q

What is the tectospinal tract involved in?

A

In head turning to visual stimulus (superior colliculus)

207
Q

What is the function of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

Maintains balance/an upright head

208
Q

Where do the cells of the reticulospinal tract originate from?

A

Cells found in the pons/medulla

209
Q

What is a function of the reticulospinal tracts?

A

To facilitate/inhibit the activity of various descending tracts

210
Q

The rubrospinal tract functions as a less skilled version of which tract?

A

The lateral corticospinal tract

211
Q

How are the fibres of the corticospinal tract organised?

A

Lower extremity located laterally and upper extremity/head located more medially

212
Q

What is the pattern of supply from the anterior corticospinal tract?

A

Mainly supplies the side of the body contralateral to the originating brain hemispheres

213
Q

What do muscle spindles consist of?

A

Intrafusal muscle fibres

214
Q

What are skeletal muscles compromised of?

A

Extrafusal muscle fibres

215
Q

What is the middle portion of the muscle spindle associated with?

A

Type 1a afferent sensory nerves. It is contractile while the ends aren’t

216
Q

What do gamma motor neurones innervate?

A

Intrafusal (muscle spindles) muscle fibres

217
Q

What are spindles innervated by?

A

Gamma motor neurons

218
Q

What are skeletal muscles innervated by?

A

Alpha motor neurons

219
Q

What does muscle spindle activity contribute to following a stroke?

A

Change in muscle resistance to stretch

220
Q

What is the function of muscle spindles?

A

Detect muscle contraction and relaxation

221
Q

What will afferent impulses from the Golgi tendon organ result in?

A

Inhibition of alpha motor neurons of the muscle fibres

222
Q

Where are Golgi tendon organs situated?

A

At the junction of skeletal muscle and tendon

223
Q

Where are 1b afferent fibres found and where do they run?

A

The sensory fibres leading from the Golgi tendon organ to the spinal cord - they run to the anterior horn

224
Q

How do Golgi tendon organs measure tension?

A

Using muscle fibres

225
Q

Where are small receptive fields found?

A

In areas like the fingers where we have greatest tackle sensitivity

226
Q

How do cutaneous receptors act?

A

Some are phasic (rapidly adapt) and some are tonic (slowly adapts)

227
Q

How do tactile receptors act?

A
  • As transducers

- Show temporal & spatial summation

228
Q

Where are the cell bodies for skin receptors?

A

In dorsal root ganglion

229
Q

What is the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system?

A

A tract which carries information regarding touch and proprioception sensation from the skin to higher centres

230
Q

Where does the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system lie?

A

In the dorsal (ventral) white matter of the spinal cord

231
Q

Where does decussation of fibres of the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system occur?

A

In the medulla as the tract ascends to the brain stem

232
Q

The channel of which type is open more when the neurone is in the resting state?

A

Potassium

233
Q

What is the state of the neurone when it is at resting potential?

A

Has a negative resting potential inside with respect to the outside

234
Q

What is the numerical figure for the resting membrane potential of neurons?

A

-70mV inside with respect to the outside

235
Q

How is the resting membrane potential of neurones governed?

A

By the permeability of the membrane to potassium ions

236
Q

How is the concentration gradient of a neurone maintained?

A
  • Transport of potassium ions out

- Transport of sodium ions in

237
Q

What happens when an action potential of a neurone occurs?

A
  • Na channels open

- Inside becomes more positive with respect to the outside

238
Q

What occurs during depolarisation of a neurone?

A
  • Na channels close

- K channels open

239
Q

What is the change of membrane potential throughout an action potential?

A

-70mV to 30mV

240
Q

What happens when the membrane potential reaches 30mV?

A

Na channels close

241
Q

What is the purpose of the refractory period?

A

Facilitates propagation of an action potential in one direction only

242
Q

What doe refractory periods have an effect on?

A

Effect on the frequency of action potential capable of being produced in a neurone

243
Q

Where are synaptic clefts found?

A

Chemical synapses

244
Q

Where are gap junctions found?

A

Electrical synapses

245
Q

Are chemical synapses inhibitory or excitatory?

A

Either

246
Q

Where are neurotransmitters synthesised?

A

In the cell bodies of the chemical synapses

247
Q

Does CNI have afferent or efferent components?

A

Afferent

248
Q

What occurs when there is damaged to CNI?

A

Anosmia on the ipsilateral side

249
Q

How does CNI enter the cranial cavity?

A

Via small holes in the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

250
Q

When is CNI commonly damaged?

A

In fractures to the anterior cranial fossa

251
Q

What may patients who have damage to CNI complain of?

A

Loss of sensation in their nasal septum

252
Q

How can CNII be tested?

A

Observing pupillary constriction in response to light. This is due to the pupillary reflex afferent limb.

253
Q

How does CNII enter the skull?

A

Via the optic canal

254
Q

How does CNII first join the opposite CNII?

A

Within the optic chiasm

255
Q

What are CNII closely related to?

A

The lateral geniculate body

256
Q

What will a lesion affecting the left optic nerve do?

A

Result in total blindness in the left eye

257
Q

What structures run through the cavernous sinus?

A

CNIII, CNIV, CNVI, CNVII and internal carotid artery

258
Q

Does CNIII carry parasympathetic fibres?

A

Yes

259
Q

What will damage of CNIII lead to?

A

Ptosis of the eyelid on the same side

260
Q

What will damage to CNVI lead to?

A

Inability to abduct the affected eye

261
Q

What will damage to CNIV lead to?

A

Complain of double vision as they look down

262
Q

Where is CNV sensory?

A

In the face

263
Q

Where is CNV motor?

A

For mastication

264
Q

Where do each of the branches of CNV pass through?

A
  • Superior orbital fissure (ophthalmic)
  • Rotundum (Maxillary)
  • Ovale (Mandibular)
265
Q

What will damage to CNV result in?

A

Loss of the blink reflex on the affected side

266
Q

What does CNVII do?

A

Supplies taste information to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

267
Q

What does CNIX do?

A

Supplies taste information to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

268
Q

Where receives parasympathetic output from CNVII?

A

The submandibular salivary gland

269
Q

Where does CNVII exit the skull?

A

Via the internal auditory meatus

270
Q

Where does CNVII give sympathetic innervation via?

A

The superior cervical ganglion

271
Q

Where is the nucleus of CNVII?

A

In the tegmentum of the pons

272
Q

What are the two divisions of the branches of CNVII?

A

Inside the internal acoustic meatus and outside the skull

273
Q

What are the branches of CNVII inside the internal acoustic meatus?

A

Greater petrosal nerve, nerve to stapedius and chorda tympani nerve

274
Q

What are the branches of CNVII outside the skull?

A

Posterior auricular nerve

275
Q

What is CNVIII concerned with?

A

Hearing and balance

276
Q

Where does CNVIII exit the cranial cavity?

A

Via the internal auditory meatus

277
Q

What happens if CNVIII is diseased?

A

May cause rapid eye movements

278
Q

What may a tumour of CNVIII cause?

A

Paralysis of the muscles of facial expression

279
Q

What is CNIX responsible for?

A

Sensory for the posterior 1/3 of the tongue and motor to the stylopharyngess (swallowing and gag reflex)

280
Q

Does CNIX have parasympathetic fibres?

A

Yes - they are carried to the parotid glands for scretormotour innervation

281
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the muscles of the hypoglossal and pharynx?

A

CNIX

282
Q

Where does CNIX leave the cranium?

A

Through the jugular foramen

283
Q

Is CNX motor or sensory?

A

Both

284
Q

What is CNX motor for?

A

Laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles

285
Q

What is CNX parasympathetic function?

A

To heart, lungs and bowel

286
Q

At what level does CNX leave the brain?

A

Level of the medulla

287
Q

What does CNX cause when stimulated?

A

Decreased heart rate and blood pressure

288
Q

Is CNXI motor or sensory?

A

Purely motor

289
Q

Does CNXI have a cranial or sensory root?

A

Both

290
Q

What does CNXI run in close proximity to?

A

The internal jugular vein - they exit the internal jugular foramen together

291
Q

What does injury to CNXI cause?

A

Paralysis of the sternocleidomastoid and superior trapezius muscles on the same side

292
Q

What does CNXII supply?

A

The majority of extrinsic and all intrinsic muscles of the tongue

293
Q

Is CNXII motor or sensory?

A

Motor

294
Q

Where does CNXII leave the cranial cavity?

A

The hypoglossal canal

295
Q

Where is CNXII nerve cell bodies located?

A

Within the medulla

296
Q

What will damage to CNXII cause?

A

Paralysis of the ipsilateral half of the tongue

297
Q

What does the spinothalamic tract carry?

A

Pain and temperature to the somatosensory cortex

298
Q

What happens after the fibres of the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

Synapse in the thalamus, then project into the neocortex

299
Q

What is the middle ear?

A

A air filled chamber which communicates with the nasal cavity; pressure equalisation (valsalva)

300
Q

What is conductive deafness?

A

A reduction in the mechanical transmission of sound waves to the oval window

301
Q

Which nerve gives sensation to the middle ear?

A

CNIX

302
Q

What do the chain of the three ossicles in the middle ear have between them?

A

Synovial joints

303
Q

What can the stiffness of the ossicular chain be modified by?

A

The muscles tensor tympani and stapedius

304
Q

What is the organ of hearing?

A

The cochlea

305
Q

Where does the organ of cortisones rest?

A

On the basilar membrane

306
Q

How much does the cochlea coil?

A

Around 2-3 times around the modulus (the central axis of the spiral)

307
Q

How do sound waves enter the cochlea?

A

Via the oval window

308
Q

What is the basic structure of the basilar membrane?

A

Wider at the apex, narrower at its base

309
Q

What are the respective parts of the basilar membrane sensitive to?

A

Base - sensitive to high frequencies & Apex - sensitive to low frequencies

310
Q

What is the hair structure in the cochlea?

A

Single row of inner hair cells and 4-5 rows of outer hair cells

311
Q

What is the function of semi-circular canals?

A

Detect rotational acceleration and deceleration

312
Q

What is linear acceleration/deceleration and gravity detected by?

A

Otolithic organs (utricle and saccule)

313
Q

How many semi circular canals are there and how are they arranged?

A

3 on each side, arranged in 3 different planes

314
Q

What is the link between semi circular canals and movement of the eyes?

A

The SCCs affect the movement of both the eyes

315
Q

What can pouring cold water in the external auditory meatus cause?

A

Convection currents in the semi circular canals and nystagmus

316
Q

Where do stereo cilia of the utricles and saccule project?

A

The otolith membrane

317
Q

What are the utricle and saccule filled with?

A

Endolymph

318
Q

What are mossy fibres in the cerebellum?

A

Axons which are derived from various brainstem nuclei

319
Q

What is the proposed function of climbing fibres?

A

Learning new motor action; motor programme determination via mossy fibres

320
Q

What are Purkinje cells?

A

Output neurones from the cerebellar cortex which inhibitory

321
Q

Where does each Purkinje fibre receive input from?

A

Thousands of parallel fibres

322
Q

What is basal ganglia involved in?

A

The initiation of coordinated movement

323
Q

Which part of the brain compares intended with actual movement?

A

Cerebellum

324
Q

Where does the cerebellum principally receive information from?

A

The vestibular system

325
Q

What is the peptide hormone which plays a major role in both ovulation and the activity of the interstitial cells of the testis?

A

LH

326
Q

What is the peptide hormone formed in the hypothalamus which is necessary for normal spermatogenesis?

A

Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone

327
Q

Give two ways how infertility can arise

A
  • Anovulation

- Cervical mucus hostility

328
Q

When does implantation happen in conception?

A

After the blastocyst has hatched through the zona pellucid

329
Q

When does compaction happen in conception?

A

In the embryo after embryonic genome activation and before blastocyst formation

330
Q

What is syngamy?

A

When after fertilisation, male and female pronucleus’ are unified

331
Q

What are the 2 genes which confer self-renewal and pluripotent in embryonic stem cells?

A

OCT4 and Nanog

Phase 1 Med (Liv) (13 decks)

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