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Phase 1 Med (Liv) > Histology > Flashcards

Histology Flashcards

1
Q

What colour does PAS stain sugars?

A

Deep magenta

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2
Q

What colour does alcian blue stain mucins?

A

Blue

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3
Q

What colour does H&E stain nuclei and cytoplasm?

A

Nuclei - Blue

Cytoplasm - Pink

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4
Q

What shape are smooth muscle cells?

A

Fusiform

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5
Q

What are columnar cells?

A

Epithelial cells which are taller than they are wide

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6
Q

What are squamous cells?

A

Flattened plate-like cells

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7
Q

Where does DNA transcription occur?

A

The nucleolus

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8
Q

What 2 things happen in the outer membrane of the mitochondria?

A
  • Lipid synthesis

- Fatty acid metabolism

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9
Q

What happens in the inner membrane of the mitochondria?

A

Respiratory chain ATP production

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10
Q

What happens in the matrix of the mitochondria?

A

TCA (Kreb’s) cycle

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11
Q

What happens in the inter membranous space of the mitochondria?

A

Nucleotide phosphorylation (ADP to ATP)

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12
Q

What is the lifespan of erythrocytes?

A

120 days

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13
Q

What is chromatin?

A

Nuclear DNA and proteins

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14
Q

What happens in the RER?

A

Protein synthesis

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15
Q

What happens in the SER?

A

Membrane lipid is formed

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16
Q

What happens in the Golgi apparatus?

A

Formation of complex oligosaccharides, protein phosphorylation and proteolysis

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17
Q

What is the filament with the smallest diameter?

A

Actin

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18
Q

Name a microfilament

A

Actin

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19
Q

Name a microtubule

A

Tubulin

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20
Q

Name 3 intermediate filaments

A

Desmin, nuclear laminin and vimentin

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21
Q

Name the three filaments in increasing size

A

Microfilament, intermediate filament, microtubules

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22
Q

What is the intermediate filament mainly found in muscle?

A

Desmin

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23
Q

Where are cytokeratins (intermediate filaments) found?

A

Epithelial cells

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24
Q

Where are desmin (intermediate filaments) found?

A

Myocytes

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25
Q

Where are Glial fibrillary acidic protein (intermediate filaments) found?

A

Astrocytic glial cells

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26
Q

Where are Neurofilament protein (intermediate filaments) found?

A

Neurons

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27
Q

Where are nuclear laminin (intermediate filaments) found?

A

Nuclei of all cells

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28
Q

Where are vimentin (intermediate filaments) found?

A

Mesodermal cells

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29
Q

What is lipofuscin?

A

A wear and tear pigment formed by per oxidation of membrane lipids

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30
Q

What is haemosiderin?

A

An iron-containing brown pigment

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31
Q

What is melanin?

A

A brown pigment produced by melanocytes in skin (and elsewhere)

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32
Q

What is rhodopsin?

A

A pigment found in the retina

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33
Q

How is simple squamous epithelium formed?

A

By flattened epithelial cells resting on a basement membrane

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34
Q

What is endothelium?

A

An epithelium which lines the inside of blood vessels?

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35
Q

What is mesothelium?

A

An epithelium which lines the outside of the lungs

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36
Q

What is peritoneum?

A

An epithelium which lines the abdominal organs

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37
Q

What are the two features of columnar epithelium?

A
  • Cells are taller than they are wide

- May have projections such as cilia/microvilli

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38
Q

Do all epithelial compromise of nucleated cells?

A

Yes

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39
Q

What is a possible feature of simple columnar epithelium?

A

Microvilli on luminal surface

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40
Q

What is the epithelium of the Fallopian tube?

A

Columnar ciliated epithelium

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41
Q

What does respiratory epithelium consist of?

A

Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium containing admixed goblet cells

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42
Q

Where is respiratory epithelium found?

A

The conducting airways:

  • Nasopharynx
  • Nasal sinuses
  • Trachea
  • Bronchi
  • Bronchioles
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43
Q

What are the two proteins which are involved in ciliary movement?

A
  • Tubulin

- Dynein

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44
Q

Name two non-contractile proteins

A
  • Collagen

- Elastin

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45
Q

Name two contractile proteins which are found in muscle cells

A
  • Actin

- Myosin

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46
Q

Name one feature of urothelium

A

It is waterproof

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47
Q

What type of epithelium is urothelium?

A

Complex stratified epithelium with a pseudo stratified component beneath a surface layer of umbrella cells that aren’t in contact with the basement membrane

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48
Q

What is the purpose of umbrella cells in urothelium?

A

Make the epithelium waterproof

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49
Q

Name 4 places where the urothelium lines

A
  • Renal pelvis
  • Ureters
  • Urinary bladder
  • Urethra
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50
Q

What does PAS help highlight?

A

Basement membranes

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51
Q

Name things which basement membranes consist of

A

Type IV collagen and fibronectin

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52
Q

What is the function of desmosomes?

A

Help spread mechanical forces across cells and their neighbours, and anchor cells together

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53
Q

What is the function of hemidesmosomes?

A

Bind the basal cell layer to the basement membrane

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54
Q

What is holocrine secretion?

A

When a gland secretes by shedding individual cells

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55
Q

Where is merocrine secretion?

A

Release of cell products by exocytosis from apical cell surface

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56
Q

What is apocrine secretion?

A

Involves pinching off part of the apex of the cell

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57
Q

Name 3 types of exocrine secretion

A
  • Holocrine
  • Merocrine
  • Apocrine
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58
Q

What is endocrine secretion?

A

Release of products from the cell base into the bloodstream

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59
Q

What are monocytes derived from?

A

Haematopoietic stem cells

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60
Q

What cells are derived from mesenchymal cells?

A

Fibroblasts, fat cells and most cartilage/bone cells

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61
Q

What cells are from the haemopoietic stem cell line?

A

Monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes, mast cells and blood cells

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62
Q

What substance is found in the walls of elastic arteries?

A

Elastin

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63
Q

What do fibroblasts produce?

A

Elastin and collagen

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64
Q

Name 3 visible extracellular fibres

A
  • Reticulin
  • Collagen
  • Elastin
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65
Q

Name 2 invisible fibres

A
  • Fibronectin

- Laminin

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66
Q

What is tropocollagen?

A

A triple helix of peptides

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67
Q

What secretes tropocollagen subunits?

A

Fibroblasts

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68
Q

Where is type I collagen found?

A

Skin

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69
Q

Where is type II collagen found?

A

Cartilage

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70
Q

Where is type III collagen found?

A

Liver, bone marrow and spleen (reticulin)

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71
Q

Where is type IV collagen found?

A

Basement membranes

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72
Q

Where is type V collagen found?

A

Placenta

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73
Q

What kind of cartilage is found in the epiglottis?

A

Elastic

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74
Q

Name 2 places where fibrous cartilage can be found?

A
  • Symphysis pubis

- Intervertebral discs

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75
Q

Name 2 places where hyaline cartilage can be found?

A
  • Part of the nasal septum

- The knee joint

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76
Q

What is the structure of fat inside the white adipose tissue?

A
  • Single, large non membrane-bound globules of lipid in each cell
  • Pushes the nuclei to the edges of cells
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77
Q

What is one of the differences between brown and white adipocytes?

A
  • White has one big globule

- Brown has multiple fat globules

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78
Q

What is the primary function of brown adipose tissue?

A

Heat generation

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79
Q

Where is brown adipose mainly found in adults?

A

Between shoulder blades

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80
Q

Where is brown adipose mainly found in neonates?

A

Neck, back, around the aorta and the kidneys

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81
Q

What is the structure of the tendons or ligaments?

A

Dense regular fibrous connective tissue

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82
Q

Which connective tissue has collagen fibres running in the same direction?

A

Dense regular connective tissue

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83
Q

What is the connective tissue in the penile fascia?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

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84
Q

What is the connective tissue in the adventitia of arteries?

A

Loose irregular connective tissue

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85
Q

What is the connective tissue in the dermis?

A

Dense and loose irregular connective tissue

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86
Q

What is the muscular layer of the uterus and what muscle type is it?

A

Myometrium - smooth muscle

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87
Q

Name two elastic arteries in the body

A

Aorta and pulmonary artery

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88
Q

Name two muscular arteries in the body

A

Radial and splenic

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89
Q

What is the feature of muscular arteries?

A

The media compromises of smooth muscle with very little elastin

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90
Q

Name one component which veins lack

A

External elastic lamina

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91
Q

What are the layers of the arteries, from inside out?

A
  • Endothelium
  • Intima
  • Internal elastic lamina
  • Media
  • External elastic lamina
  • Outer adventitia
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92
Q

How is the diameter of capillaries regulated?

A

By pericytes

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93
Q

What are pericytes?

A

Contractile cells which wrap around the outside of capillaries and regulate capillary diameter

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94
Q

What is the structure of capillaries?

A

Compromise of endothelial cells resting on a basement membrane. They don’t have an intima, media or adventitia

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95
Q

Where may capillaries be fenestrated?

A

The kidney or liver

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96
Q

What are fenestrations?

A

Gaps in the endothelial layer

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97
Q

Give 3 characteristics of lymphatic vessels

A
  • Contain valves
  • Poorly developed elastic laminae
  • Thin media, making them similar to veins
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98
Q

Name two things which cartilage lacks

A

Blood vessels and lymphatics

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99
Q

Where is endometrium present?

A

Between individual axons

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100
Q

Where is perineurium present?

A

Surrounds the groups of axons to form fascicles

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101
Q

Where is epineurium present?

A

Binds fascicles together to form nerve fibres

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102
Q

Which cells produce myelin?

A

Schwann cells

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103
Q

How do Schwann cells produce myelin?

A

By repeatedly wrapping itself around part of an axon

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104
Q

What does myelin compromise of?

A

Multiple layers of Schwann cell membrane

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105
Q

What is a Node of Ravier?

A

A gap between two Schwann cells on a single axon. The axon is in tact but there is no myelin at this site

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106
Q

What are Schmidt-Lanterman incisures?

A

Small pockets of cytoplasm left behind during the Schwann cell myelination process

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107
Q

How many axons are myelinated by a single Schwann cell?

A

1

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108
Q

In unmyelinated axons, how many axons are supported by a single Schwann cell?

A

Many

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109
Q

Define motor neuron

A

Cell bodies in grey matter of spinal cord

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110
Q

Define sensory neuron

A

Cell bodies in dorsal root ganglion

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111
Q

Define sympathetic neuron

A

Cell bodies in grey matter of cord and in adjacent sympathetic ganglia

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112
Q

Define parasympathetic neuron

A

Cell bodies in brain and basal ganglia

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113
Q

What percent of the blood is made up of white blood cells?

A

1%

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114
Q

What is the fluid in blood?

A

Plasma (or serum if the clotting factors have been removed)

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115
Q

What percentage of the blood is the plasma?

A

56%

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116
Q

What percentage of the blood consists of the red blood cells?

A

43%

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117
Q

What percentage of the blood does the white cells and platelets consist of?

A

1%

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118
Q

What is plasma?

A

Serum + clotting factors

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119
Q

What is the pattern of formation of erythrocytes?

A
  • First formed in the yolk sac
  • Then formed in the liver
  • The formed in the bone marrow
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120
Q

Where is haematopoiesis confined to?

A
  • Marrow of flat bones

- Proximal ends of the humeri/femurs

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121
Q

Where are erythrocytes destroyed?

A

Liver and spleen

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122
Q

What are the predominant leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils

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123
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

Help defend against parasitic infections. There numbers increase when there is a parasitic infection

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124
Q

Where do B lymphocytes mature in adults?

A

Bone marrow

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125
Q

Name two cells which have receptors to IgE and the significance of this

A
  • Basophils and Eosinophils

- They are antagonistic in function

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126
Q

Which cell produces histamines?

A

Basophils

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127
Q

Which cells counter the action of histamine?

A

Eosinophils

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128
Q

Name 3 cells in the immune system which are phagocytic

A
  • Eosinophils
  • Neutrophils
  • Monocytes
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129
Q

Which cells secrete antibodies?

A

Plasma cells

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130
Q

What is the most abundant leucocyte?

A

Neutrophils

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131
Q

Name 1 cell of the immune system which doesn’t have IgE receptors

A

Neutrophils

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132
Q

Which cells become mast cells?

A

Basophils

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133
Q

Which cells neutralise histamine?

A

Eosinophils

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134
Q

What cells do monocytes develop into in the liver?

A

Kupffer cells

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135
Q

What cells do monocytes develop everywhere?

A

Tissue macrophages and antigen presenting cells

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136
Q

What cells do monocytes develop into in bone?

A

Osteoclasts

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137
Q

What cells do monocytes develop into in the lungs?

A

Alveolar macrophages

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138
Q

What are haemocytoblasts?

A

Multipotential haemopoietic stem cells

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139
Q

What do megakaryocytic give rise to?

A

Platelets

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140
Q

What are platelets?

A

Membrane-bound fragments of the cytoplasm of megakaryotes

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141
Q

Where does erythropoiesis occur?

A

Away from bony trabeculae

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142
Q

What is the basic process of erythropoiesis?

A
  • Cells start basophilic and become eosinophilic
  • They gradually lose organelles (as they gain haemoglobin)
  • The nucleus stays round and is eventually extruded
  • The cells get smaller as they mature
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143
Q

What is the outermost layer of the heart?

A

Visceral pericardium

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144
Q

What are the layers of the heart (outside in)?

A

Visceral pericardium, epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

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145
Q

What is the parietal pericardium?

A

A fibrous sac that contains the heart

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146
Q

Name two layers of the heart which have the same cells

A

Visceral pericardium and parietal pericardium

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147
Q

What cell type is the pericardium of the heart?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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148
Q

What cell type is the pleura and peritoneum of the heart?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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149
Q

What is a feature of ventricular cardiac myocyte?

A

Myofibrils in register (they appear striated)

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150
Q

Name 3 visible extracellular fibres

A

Reticulin, collagen and elastin

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151
Q

Name 2 invisible extracellular fibres

A

Fibronectin and laminin

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152
Q

Which collagen type is prevalent in the placenta?

A

Type V

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153
Q

What is the structure of tropocollagen?

A

A triple helix of peptides

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154
Q

Where are tropocollagen subunits secreted from?

A

Fibroblasts

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155
Q

Which collagen type is prevalent in the skin?

A

Type I

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156
Q

Which collagen type is prevalent in cartilage?

A

Type II

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157
Q

Which collagen type is prevalent in liver?

A

Type III

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158
Q

Which collagen type is prevalent in bone marrow?

A

Type III

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159
Q

Which collagen type is prevalent in the spleen?

A

Type III (reticulin)

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160
Q

Which collagen type is prevalent in basement membranes?

A

Type IV

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161
Q

What kind of cartilage does the epiglottis have?

A

Elastic cartilage

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162
Q

What type of cartilage is found in the symphis pubis and intervertebral discs/

A

Fibrous cartilage

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163
Q

What type of cartilage does part of the nasal septum and the knee joint have?

A

Hyaline cartilage

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164
Q

What is the most commonly used dye combination?

A

H&E

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165
Q

What colour does H&E stain certain cell parts?

A

Cell nuclei - Blue

Cytoplasm - Pink

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166
Q

Name something other than cytoplasm that stains pink with H&E

A

Extra-Cellular fibres

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167
Q

What does PAS stain?

A

Sugars

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168
Q

What does Van Gieson stain?

A

Elastic

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169
Q

What does alcian blue stain?

A

Mucins

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170
Q

Name 6 shapes of cells

A
  • Rounded
  • Polygonal
  • Fusiform
  • Squamous (flattened)
  • Cuboidal
  • Columnar
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171
Q

What type of cells tend to be smaller?

A

Ones which are less metabolically active

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172
Q

Name 1 cell type which has a lifespan of days

A

Lining of the gut

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173
Q

Name 3 cell types which have a lifespan of days

A

Blood, skin and connective tissues

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174
Q

Name 2 cell types which have a lifespan of years

A

Bones and tendons

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175
Q

Name a cell type which lasts nearly a whole life

A

Skeletal muscle (limited regeneration)

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176
Q

Name 3 cell types which last a whole life

A

Nerves/brain, Cardiac muscle and germ cells

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177
Q

Give 3 features of the nucleus

A
  • Brain of the cell
  • Double nuclear membrane
  • Houses DNA
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178
Q

Give 2 features of the nucleolus

A
  • 1-3 microns in diameter

- Site of rRNA formation

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179
Q

Give 4 features of the mitochondria

A
  • Powerhouses of the cell
  • Site of oxidative phosphorylation
  • Have their own DNA
  • Double membrane
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180
Q

What is the function of the outer membrane of the mitochondria?

A

Lipid synthesis and fatty acid metabolism

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181
Q

What is the function of the inner membrane of the mitochondria?

A

Respiratory chain and ATP production

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182
Q

What is the function of the matrix of the mitochondria?

A

TCA (Krebs’ cycle)

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183
Q

What is the function of the inter membranous space of the mitochondria?

A

Nucleotide phosphorylation (ADP to ATP)

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184
Q

What is the function and structure of RER?

A
  • Site of protein synthesis

- Highly folded flattened membrane sheets

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185
Q

What is the function and structure of the Golgi apparatus?

A
  • Processes macromolecules synthesised in the ER

- Parallel stacks of membrane

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186
Q

Where is the Golgi apparatus usually prominent?

A

Plasma cells

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187
Q

What are vesicles and what are they used for?

A
  • Small spherical membrane-bound organelles

- Used for transport, storage and exchanging cell membrane between compartments

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188
Q

What are the function of lysosomes?

A

Contain acid hydrolyses that degree proteins

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189
Q

What are the function of peroxisomes?

A

Contain enzymes which oxidise long-chain fatty acids

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190
Q

What is a typical diameter of a microfilament?

A

5nm

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191
Q

What is a typical diameter of a microtubule?

A

25nm

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192
Q

What is a typical diameter of a intermediate filament?

A

10nm

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193
Q

Where can cytokeratins be located?

A

Epithelial cells

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194
Q

Where can desmin be located?

A

Myocytes

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195
Q

Where can glial fibrillary acidic protein be located?

A

Astrocytic glial cells

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196
Q

Where can neurofilament protein be located?

A

Neurons

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197
Q

Where can nuclear laminin be located?

A

Nuclei of all cells

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198
Q

Where can vimentin be located?

A

Mesodermal cells

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199
Q

What is lipofuscin and where is it commonly found?

A
  • Membrane-bound orange-brown pigment

- Common in heart/liver

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200
Q

What are the 3 functions of epithelia?

A

Protection, absorption and secretion

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201
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle?

A

Smooth, skeletal and heart

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202
Q

Name 4 supporting tissues

A

Cartilage, bone, tendons and blood

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203
Q

What does epithelial compromise of?

A

A cohesive sheet of cells, with one or more layers, resting on a basement membrane

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204
Q

How is epithelia categorised?

A

According to the shape of the cells and the number of layers of cells

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205
Q

What is simple epithelia?

A

A single layer of cells on a basement membrane

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206
Q

What is stratified (compound) epithelia?

A

Two or more layers of cells on a basement membrane

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207
Q

What is simple squamous epithelium?

A

A single layer of flattened plate-like cells on a basement membrane with parallel oval nuclei

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208
Q

What is endothelium?

A

The simple squamous epithelium which lines the inside of blood vessels

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209
Q

What is mesothelium?

A

The simple squamous epithelium which lines the outside of the lungs

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210
Q

What is peritoneum?

A

The simple squamous epithelium which lines the abdominal organs

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211
Q

What is simple cuboidal epithelium?

A

A single layer of cells with similar height and width on a basement membrane, central spherical nuclei

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212
Q

Name 2 places where the simple cuboidal epithelium lines

A
  • Kidney tubules

- Small ducts

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213
Q

What is simple columnar epithelium?

A

A single layer of cells taller than they are wide, on a basement membrane. They may have cilia or microvilli

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214
Q

Name 3 places where the simple columnar epithelium lines

A
  • Stomach
  • Intestines
  • Uterus
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215
Q

What are microvilli?

A
  • Microscopic projections on luminal surface of absorptive cells
  • Increase SA
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216
Q

Where may microvilli be found?

A

Intestinal brush border

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217
Q

What is cilia?

A

Microscopic motile projections on luminal surface of cells

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218
Q

Where may cilia be found?

A

Respiratory or reproductive tracts

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219
Q

Give 2 features of stratified epithelia

A
  • Protective function

- Many layers of cells

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220
Q

Where is stratified epithelia usually found?

A

At sites subject to abrasive forces

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221
Q

What is stratified squamous non-keratinising epithelium?

A
  • Multiple layer of cells on a basement membrane

- Mature surface layers are plate-like squames

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222
Q

Name 3 places which stratified squamous non-keratinising epithelium lies

A
  • Mouth
  • Oropharynx
  • Vagina
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223
Q

What is stratified squamous keratinising epithelium?

A
  • Multiple layer of cells on a basement membrane
  • Mature surface layers are plate-like squares
  • Waterproof layer of keratin
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224
Q

Where is stratified squamous keratinising epithelium found?

A

Skin

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225
Q

What is pseudostratified epithelium?

A

A single layer of cells of variable height, mimicking multiple layers on a basement membrane

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226
Q

Where is pseudo stratified epithelium found?

A

Lines the conducting airways

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227
Q

What is urothelium?

A

A specialised stratified epithelium

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228
Q

What is the structure of urothelium?

A
  • Surface layer of umbrella cells

- Cells between umbrella cells appear 3-7 layers thick

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229
Q

Where is urothelium found?

A

The collecting part of the urinary tract

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230
Q

What is the basement membrane made of?

A

Several extra-cellular proteins including collagen IV and fibronectin

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231
Q

What is the function of the basement membrane?

A

Essential for the proper functioning and survival of the epithelium

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232
Q

What is an occluding (tight) junction?

A

Band-like fusions between cells that are impervious to most molecules, prevents diffusion between cells

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233
Q

What are desmosomes (anchoring/adherent junctions)?

A
  • Plaques that form physical joins between cells and connect the cytoskeletons of adjacent cells
  • Spread forces across several cells
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234
Q

What are gap junctions (aka communicating junctions)?

A

Electrical junctions that permit the transfer of small molecules, electrically couple adjacent cells

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235
Q

What is the origin of connective tissue cells?

A

Mainly derived from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells, but may also be from the haemopoietic stem cell line

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236
Q

Name the 5 cell types which are derived from mesenchymal cells

A
  • Mast cells
  • Fibroblasts
  • Chondroblast
  • Osteoblast
  • Adipocytes
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237
Q

What do fibroblasts later derive into?

A

Fibrocytes

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238
Q

What do chondroblasts later derive into?

A

Chondrocytes

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239
Q

What do osteoblasts later derive into?

A

Osteocyte

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240
Q

What are the 3 constituents of connective tissues?

A
  • Cells
  • Visible fibres
  • Ground substance (a hydrophilic jelly and invisible fibres)
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241
Q

What are the 3 types of connective tissues?

A
  • Fibrous (loose/dense)
  • Hard (cartilage/bone)
  • Fatty (white/brown)
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242
Q

What is tropocollagen?

A

A triple helix of peptides

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243
Q

Where is tropocollagen secreted from?

A

Fibroblasts

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244
Q

Where is type I collagen found?

A

Skin

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245
Q

Where is type II collagen found?

A

Cartilage

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246
Q

Where is type III collagen found?

A

Liver, bone marrow, spleen (reticulin)

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247
Q

Where is type IV collagen found?

A

Basement membranes

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248
Q

Where is type V collagen found?

A

Placenta

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249
Q

What colour do collagen fibres stain with H&E?

A

Pink

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250
Q

Give 3 features of loose connective tissue

A
  • Widely spaced thin collagen fibres
  • Fibroblasts/fibrocytes
  • Unstained ground substance
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251
Q

Give 4 features of dense connective tissue

A
  • Closely spaced thick collagen fibres
  • Fibroblasts/fibrocytes
  • Unstained ground substance
  • May be irregular or regular
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252
Q

Give 4 features of reticulin

A
  • Type III collagen
  • Fibrillar collagen
  • Forms a supporting scaffold in many organs
  • Not visible with H&E - need a silver stain
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253
Q

What does elastic tissue compromise of?

A

Fine fibres and sheets of elastin

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254
Q

Give 3 features of elastin

A
  • May be branched
  • Produced by fibroblasts
  • Stain pink on H&E
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255
Q

What is the structure of white adipose (fatty) tissue?

A

Large cells with a single fat globule in each cell

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256
Q

What is the structure of brown adipose (fatty) tissue?

A

Cells with many globules of fat

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257
Q

Where is brown adipose tissue found in a newborn?

A

Across the shoulders and down the back

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258
Q

What is the importance of brown adipose tissue in a newborn?

A

Important in neonatal thermos-regulation

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259
Q

What are the 4 constituents of cartilage?

A

Cells, extracellular matrix, proteoglycans and extracellular fibres

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260
Q

Is cartilage vascular or avascular?

A

Avascular

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261
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage usually found?

A

In synovial joints

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262
Q

What is the structure of hyaline cartilage?

A

Chondrocytes in lacunae surrounded by a amorphous matrix. has no visible fibres

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263
Q

What is perichondrium?

A

Fibroblasts and collagen

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264
Q

Name 2 places where elastic cartilage can be found

A
  • Pinna

- Epiglottis

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265
Q

What is the structure of elastic cartilage?

A

Visible elastic fibres in matrix and perichondrium

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266
Q

Where can fibrocartilage be found?

A

In the annulus fibrosus pubic symphysis

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267
Q

What is the structure of fibrocartilage?

A

Visible collagen fibres matrix and perichondrium

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268
Q

Where is synovium usually found?

A

Lines the inside of the joint capsule

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269
Q

What is the structure of the synovium?

A
  • 1-4 layers of synovial cells
  • Type A (phagocytes) and Type B (rich in RER)
  • Variable shapes (squamous to cuboidal)
  • Richly vascular
  • Highly innervated
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270
Q

Where is visceral (smooth) muscle found?

A
  • Arterial wall
  • Wall of intestine
  • Airways of lungs
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271
Q

Where is voluntary (skeletal) muscle found?

A
  • Skeletal muscle
  • Larynx
  • Diaphragm
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272
Q

Where is cardiac muscle found?

A
  • Heart

- Base of great vessels

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273
Q

Name 3 other contractile cells

A
  • Pericytes
  • Myo-Fibroblasts
  • Myo-epithelial cells
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274
Q

Give 5 properties of smooth muscle?

A
  • Involuntary muscle
  • Fusiform cells
  • Central nucleus
  • No striations
  • Non-branching
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275
Q

What is the general structure of arteries (inside to outside)?

A
  • Lumen
  • Intima
  • Basement membrane
  • Internal elastic lamina
  • Media
  • External elastic lamina
  • Adventitia
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276
Q

Where are the elastic arteries found?

A

Near the heart e.g. aorta and pulmonary arteries

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277
Q

What are the features of the elastic arteries?

A

Media contains abundant concentric sheets of elastin

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278
Q

What are the features of muscular arteries?

A

The media compromises of layers of smooth muscle. Little elastin is in the media

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279
Q

Which vessels are ‘resistance vessels’?

A

Arterioles

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280
Q

What are arterioles arbitrarily described as?

A

As having 3 or fewer muscle layers in their media. The elastic laminae is poorly defined

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281
Q

What is the structure of a capillary (from inside to outside)?

A

Lumen, endothelium and a basement membrane

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282
Q

What are capillaries composed entirely of?

A

Thin-walled endothelial cells with no surrounding muscle or connective tissue

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283
Q

Which tissues tend to have fenestrated capillaries?

A

Kidney and liver

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284
Q

What is the structure of veins (from inside to outside)?

A
  • Lumen
  • Intima
  • Basement membrane
  • Internal elastic lamina
  • Media
  • Adventitia
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285
Q

What is the structure of venues?

A

Thin walled, contractile pericytes wrap around outside of endothelial cells and form a complete layer as venues get larger

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286
Q

What gets replaced as venues become veins?

A

Pericytes get replaced by smooth muscle

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287
Q

What is the structure of lymphatics?

A
  • Thin walled
  • Similar to capillaries and veins
  • Have valves
  • Don’t contain blood
  • Contains eosinophilic lymph
  • May contain lymphocytes
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288
Q

What is the structure of peripheral nerves?

A
  • Composed of axons supported by Schwann cells
  • Most are myelinated
  • Myelin is produced by Schwann cells
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289
Q

What are the myelinated peripheral nerve components?

A

Endoneurium, perineurium and epineurium

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290
Q

Where is endoneurium present?

A

Between individual axons

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291
Q

Where is perineurium present?

A

Surrounds the groups of axons to form fascicles

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292
Q

Where is epineurium present?

A

Binds fascicles together to form nerve fibres

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293
Q

What is the structure of a small peripheral nerve fibre?

A

Bundle of axons interspersed with endometrium and surrounded by perineurium and epineurium

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294
Q

What is myelin and what is its function?

A

It is a spiral of apposed Schwann cell membranes. It insulates axons

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295
Q

How many Schwann cells are there per myelinated axon?

A

Multiple

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296
Q

How many axons are there per Schwann cells?

A

One

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297
Q

What are the gaps between myelin?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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298
Q

What is significant about myelinated axons?

A
  • Larger

- Transmit impulses faster than unmyelinated ones

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299
Q

Name 4 peripheral nerves

A

Motor neurones, sensory neurones, sympathetic neurones and parasympathetic neurones

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300
Q

What is the structure of motor neurones?

A

Cell bodies in grey matter of spinal cord

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301
Q

What is the structure of sensory neurones?

A

Cell bodies in dorsal root ganglion

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302
Q

What is the structure of sympathetic neurones?

A

Cell bodies in grey matter or cord and in adjacent sympathetic ganglia

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303
Q

What is the structure of parasympathetic neurones?

A

Cell bodies in brain and local ganglia

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304
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

Outermost layer of the heart

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305
Q

What are the two types of pericardium?

A

Visceral and parietal

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306
Q

What is the structure of the pericardium?

A

Layer of mesothelial cells resting on thin layer of fibrous connective tissue

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307
Q

What is the epicardium and where is it situated?

A

The underlying adipose tissue, vessels and nerves. it is between the pericardium and myocardium

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308
Q

What is the structure of specialised cardiac muscle?

A
  • Striated
  • Central nuclei
  • Branching
  • Intercalated discs
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309
Q

What is endomysium?

A

Loose fibrous connective tissue between the muscle fibres in the myocardium

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310
Q

What is the myocardium?

A

The thickest layer of the heart

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311
Q

Which type of myocytes are larger?

A

Ventricular. Atrial are smaller

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312
Q

What do atrial myocytes contain?

A

Perinuclear neuroendocrine granules (for atrial natriuretic peptide)

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313
Q

What is the conducting system of the heart?

A
  • SAN
  • AVN
  • Bundle of His
  • Purkinje fibres (subendocardial and large vacuolated muscle cells)
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314
Q

What is the endocardium and what is it compromised of?

A
  • Innermost layer of the heart
  • Thin layer of fibrous connective tissue
  • Endothelial cells
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315
Q

Where are heart valves found and what are they covered by?

A

Covered by endothelium and attach to central fibrous body

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316
Q

What do heart valves consist of?

A

Fibrosa (dense fibrous CT), spongiosa (loose fibrous CT) and ventricularis (collagen dn elastin)

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317
Q

What is the structure of cardiac myocytes?

A

Branching cells with a single nucleus. Their myofibrils are in register, so they appear striated

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318
Q

What hormone do atrial myocytes secrete?

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide

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319
Q

Where can Purkinje fibres be found?

A

Beneath the endocardium

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320
Q

What is the function of Purkinje fibres?

A

To transmit electrical impulses

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321
Q

What is the structure of the Purkinje fibres?

A

Large specialised cardiac muscle cells with a cytoplasm rich in glycogen

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322
Q

Which is smaller: myocytes of the SAN or regular?

A

Those of the SAN

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323
Q

What is the difference between SAN myocytes and regular myocytes?

A

The myocytes of the SAN have no intercalated discs and are joined by desmosomes . They are embedded in fibrous tissue

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324
Q

Name two things which all cardiac myocytes have.

A

A nucleus and mitochondria

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325
Q

What cell type lines the mitral valve?

A

Endothelial cells

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326
Q

What cell type lines the inner surface of the heart, including the surface of the cardiac valves?

A

Vascular endothelial cells

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327
Q

Where are the nodules of Arantius found?

A

In the aortic valve cusps

328
Q

What are the nodules of Arantius?

A

Nodules of fibroelastic tissue on the centre of each free edge of each of the valve cusps in the aortic and pulmonary valve

329
Q

Where are the nodules of Arantius more prominent?

A

The aortic valve, due to increased pressure in that side of the circulation

330
Q

What is the yellow pigment which accumulates in cardiac myocytes with increasing age?

A

Lipofuscin

331
Q

How is lipofuscin formed?

A

By periodisation of membrane lipids

332
Q

Where do the coronary arteries run?

A

In the epicardium

333
Q

What is the structure of the coronary arteries?

A

Medium-sized muscular arteries with external elastic lamina

334
Q

Where are Weibel-Palade bodies found?

A

The endothelial cells in the heart

335
Q

What is the function of Weibel-Palade bodies?

A

Storage granules found in the cytoplasm which contain vo Willebrand factor and other vascular mediators

336
Q

Name 4 places which lacks lymphatics

A
  • Cartilage
  • Eye
  • Bone marrow
  • Spinal cord
337
Q

What is the structure of respiratory epithelium?

A
  • Pseudostratified
  • Ciliated epithelial cells
  • Interspersed goblet cells
338
Q

Where does respiratory epithelium line?

A

The tubular portion of the respiratory tract (Nasopharynx, bronchi, conducting airways and sinuses)

339
Q

What cells are the alveoli lined by?

A

Pneumocytes

340
Q

What are the nares lined by?

A

Stratified squamous keratinising epithelium

341
Q

What are the vocal cords lined by?

A

Non-keratinising stratified squamous epithelium

342
Q

What is the apex of the nasopharynx lined by?

A

Olfactory epithelium

343
Q

What holds open the larynx and trachea?

A

Hyaline cartilage. Holds the airways open against negative pressure during inspiration

344
Q

What bridges the gap between the free ends of the C-shaped cartilages in the trachea?

A

Smooth muscle (trachealis

345
Q

What is present in the walls of the bronchi but not in the bronchioles?

A

Cartilage

346
Q

Where is Reinke’s space?

A

In the vocal cords

347
Q

What is Reinke’s space occupied by and where does it lie?

A
  • Occupied by the loose irregular fibrous tissue

- Lies between vocal epithelium. Beneath that is the vocalis muscle

348
Q

What does type II pneumocytes secrete?

A

Surfactant

349
Q

What do goblet cells produce?

A

Mucus

350
Q

What do Clara cells do?

A

Secrete lipoproteins that prevent luminal adhesion

351
Q

What do type I pneumocytes do?

A

Form the air/blood barrier

352
Q

What do alveolar macrophages do?

A

Act as phagocytes

353
Q

What are the layers of the air-blood barrier?

A
  • Surfactant
  • Type I pneumocyte
  • Basement membrane
  • Vascular endothelial cell
354
Q

How thick is the air-blood barrier?

A

600nm

355
Q

Where are the pores of Kohn found?

A

In the alveolar walls

356
Q

What is the function of the pores of Kohn?

A

They connect adjacent alveoli to each other. They allow for rapid even distribution of air through the lung on inhalation

357
Q

What is a disadvantage of the pores of Kohn?

A

They allow for the passage of microbes, which may result in lobar pneumonia

358
Q

What is the histological structure of the posterior third of the tongue?

A

Stratified squamous non-keratinising epithelium over a loose fibrous connective tissue

359
Q

What does the epithelium overlie in the posterior third of the tongue?

A

A lymphoid infiltrate (part of Waldeyer’s ring)

360
Q

Where is the circumvallate papillae?

A

Between the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue. It forms a V shaped line

361
Q

What is the function of the filiform papillae?

A

To roughen the surface of the tongue, to help aid in mastication

362
Q

What is the most numerous papillae on the tongue?

A

The filiform papillae

363
Q

Where is the filiform papillae found?

A

The dorsal surface of the tongue

364
Q

What is the colour of the cytoplasm in mucous glands?

A

Clear

365
Q

What kind of gland is the submandibular gland?

A

Mixed mucous/serous

366
Q

What kind of gland is the sublingual gland?

A

Mostly mucous

367
Q

What kind of gland is the buccal gland?

A

Mostly mucous

368
Q

What kind of gland is the lingual gland?

A

Mostly mucous

369
Q

What are the features of oesophageal mucosa?

A
  • Non-keratinising stratified squamous epithelium
  • Lymphocytes in the submucosa
  • Mucinous glands in the submucosa which have squamous-lined ducts
370
Q

What epithelium lines gland ducts?

A

Squamous or epithelium

371
Q

What is the structure of gastric antrum?

A
  • Has long branching crypts
  • Lined by mucous-secreting cells
  • Lack of parietal cells
372
Q

Which cells secrete intrinsic factors?

A

Parietal cells

373
Q

What do gastric parietal cells secrete?

A

Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor

374
Q

What do the surface mucous cells secrete?

A

A bicarbonate rich mucous

375
Q

What is one role of intrinsic factor?

A

Helps with absorption of vitamin B12, which enters via the diet

376
Q

What do chief cells secrete?

A

Pepsinogen, which is later cleaved to activate pepsin in the gastric lumen

377
Q

What are the common presentations of the duodenum?

A

Broad leaf-like villi and the submucosal Brunner’s glands

378
Q

What is the role of Brunner’s glands?

A

Secrete an alkaline mucus that helps neutralise gastric acid

379
Q

What is chyme?

A

Digested food that leaves the stomach

380
Q

What does ileum look like histologically?

A
  • Villous appearance

- Prominent lymphoid aggregates (Peyer’s patches) in the submucosa and mucosa

381
Q

Name a histological difference between the ileum and the jejunum & duodenum

A

The jejunum & duodenum don’t have Peyer’s patches

382
Q

Name a histological difference between the ileum and the appendix & colon

A

The appendix and colon don’t have a villous architecture

383
Q

Where does Auerbach’s plexus lie in the colon?

A

Muscular propria

384
Q

What are the two autonomic nerve plexuses which innervate the GI tract?

A

Meissner’s plexus and Auerbach’s plexus

385
Q

Where does Meissner’s plexus lie?

A

In the submucosa

386
Q

Where does Auerbach’s plexus lie?

A

Between the layers of the muscularies propria

387
Q

What is significant about the muscular propria in the colon?

A

It is double layered. The layers are the inner circular and outer longitudinal

388
Q

What is the structure of the epithelium in the colon?

A

A simple columnar layer of mucus-secreting enterocytes

389
Q

What is something which is featured in the small intestine, but not the colon?

A

A prominent brush border

390
Q

Where are the epithelial stem cells of the colonic mucosa found?

A

At the base of the crypts of the Lieberkhun

391
Q

Where is the muscular mucosa of the colon found?

A

Immediately below the lamina propria

392
Q

What arteries supply the colon?

A

The superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery

393
Q

Where is vitamin B12 absorbed?

A

In the terminal ileum

394
Q

What is the structure of a classic lobule of the liver?

A
  • Roughly hexagonal
  • A portal vein, hepatic artery and bile duct at each corner
  • Central vein in the middle of the hexagon
395
Q

Where is bile synthesised?

A

Hepatocytes

396
Q

What are the phagocytes of the liver?

A

Kuppfer cells

397
Q

What are the antigen presenting cells of the liver?

A

Ito cells

398
Q

Where are Ito cells found?

A

Space of Disse

399
Q

Where is angiotensinogen synthesised?

A

The liver

400
Q

Where does haematopiesis take place in the foetus?

A

Hepatic sinusoids

401
Q

What is the structure of hepatocytes?

A

Large polygonal epithelial cells that are arranged in plates compromising thin cords of hepatocytes, supported by a meshwork of type 3 collagen (reticulin). They have a microvillous brush border and abundant mitochondria

402
Q

What is the function of the SER in hepatocytes?

A

Inactivates drugs and toxins

403
Q

What is the function of the RER in hepatocytes?

A

A role of synthesis of plasma proteins

404
Q

What is a function of the Ito cells?

A

Store fat in the liver

405
Q

Where can Kuppfer cells be found?

A

Lie in the sinusoids of the liver

406
Q

What cells are Kuppfer cells derived from?

A

Monocytes

407
Q

What will happen to Kuppfer cells in a patient with haemochromatosis?

A

The cells will accumulate the pigment haemosiderin, which contains iron

408
Q

What can hepatocytes store?

A

Fat soluble vitamins

409
Q

What can the gall bladder absorb?

A

Water

410
Q

What is the structure of the gallbladder epithelium?

A

Columnar, with a prominent microvillous brush border

411
Q

Why do the cells of the gall bladder absorb water?

A

To concentrate the bile that was secreted by hepatocytes

412
Q

Where are acinar cell found?

A

Exocrine pancreas

413
Q

What is the function of acinar cells?

A

Secrete a wide variety of enzymes (all of which are in precursor form)

414
Q

Where is secretin secreted from?

A

The endocrine cells of the GI tract

415
Q

Where is albumin made?

A

The hepatocytes

416
Q

Where are centriacinar cells found?

A

Exocrine pancreas

417
Q

What is the function of centriacinar cells?

A
  • First part of the ductal system of the pancreas
  • Secrete a bicarbonate-rich alkaline solution when stimulated by secretin
  • Secretes mucin
418
Q

What is the function of cholecystokinin?

A

Causes acinar cells to release digestive enzymes by exocytosis

419
Q

Where is insulin and pancreatic polypeptide secreted from?

A

Islets of Langerhans

420
Q

Which structure appears to most prevalent in the renal cortex?

A

The proximal convoluted tubule

421
Q

Which structure lines the outside of the basement membrane of the glomerular capillaries?

A

Podocytes

422
Q

Which arteries directly gives rise to the afferent arterioles in the kidney?

A

Interlobular arteries

423
Q

What is the name given to the epithelium which lines the renal pelvis?

A

Urothelium

424
Q

Where can pseudo stratified columnar ciliated epithelium be found?

A

Trachea of the lungs

425
Q

What epithelium lines the ducts and convoluted tubules of the kidney?

A

Simple cuboidal

426
Q

Where is renin secreted from?

A

The macula densa of the kidneys

427
Q

Where is aldosterone made?

A

In the adrenal gland in the adrenal cortex

428
Q

Where is vasopressin made?

A

In the hypothalamus but secreted by the posterior pituitary

429
Q

What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A

Macula densa + afferent arteriole

430
Q

Where in the kidney is very responsive to aldosterone?

A

The collecting ducts

431
Q

What are Lacis cells?

A

Lightly staining pericytes in the kidney

432
Q

What does the ureter lack?

A

Muscular mucosa

433
Q

What is the most easily discerned at the bladder neck?

A

Muscular propria

434
Q

What is the structure of the male urethra?

A

A membranous urethra lined by urothelium

435
Q

Where does the external sphincter lie in the male urethra?

A

Surrounds the membranous urethra

436
Q

What is the outermost layer of the epidermis?

A

Stratum corneum

437
Q

What is the layer of the epidermis which contains the melanocytes?

A

Stratum basale

438
Q

What is the layer of the epidermis which contains visible desmosomes?

A

Stratum spinosum

439
Q

Where is keratin synthesised?

A

In the stratum granulosum of the epidermis

440
Q

What is the function of melanocytes?

A

To synthesise melanin from tyrosine

441
Q

What is a hair follicle?

A

A down-growth of the epidermis into the dermis

442
Q

What is a hair bulb?

A

A downward extension of the epidermis into the dermis

443
Q

What is a hair papilla?

A

A specialised part of the dermis that is richly innervated and richly vascular

444
Q

Where are apocrine sweat glands usually found and what cytoplasm type do they have?

A
  • Found in skin around anus/genitals

- Eosinophilic cytoplasm

445
Q

Which glands open directly onto the surface of the labia?

A

Sebaceous glands

446
Q

What do Pacinian Corpuscles do?

A

Sense changes in pressure. They have a part which is compromised of Schwann cells

447
Q

What do B cells do?

A

Become plasma cells and secrete antibodies

448
Q

What do T cells do?

A

Involved in cell mediated immunity

449
Q

What do T helper cells do?

A

Helps B cells and activates macrophages

450
Q

What do T cytotoxic cells do?

A

Kill previously marked target cells

451
Q

What do T suppressor cells do?

A

Suppress TH cells and hence suppress the immune response

452
Q

What do natural killer cells do?

A

Mainly kill virus infected cells

453
Q

What do monocytes do?

A
  • Immature cells
  • Circulate briefly in the blood
  • Readily differentiate into other cells
454
Q

Where do monocytes differentiate into tissue macrophages?

A

Everywhere

455
Q

Where do monocytes differentiate into Kupffer cells?

A

Liver

456
Q

Where do monocytes differentiate into osteoclasts?

A

Bone

457
Q

Where do monocytes differentiate into antigen presenting cells?

A

Everywhere

458
Q

Where do monocytes differentiate into alveolar macrophages?

A

Lung

459
Q

What are the functions of platelets?

A

Responsible for clotting blood, notably when the endothelium lining all blood vessels is breached

460
Q

What is the structure of respiratory epithelium?

A

Pseudostratified, ciliated epithelial cells with interspersed goblet cells

461
Q

Where does respiratory epithelium line?

A

The tubular portion of the respiratory system

462
Q

Name 4 functions of the nose

A

Filtration, humidification, warming and olfaction

463
Q

What is the cell structure of the nose?

A
  • Both keratinising and non-keratinising squamous epithelium
  • Respiratory epithelium
  • Richly vascular lamina propria containign seromucinous glands
464
Q

How does olfaction happen in the nose?

A

Olfactory receptor cells and bipolar neurones in the pseudo stratified columnar epithelium

465
Q

Name 4 functions of the nasopharynx

A

Gas transport, humidification, warming and olfaction

466
Q

What cell type is the nasopharynx lined by?

A

Respiratory epithelium

467
Q

Give 3 functions of the nasal sinuses

A
  • Lower the weight of the skull
  • Add resonance to the voice
  • Humidify and warm inspired air
468
Q

What are the nasal sinuses lined by?

A

Respiratory epithelium

469
Q

What is the function of the larynx?

A

Voice production

470
Q

What is the structure of the larynx?

A
  • Cartilaginous box
  • Respiratory epithelium
  • Loose fibrocollagenous storm with seromucinous glands
  • Lymphatics and blood vessels common
471
Q

What is the function of the vocal cords?

A

Voice production

472
Q

What is the structure of the vocal cords?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium overlying loose irregular fibrous tissue (Reinke’s space), almost no lymphatics

473
Q

What is the function of the trachea?

A

Conducts air to and from the lungs

474
Q

What is the structure of the trachea?

A
  • Respiratory epithelium
  • Seromucinous glands in submucosa
  • Trachealis muscle posteriorly
  • C-shaped cartilaginous rings
475
Q

What are the functions of Clara cells?

A
  • Most numerous in terminal bronchioles
  • Oxidise inhaled toxins
  • Antiprotease function
  • Surfactant production/elimination
  • Stem cell
476
Q

What are the functions of respiratory bronchioles?

A
  • First part of distal respiratory tract
  • Gas exchange as well as transport
  • Link terminal bronchioles and alveolar ducts
477
Q

What is the structure of respiratory bronchioles?

A
  • Cuboidal ciliated epithelium
  • Spirally-arranged smooth muscle
  • No cartilage
478
Q

What is the function of the alveoli?

A

Gas exchange

479
Q

What is the function of Type I pneumocytes?

A

Allow for gas exchange

480
Q

What is the function of Type II pnuemocytes?

A

Produce surfactant

481
Q

What is the function of alveolar macrophages?

A

Phagocytose particulates including dusts and bacteria

482
Q

What is the order of the blood-air barrier of the alveoli?

A

Type I pneumocytes, fused basement membrane of pneumocyte and capillary, vascular endothelial cell

483
Q

What is the interstitium in the lung?

A

Where endothelial cells aren’t in direct contact with pneumocytes

484
Q

What is the visceral pleura?

A

Flat mesothelial cells in the lungs

485
Q

What type of cells are Sertoli cells?

A

Phagocytes

486
Q

Where is testosterone secreted from?

A

Leydig cells

487
Q

Which cells contain Reinke’s crystalloids?

A

Leydig cells

488
Q

How much does the normal human test weigh?

A

15-19g

489
Q

Where do the rete testes lie?

A

Between the straight tubule and epididymis

490
Q

Where is the site of acid phosphatase storage?

A

The prostate

491
Q

Where does sperm mature?

A

The epididymis

492
Q

Give 2 features of the corpus spongiosum

A
  • Highly vascular

- Urothelium lining duct

493
Q

Where is the spiral mitochondria kept in the spermatozoa?

A

The body/midpiece

494
Q

Where is there abundant lipofuscin in males?

A

The seminal vesicles

495
Q

What is the function of PSA?

A

Liquidises semen after ejaculation

496
Q

What is the basic function of FSH?

A

Causes proliferation of ovarian follicles

497
Q

How many primordial follicles are present at birth?

A

400,000

498
Q

What is the usual cite of fertilisation?

A

The Fallopian tube

499
Q

What function is a prominent brush border usually linked to?

A

Absorption

500
Q

Name the two parts of the body with ciliated epithelium

A

Fallopian tube and respiratory tract

501
Q

Which part of the female reproductive tract is hormonally sensitive?

A

All of it

502
Q

What does the endocervix do to act as barrier against sperm?

A

Secretes mucus to act as a barrier

503
Q

What is proliferative endometrium characterised by?

A

The presence of stroll mitotic figures

504
Q

What is significant about the cervical transformation zone?

A

It is a prominent site for cervical cancer to form

505
Q

Give 2 features of secretory endometrium

A
  • Prominent spiral arteries

- Subnuclear glycogen vacuoles

506
Q

Give 3 features of early secretory phase of the endometrium

A
  • Growth occurring in the glands
  • Pale vacuoles (subnuclear)
  • Lack of luminal secretions
507
Q

What epithelium does the labia majora have?

A

Stratified squamous keratinising epithelium with hairs

508
Q

What is the structure of the gut from inside to outside?

A
  • Lumen
  • Epithelium
  • Basement membrane
  • Lamina propria
  • Muscularis mucosae
  • Submucosa
  • Inner circular layer
  • Outer longitudinal layer
  • Adventitia/serosa
  • Muscularis propria
509
Q

What is the structure of the stomach from inside to outside?

A
  • Lumen
  • Epithelium
  • Basement membrane
  • Lamina propria
  • Muscularis mucosae
  • Submucosa
  • Innermost oblique layer
  • Middle circular layer
  • Outermost longitudinal layer
  • Adventitia/serosa
  • Muscularis propria
510
Q

What is the purpose of the oral cavity?

A

Receives food, chews food and starts digestion

511
Q

What kind of cancer is oral cancer?

A

Squamous cancer

512
Q

What are the 3 salivary glands?

A
  • Parotid gland
  • Submandibular gland
  • Sublingual gland
513
Q

What is the purpose of salivary glands?

A

Produce saliva and enzymes

514
Q

What is Sjorgen’s syndrome?

A

No saliva production

515
Q

What is the purpose of the oesophagus?

A

Swallow food

516
Q

What is the cellular structure of the oesophagus?

A
  • Squamous epithelium

- Has sub mucous glands

517
Q

What is the purpose of the stomach?

A

Digests food

518
Q

What do parietal cells of the stomach do?

A

Secrete HCl

519
Q

Name 2 substances what chief cells secrete

A

Pepsinogen and lipase

520
Q

Give 4 purposes of the intestines

A
  • Digest food
  • Absorb food
  • Absorb water
  • Resist bugs
521
Q

What is the function of the interstitial cells of Cajal?

A

‘Pacemaker’ which creates the potential which leads to the contraction of smooth muscle

522
Q

Give the basic anatomy of the GI tract in order

A

Stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, large intestine (colon)

523
Q

What is the purpose of the duodenum?

A
  • Digests food
  • Absorbs food
  • Resist bugs
524
Q

What is the purpose of the jejunum and ileum?

A

Digests food, absorbs food and resists bugs

525
Q

What is the purpose of the appendix?

A

The ‘safe house’

526
Q

What is the anatomy of the large colon?

A
  • Ascending colon
  • Transverse colon
  • Descending colon
  • Sigmoid colon
  • Rectum
  • Anus
527
Q

What is the purpose of the colon?

A
  • Absorbs food
  • Absorbs water
  • Resists bugs
528
Q

What do the portal tracts in the liver contain?

A

Portal veins, arteries and bile ducts

529
Q

How are hepatocytes arranged in the liver?

A

Arranged into cords with intervening sinusoids and central veins

530
Q

What is the conventional design of the cells in the liver?

A
  • Divided into classic lobules

- Bile duct, portal vein and hepatic artery at each ‘corner’ of the hexagon with a central vein in the middle

531
Q

What is the drainage of the classic lobule in the liver?

A

An area drained by one central hepatic lobule

532
Q

What is the acinus structure of hepatocytes in the liver based around?

A

Blood supply rather than drainage

533
Q

What is the structure of the acinus in the liver?

A

Links the central vein in two different hexagons by 2 sets of bile ducts, portal veins and hepatic arteries

534
Q

Why is there some variation in the size of different hepatocytes?

A

Some are more richly oxygenated

535
Q

Give 10 features of hepatocytes

A
  • Principle functional cells of the liver
  • Polyhedral epithelial cells
  • Abundant mitochondria
  • Large central spherical nuclei
  • Prominent nucleoli
  • Active Golgi
  • Prominent ER
  • Lots of mitochondria
  • Numerous perioxisomes
  • May be binucleate
536
Q

What are the 3 important surfaces of the liver and what are their proportions?

A

Sinusoidal (70%), canalicular (15%) and intercellular (15%)

537
Q

What is the function of the sinusoidal surface in the liver?

A

Permits exchange of material with blood (Space of Disse)

538
Q

What is the function of the canalicular surface in the liver?

A

Permits the excretion of bile

539
Q

Give 4 features of sinusoids

A
  • Highly specialised blood vessels
  • Thin discontinuous fenestrated epithelium
  • No basement membrane
  • Contains scattered Kupffer cells
540
Q

What is the structure of the intrahepatic biliary tree and what is the change in epithelium?

A
  • Goes from simple cuboidal to columnar epithelium

- Canaliculi to Bile ductules to Trabecular ducts to Bile ducts

541
Q

Give 2 functions of the gallbladder

A
  • Concentrates and stores bile

- Expels bile via common bile duct into duodenum

542
Q

What is the structure of the specialised mucosa of the gallbladder?

A
  • Simple columnar epithelium
  • Microvilli
  • Thrown into folds
  • Adapted for water and salt absorption
  • Connective tissue (lamina propria)
543
Q

What is the function of the exocrine pancreas?

A

To synthesise and secrete enzymes and a bicarbonate-rich fluid into the duodenum

544
Q

What is the structure of the exocrine pancreas?

A
  • Poorly defined fibrous capsule with septum dividing gland into lobules
  • Epithelial cells arranged into acini
545
Q

Give the structure of acinar cells

A
  • Epithelial
  • Pyramidal shape
  • Basally rich in RER
  • Apically, has zymogen granules (enzyme precursors)
546
Q

Name the 4 ducts of the exocrine pancreas

A
  • Centroacinar cells
  • Intercalated ducts
  • Interlobular ducts
  • Main pancreatic duct
547
Q

How can the nephron’s loop of Henle be further divided?

A

Into a thick and thin limb

548
Q

Give 7 features of the glomerulus of the nephron

A
  • Tuft of convoluted fenestrated capillaries
  • Glomerular basement membrane
  • Lined by podocytes
  • Supported by mesangial cells
  • Encased in Bowman’s capsule
  • Has capillary epithelial cells
  • Mesenglial cells lie between capillaries
549
Q

What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus compromised of?

A

Afferent arteriole and distal convoluted tubule

550
Q

What does the afferent arteriole contribute?

A

Granular cells

551
Q

What is the function of renin?

A

Secreted in response to low blood pressure, to increase blood pressure

552
Q

What is the macula densa?

A

A patch of closely packed endothelial cells along the distal convoluted tubule

553
Q

What is the function of the macula densa?

A

Senses NaCl concentration and regulates tubuloglomerular feedback

554
Q

What is the structure of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A
  • Cuboidal epithelium
  • Round central/basal nuclei
  • Brush border of microvilli at apical end
  • Many mitochondria so appear eosinophilic
555
Q

What is the function of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

Reabsorption of NaCl, proteins, polypeptides, amino acids and glucose

556
Q

What is the cell type in the thin segment of the loop of Henle?

A

Simple squamous

557
Q

What is the cell type in the thick segment of the loop of Henle?

A

Low cuboidal

558
Q

What is the blood supply to the loop of Henle?

A

The rich vasa recta

559
Q

What is the epithelium in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

Low cuboidal epithelium

560
Q

Give 2 significances in structure of the distal convoluted tubule

A
  • Scanty microvilli

- Numerous mitochondria

561
Q

What are the 2 functions of the distal convoluted tubule?

A
  • Regulates acid-base by secreting hydrogen ions and absorbing bicarbonate via cellular carbonic anhydrase
  • Regulates Na level by exchanging Na for K
562
Q

What is the epithelium in the collecting duct?

A

Cuboidal epithelium

563
Q

What is the function of principle cells in the collecting duct?

A

Respond to aldosterone and ADH

564
Q

What is the function of intercalated cells in the collecting duct?

A

Exchange hydrogen ions for bicarbonate ions

565
Q

Name 5 arteries which supply the kidneys

A
  • Abdominal aorta
  • Renal artery (at L1)
  • Interlobular artery
  • Interlobar artery
  • Arcuate artery
566
Q

Name 3 veins which drain the kidneys

A
  • Vasa recta
  • Renal veins
  • Inferior vena cava
567
Q

What endothelium does the renal pelvis have?

A

Urothelium

568
Q

What is the function of the renal pelvis?

A

Transmits filtrate from nephron to ureter

569
Q

What is urothelium?

A
  • Specialised epithelium found in the collection/drainage parts of the urinary tract
  • Complex stratified epithelium
  • Layer of umbrella cells overlies a pseudostratified layer of polygonal cells
570
Q

What is the epithelium in the ureters?

A

Transitional epithelium

571
Q

What is the structure of the ureters?

A
  • Spiral muscular tube (inner - longitudinal & outer - circular)
  • No serosa
  • Loose adventitia
572
Q

What is the epithelium in the bladder?

A

Urothelium

573
Q

What are the cell layers in the bladder?

A
  • Urothelium
  • Lamina propria
  • Muscularis mucosa
  • Submucosa
  • Muscularis propria
  • Subserosa and serosa
574
Q

How is reflux into the ureter from the bladder prevented?

A

By a functional valve

575
Q

How long is the female urethra?

A

4-5cm

576
Q

What is the structure of the female urethra?

A
  • Proximally transitional epithelium
  • Distally squamous epithelium
  • Paraurethral and periurethral glands open into the urethra
577
Q

How long is the male urethra?

A

20cm

578
Q

What is the structure of the male urethra?

A
  • Prostatic urethra
  • Membranous urethra lined by urothelium
  • Penile urethra pseudostratified epithelia proximally
  • Stratified squamous epithelium distally
579
Q

Which parts of the body have urothelium?

A

Renal pelvis, ureter, bladder and urethra

580
Q

Name the glands which are present in the epidermis

A

Eccrine, apocrine and sebaceous glands

581
Q

What is the structure of the basement membrane in the epidermis?

A
  • Not usually visible with H&E

- Made of type IV collagen

582
Q

What is the structure of the stratum basale in the epidermis?

A
  • Sits on the basement membrane
  • Basal epithelial cells (stem cells)
  • Melanocytes
583
Q

What are the function of melanocytes in the stratum basale of the epidermis?

A

Synthesise melanin and transfer it to surrounding keratinocytes in melansomes in response to MSH and ACTH stimulation

584
Q

What is the function of melanin?

A

Absorbs UV light, protecting us from non-ionising radiation damage

585
Q

What other two cell types are present in the stratum spinosum?

A

Langerhans cells and Merkel cells

586
Q

What is the structure of stratum spinosum cells?

A
  • Plump polygonal keratinocytes

- Prominent intercellular adhesions

587
Q

What are the functions of the Langerhans cells in the stratum spinsoum?

A

For antigen recognition

588
Q

What are the functions of the Merkel cells in the stratum spinsoum?

A

For sensory functions

589
Q

What is the structure of the stratum granulosum in the skin?

A
  • Flattened squames
  • Eosinophilic cytoplasm
  • Haematoxophilic keratosis-hyaline granules
590
Q

What’s the structure of stratum corneum in the skin?

A
  • Acellular
  • Plates of keratin
  • Prominent in certain sites
591
Q

What is epidermal adnexae?

A

Downgrowths of the epidermis into the dermis

592
Q

Give 4 examples of epidermal adnexae

A
  • Hair follicles
  • Sebaceous glands
  • Eccrine sweat glands
  • Apocrine sweat glands
593
Q

What is the function of sebaceous glands in the skin?

A
  • Accompany hair follicles

- Produce sebaceous secretions which lubricate and waterproof hairs

594
Q

What kind of secretion do the sebaceous glands do?

A

Holocrine secretion

595
Q

What is the function of apocrine glands in the skin?

A
  • Accompany hair follicles

- Axillae and groins ceruminous glands in the ear

596
Q

What is the function of eccrine glands?

A

Give a thin watery secretion

597
Q

What is the space in the derma-epidermal junction?

A

The papillary dermis

598
Q

What is the general structure of the dermis?

A
  • Irregular loose connective tissue
  • Fibroblasts
  • Collagen
  • GAG matrix
  • Blood vessels + lymphatics
  • Nerves
  • Sensory cells
  • Scattered inflammatory cells
599
Q

What are the sensory structures of the dermis?

A
  • Meissner’s corpuscle

- Pacinian corpuscle

600
Q

What is the structure of Meissner’s corpuscle?

A

Encapsulated unmyelinated nerve endings, dermal papillae, especially in hairless skin

601
Q

What is the function of Meissner’s corpuscle?

A

For fine touch

602
Q

What is the structure of Pacinian corpuscle?

A

Large encapsulated sensory receptors, central non-myelinated nerve and surrounding lamellae

603
Q

What is the function of Pacinian corpuscle?

A

For vibration and tickle

604
Q

What is the structure of the subcutis?

A

Adipose tissue and fibrovascular septa

605
Q

What are the functions of the subcutis?

A
  • Insulation
  • Shock-absorber
  • Food store
606
Q

What is the structure of the breast tissue?

A

Myoepithelial system of ducts and lobules set in fibroadipose tissue, ducts all empty at the nipple

607
Q

When is breast tissue present from?

A

Birth

608
Q

What is the structure of terminal duct lobular units in the breast?

A

Lobules are arranged around a terminal duct and are set in loose fibrous connective tissue

609
Q

What are the ducts and lobules of the breast lined by?

A
  • Two layers of cells

- Outer myoepithelial and inner columnar epithelial

610
Q

What is the process regarding lactation?

A

Ducts and an inner layer of secretory cells which become vacuolated

611
Q

What are the three histological layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis, dermis and subcutis. The epidermis and dermis can be further subdivided

612
Q

What two features of skin are downgrowths of the epidermis?

A
  • Sweat glands

- Hair follicles

613
Q

What are the testis and how much do they weigh?

A
  • Paired organ in the scrotum

- Average weight 15-19g

614
Q

What are the 4 layers of the testis?

A
  • Capsule
  • Tunica vaginalis
  • Tunica albuginea
  • Tunica vasculosa
615
Q

What is the cellular structure of the tunica vaginalis?

A

Flattened layer of mesothelial cells

616
Q

What is the cellular structure of the tunica vasculosa?

A

Loose connective tissue containing blood vessels and lymphatics

617
Q

How is testicular parenchyma divided?

A

Into lobules by septa originating from the capsule

618
Q

How many lobules are there in the testicular parenchyma?

A

Around 250

619
Q

What do the lobules of the testicular parenchyma contain?

A

1-4 seminiferous tubules

620
Q

What do seminiferous tubules contain?

A

Germ cells in varying stages of maturation and Sertoli cells

621
Q

What do Type A spermatogonia look like?

A

Darkly stained stem cells and pale stained cells

622
Q

What do Type B spermatogonia look like?

A

Differentiating progenitor cells which have spherical nuclei with densely stained masses of chromatin

623
Q

What is the pattern of development for spermatogonia?

A

Spermatogonia - primary spermatocyte - secondary spermatocyte - spermatid - spermatozoon

624
Q

What is the cellular structure of Sertoli cells?

A

Columnar cells on the basement membrane of the tubules

625
Q

What is the function of Sertoli cells?

A
  • Send cytoplasmic projections around the germ cells

- Supportive, phagocytic and secretory functions

626
Q

What is the structure of the nuclei of the Sertoli cells?

A

Irregularly shaped, folded and have a prominent nucleolus

627
Q

What is present in the head of spermatozoa?

A

Acrosomal cap and nucleus

628
Q

What is present in the midpiece of spermatozoa?

A

Spiral mitochondria

629
Q

What is present in the tail of spermatozoa?

A

Neck (centrioles), axoneme and plasma membrane

630
Q

Where are Leydig cells found?

A

Singly and in clusters in the interstitial between tubules

631
Q

Name two features of Leydig cells

A
  • Abundant cytoplasm containing lipid

- Has Reinke’s crystalloids

632
Q

What is the function of Leydig cells?

A

Produce testosterone

633
Q

What is the rete testes?

A

An network of tubules at the hilium of the testis

634
Q

What is the function of the rete testis?

A

Receive luminal contents from seminiferous tubules. Acts as a mixing chamber

635
Q

What is the cellular structure of the rete testis?

A

Lined by simple squamous or low columnar epithelium on a relatively thick basement membrane

636
Q

What is the structure of the efferent ducts of the male reproductive system?

A

12-15 convoluted tubules which empty into epididymis

637
Q

What is the cellular structure of the efferent ducts?

A

Lined by ciliated and non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium with interspersed cuboidal cels (basal cells) giving a pseudostratified appearance

638
Q

What is the structure of the epididymis?

A

A tubular structure 4-5cm long containing a highly convoluted epididymal duct

639
Q

What is the cellular structure of the epididymis?

A
  • Lined by tall columnar cells with long typical cilia

- Epithelium supported by a thick basement membrane surrounding which is a well-defined muscular coat

640
Q

What is the structure of the vas deferens?

A
  • 30-40 cm tubular structure arising from the caudal portion of the epididymis
  • Distal part enlarged to form the ampulla which joins the excretory duct of the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct
641
Q

What is the cellular structure of the vas deferens?

A
  • Lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium comprising columnar and basal cells
  • Has thick muscular wall of 3 layers
642
Q

What is the prostate?

A
  • A pear shaped glandular organ

- Weighs up to 20g in young adult

643
Q

Where does the prostate surround?

A

The bladder neck and prostatic urethra

644
Q

What are the lobes of the prostate?

A

Anterior, middle, posterior and two lateral lobes

645
Q

What are the gland regions of the prostate?

A

Peripheral, central, transitional and peri-urethral

646
Q

What is the prostate covered by?

A

An ill-defined fibro-connective tissue capsule

647
Q

Name the two main components of the prostate

A

Glandular and non-glandular components

648
Q

What are the ducts of the prostate?

A

Large primary and small secondary

649
Q

What are the acini of the prostate?

A

30-50 tubuloalveolar glands with convoluted edges

650
Q

What are the acini of the pancreas lined by?

A

Secretory cells, basal cells and neuroendocrine cells

651
Q

What do the secretory cells located on the luminal side of the prostate do?

A

Secrete PSA and PAP into the seminal fluid

652
Q

What is the structure of the stroma of the prostate?

A
  • Smooth muscle
  • Fibroelastic fibres
  • Blood vessels
  • Nerves
653
Q

What happens the the stroma and glands of the prostate with age?

A

Hyperplasia (enlargement)

654
Q

What are the seminal vesicles?

A

Paired highly coiled tubular structure which are posterolateral to the bladder

655
Q

Where does the duct of the seminal vesicle empty?

A

Into the ejaculatory duct

656
Q

What are the seminal vesicles lined by?

A

Tall non-ciliated columnar epithelium

657
Q

Name 2 features of the seminal vesicles

A
  • Has vacuoles and lipofuscin

- Mucosa is folded

658
Q

What is the broad structure of the seminal vesicles?

A

Has 2 layers of smooth muscle and an adventitia

659
Q

What is the general structure of the penis?

A
  • Erectile tissue arranged into 3 components
  • Left and right corpora cavernous on the dorsal side
  • Corpus spongiosum on the inferior side (surrounds urethra)
660
Q

What does the erectile tissue compromise of?

A
  • Irregular vascular spaces separated by fibroelastic tissue and smooth muscle
  • Rich nerve supply
661
Q

What do the testis contain?

A

Seminiferous tubules that produce spermatozoa

662
Q

What 3 structure produce the bulk of the seminal fluid?

A

Prostate, seminal vesicles and Cowper’s glands

663
Q

What is the ovary?

A

A paired organ lying on either side of the uterus close to the lateral pelvis wall

664
Q

What are the three attachments of the ovary?

A
  • The mesovary by the broad ligament
  • The uterus by the utero-ovarian ligament
  • The pelvic wall by the suspensory ligament
665
Q

What joins the mesovary and the ovary?

A

The broad ligament

666
Q

What joins the uterus and the ovary?

A

The utero-ovarian ligament

667
Q

What joins the pelvic wall and the ovary?

A

The suspensory ligament

668
Q

What is the histological structure of the ovary?

A
  • Covered by a single layer of modified mesothelium
  • A poorly defined connective tissue layer (tunica albugnia)
  • Stroma is divided into cortex and medulla with indistinct boundaries
669
Q

What is the structure of the ovarian cortex (top portion)?

A

Spindle stroma cells arranged in whorls/storiform pattern, ovarian follicles, some leutinised cells

670
Q

What is the structure of the ovarian medulla (bottom portion)?

A

Loose fibroelastic tissue with blood vessels, lymphatics and nerves

671
Q

What is the rete ovarii?

A

An analogue of the rete testis - present at the hilium

672
Q

Where are primordial follicles found?

A

The periphery of the ovarian cortex

673
Q

Give 2 features of primordial follicles

A
  • Contains primary oocyte in a resting state

- Surrounded by a single layer of epithelial cells (granulosa cells)

674
Q

What is the mechanism of development into primary follicles from primordial follicles?

A
  • Cyclic FSH secretion from anterior pituitary stimulates follicular development
  • Follicular epithelial cells proliferate (granulosa cells)
  • Oocyte enlarges
  • Stromal cells become organised into connective tissue sheath
  • Zona pellucida forms directly around oocyte
675
Q

What is the mechanism of development into secondary follicles from primary follicles?

A
  • Formation of antrum (space filled with follicular fluid)

- CT differentiate into inner theca interna and outer theca externa (Cumulus oophorus)

676
Q

What is the structure of mature (Graafian) follicles?

A
  • Ovum surrounded by a thick Zona pellucida
  • A layer of granulosa cells surround the oocyte (corona radiata)
  • Basal lamina, theca interna and theca externa
677
Q

What is the process of the conversion from a follicle to a corpus luteum?

A
  • Luteinisation of granulosa and theca cells occurs (they become polygonal, larger in size, have abundant cytoplasm containing lipid)
  • Secrete progesterone and oestrogen
678
Q

What is the process of regression of a corpus luteum if fertilisation doesn’t take place?

A
  • Starts 8-9 days after ovulation
  • Granulosa cells decrease in size and develop pyknotic nuclei
  • Accumulate abnormal lipid, cells undergo dissolution and are phagocytosed
679
Q

What forms after the corpus luteum degenerates?

A

The corpus albicans

680
Q

What is the structure of the corpus albicans?

A

Mainly composed of dense collagen fibres, it is an ovarian scar

681
Q

Give two functions of the Fallopian tube

A
  • Transports ovum to the uterus

- Fertilisation occurs here

682
Q

What are the four segements of the Fallopian tube?

A

Intramural, isthmus, ampulla and infundibulum

683
Q

Where is the intramural found?

A

Inside the uterine wall

684
Q

Give two features of the infundibulum

A
  • Trumpet-shaped opening to peritoneum

- Has fimbriae

685
Q

How thick is the isthmus?

A

2-3cm (it is thick walled)

686
Q

What is significant about the ampulla?

A

It is the expanded area of the Fallopian tubes

687
Q

What is significant about the mucosa of the Fallopian tube?

A

Thrown into branching folds

688
Q

What are the two cell types of the Fallopian tubes?

A

Secretory and ciliated

689
Q

What are the two layers of the muscularis of the Fallopian tube?

A

Inner circular and outer longitudinal

690
Q

What is serosa?

A

Connective tissue covered by mesothelium

691
Q

What are the three layers of the uterus?

A

Endometrium, myometrium and serosa

692
Q

What are the layers of the endometrium?

A
  • Deep basal layer (stratum basalis)

- Superficial functional layer (further divided into stratum compactum (towards surface) and stratum spongiosum)

693
Q

What happens in the proliferative phase of endometrium?

A
  • Oestrogen stimulation
  • Straightedges proliferating glands with mitotic activity
  • No luminal secretions
  • Stromal cells are spindled and compact and show mitotic activity
694
Q

What happens in the secretory phase of the endometrium?

A
  • Progesterone stimulation
  • Early (sub-nuclear glycogen vacuoles)
  • Mid (vacuoles above and below the nucleus and layer intraluminal secretions, glands more rounded, stroma-oedema)
  • Late (elongated and saw-toothed glands with more intraluminal secretions, stroma - spiral arterioles, decimal change)
695
Q

What happens in the menstrual phase of the endometrium?

A
  • Progesterone stimulation withdraws
  • Stromal haemorrhage and granulocytes
  • Stromal and glandualr fragmentation
696
Q

What is the structure of the myometrium?

A

Thick muscular wall with 3 ill-defined layers of smooth muscle: inner longitudinal, middle circular and outer longitudinal

697
Q

What is the structure of the endocervix?

A

Loose fibromuscular stroma lined by simple columnar ciliated epithelium, thrown into crypts

698
Q

What is the structure of ectocervix?

A

Dense smooth muscle stroma lined by non-keratinising stratified squamous epithelium

699
Q

What is the structure of the mucosa of the vagina?

A

Lined by non-keratinising stratified squamous epithelium..

700
Q

What is the structure of the stroma of the vagina?

A

Elastic fibres and a rich vascular network

701
Q

What is the structure of the muscular wall of the vagina?

A

Smooth muscle cells, inner circular and outer longitudinal structure

702
Q

What is the structure of the adventitia of the vagina?

A

Loose connective tissue

703
Q

What is the histology of the labia majora?

A

Lined by keratinising stratified squamous epithelium and has skin adnexae

704
Q

What is the histology of the labia minora?

A

Mostly non-keratinising stratified squamous epithelium

705
Q

What is a Bartholin’s gland?

A

Tubuloalveolar glands. Acini lined by mucus-secreting epithelium

706
Q

What are minor vestibular glands?

A

Simple tubular glands lined by mucus-secreting epithelium

707
Q

What are Skein’s glands (periurethral glands)?

A

Analogous to prostate, lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium

708
Q

What is the histology of the hymen?

A

Lined by non-keratinising squamous epithelium

709
Q

What is the structure of the clitoris?

A

Erectile tissue rich in blood vessels and nerves

710
Q

Give 4 common features of the endocrine system

A
  • Glandular epithelium
  • Richly vascularised
  • Secrete a variety of hormones
  • Controlled by positive and negative feedback loops
711
Q

What is the function of the pituitary?

A

Coordinates the endocrine organs through feedback loops

712
Q

What are the two functional components of the pituitary?

A

Posterior and anterior

713
Q

What is the structure of the posterior pituitary?

A
  • Downwards extension of hypothalamus

- Neural tissue (axons/glial cells)

714
Q

What does the posterior pituitary store/secrete?

A

Oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH)

715
Q

What is the structure of the anterior pituitary?

A
  • Nested epithelial pituicytes
  • Richly vascular fibrous stroma
  • Several different types of pituicytes
716
Q

Name 6 hormones which are produced in the anterior pituitary

A
  • Growth hormones
  • Prolactin
  • ACTH
  • FSH
  • LH
  • Thyroid stimulating hormone
717
Q

What hormone is produced by somatotrophs?

A

Growth hormone in the anterior pituitary

718
Q

What hormone is produced by lactotrophs?

A

Prolactin in the anterior pituitary

719
Q

What hormone is produced by corticotrophs?

A

ACTH in the anterior pituitary

720
Q

What hormones is produced by the gonadotrophs?

A

FSH and LH in the anterior pituitary

721
Q

What hormone is produced by thyrotrophs?

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone in the pituitary

722
Q

What is the function and structure of somatotrophs?

A
  • Diffuse cytoplasmic growth hormones
  • Lateral wings of anterior pituitary
  • Present throughout gland
723
Q

What is the function and structure of lactotrophs?

A
  • Polygonal cells
  • Cytoplasmic processes wrap around other cells
  • Variable prolactin staining
724
Q

What is the structure of thyrotrophs?

A
  • Angular chromophobes
  • Elongated processes
  • Variable TSH staining
725
Q

What is the structure of gonadotrophs?

A
  • Scattered round/oval cells
726
Q

What is the function and structure of corticotrophs?

A
  • Round basophilic cells
  • Median of gland
  • Large cytoplasmic vacuoles
727
Q

What is the function and structure of supporting cells in the anterior pituitary?

A
  • Sustenacular cells

- Surround the normal follicles

728
Q

What is the structure of the pineal gland?

A

Pinealocytes in rosettes

729
Q

Where is melatonin secreted from?

A

Pineal gland

730
Q

Where is thyroxine produced?

A

Thyroid gland

731
Q

Where is calcitonin produced?

A

Thyroid gland

732
Q

What is the structure of the thyroid gland?

A
  • A combination of follicular cells and colloid

- Richly vascular

733
Q

How many parathyroid glands are there?

A

4

734
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located?

A

Variably in the neck

735
Q

What do the parathyroid glands do?

A

Produce parathyroid hormone

736
Q

What are the 3 cell types in the parathyroids?

A

Chief cells, oxyphils and adipocytes

737
Q

What is the structure of the chief cells of the parathyroid?

A
  • Polygonal cells
  • Scant cytoplasm
  • No calcium oxalate crystals
  • Strong immunoreactivity for PTH
738
Q

What is the function of the chief cells of the parathyroid?

A
  • Secretes PTH

- Raises serum calcium ions

739
Q

What is the structure of the oxyphil cells of the parathyroid?

A
  • Large polygonal cells
  • Increase with age
  • Abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm
740
Q

What is the structure of the Islets of Langerhans?

A
  • Balls of cells
  • Thin fibrous capsule
  • Mostly in pancreatic tail
741
Q

What are the 4 components of the Islets of Langerhans?

A

Beta cells, alpha cells, delta cells and PP cells

742
Q

What do beta cells of the pancreas produce?

A

Insulin

743
Q

What do alpha cells of the pancreas produce?

A

Glucagon

744
Q

What do the delta cells of the pancreas produce?

A

Somatostatin

745
Q

What do the PP cells of the pancreas produce?

A

Pancreatic polypeptide

746
Q

What are the three layers of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis

747
Q

What is released from the zona glomerulosa?

A

Mineralcorticosteroids (aldosterone)

748
Q

What is released from the zona fasciculata?

A

Glucocorticosteroids (cortisol)

749
Q

What is released from the zona reticularis?

A

Androgenic steroids

750
Q

What is the structure of the zona glomerulosa?

A

Thin & incomplete, small cells, vacuolated cytoplasm

751
Q

What is the structure of the zona fasiculata?

A

Most prominent layer, large polygonal cells, almost clear cytoplasm

752
Q

What is the structure of the zona reticularis?

A

Innermost cortical layer, androgenic steroids, anatomising columns of small polygonal cells

753
Q

What is secreted from the adrenal medulla?

A

Adrenaline and noradrenaline

754
Q

What is the structure of the adrenal medulla?

A

Centre of adrenal gland, chromaffin cells, large and polyhedral

755
Q

Name two features of the endocrine system

A
  • All epithelial (except posterior pituitary)

- All have a rich blood supply

756
Q

Name 3 places where visceral (smooth muscle) can be found

A

Arterial wall, wall of intestine and airways of lungs

757
Q

Name 3 places where voluntary (skeletal) muscle can be found

A

Skeletal muscles, larynx, diaphragm

758
Q

Name 2 places where cardiac muscle can be found

A

Heart & base of great vessels

759
Q

Name 3 contractile cells

A

Pericytes, myo-fibroblasts, myo-epithelial cells

760
Q

What is the structure of myoblasts in skeletal muscle?

A

Fused to form multi-celled syncytium

761
Q

How are myofibrils formed?

A

By sarcomeres joined end to end

762
Q

How are fascicles formed?

A

By the clumping of muscle fibres

763
Q

Name 3 structures which are held together by connective tissue

A

Endomycium, perimycium and epimycium

764
Q

What is significant about the cytoplasm of skeletal muscle?

A

It is rich in glycogen

765
Q

Is skeletal muscle voluntary or non-voluntary?

A

Voluntary

766
Q

Give 5 histological features of skeletal muscle

A
  • Elongated fibres
  • Striated cytoplasm
  • Multinucleate
  • Nuclei at edges
  • Non-branching
767
Q

Why is striated muscle striated?

A

Due to myofibrils being in register

768
Q

What are the different types of muscle fibre?

A

Type 1 and 2

769
Q

What is significant about type 1 muscle fibre?

A

Rich in fibrillar ATPase and is slow twitch

770
Q

What is significant about type 2 muscle fibre?

A

Rich in fibrillar ATPase, fast twitch. Stains paler

771
Q

What is the structure of muscle spindles?

A
  • Intrafusal muscle fibres wrapped around by gamma efferent nerve fibres
  • Fibrocollagenous capsule
772
Q

What is the function of muscle fibres?

A

Detect stretch and tension

773
Q

What is the function of Sharpey’s fibres?

A
  • Connect muscle to bone (and penetrate bone)

- Attach muscle to bone over a wide area

774
Q

What is the structure of Sharpey’s fibres?

A

Bundles of collagen linking epimysium to periosteum

775
Q

What is the function of tendons?

A
  • Connect muscle to bone

- Attach muscle to bone over a small area

776
Q

What is the structure of tendons?

A

Parallel bundles of collagen with intervening fibroblasts

777
Q

What is a specialised form of connective tissue?

A

Skeletal muscles

778
Q

Name 4 cells of the bone

A
  • Osteoprogenitor cells
  • Osteoblasts
  • Osteocytes
  • Osteoclasts
779
Q

What forms the extracellular matrix of the bone?

A

Collagen and calcium hydroxyapatite

780
Q

Which cells of the bone are derived from embryonic mesenchyme?

A

Osteoprogenitor cells

781
Q

Where is osteoid secreted from?

A

Unmineralised bone

782
Q

Which bone cells become trapped in their own matrix?

A

Osteocytes

783
Q

Which cells of the bone connect to surrounding cells via canaliculi?

A

Osteoblasts and osteocytes

784
Q

Which cells of the bone are derived from monocytes?

A

Osteoclasts

785
Q

Give 3 features of osteoclasts

A
  • Multinucleate cells
  • Absorb bone - sit in Howship’s lacunae
  • Activity is linked to that of osteoblasts
786
Q

How can bone be differentiated by origin?

A

Primary (woven) and secondary (lamellar)

787
Q

How can bone be differentiated by mode of formation?

A

Membranous and endochondrial

788
Q

How can bone be differentiated by gross appearance?

A

Spongy/cancellous & compact or osteons & appositional

789
Q

How does secondary bone form?

A

As osteons

790
Q

What is the structure of secondary bone?

A
  • Central Haversian canal containing blood vessel

- Surrounding concentric rings of lamellar bone with osteocytes

791
Q

Which bones have intramembranous formation?

A

Flat bones of the skull and some cortical bone shafts

792
Q

Which bones have endochondrial formation?

A

All bones except flat bones of the skull

793
Q

Where is synovial usually found?

A

Inside of the joint capsule (1-4 layers of synovial cells)

794
Q

What is the function of type A synovial cells?

A

Phagocytic

795
Q

What is a feature of type B synovial cells?

A

Rich in rER

796
Q

How do exocrine glands secrete their products?

A

Via ducts

797
Q

How do endocrine glands secrete their products?

A

Via the blood

798
Q

What is the only endocrine organ which isn’t epithelial?

A

The pituitary

799
Q

Name two hormones which are made in the same tissue

A

Prolactin and growth hormone

800
Q

Name two hormones which are made by neural tissue

A
  • Oxytocin and vasopressin

- Made in posterior pituitary

801
Q

Where is prolactin found?

A

In lactotrophs, in the anterior pituitary

802
Q

What is the least common pituicyte?

A

Thyrotrophs

803
Q

Give 3 properties of the pineal gland

A
  • Has meninges lying over the top
  • Has calcium spread throughout
  • Secretes melatonin
804
Q

Where is calcitonin made?

A

By the C cells of the thyroid

805
Q

Where is pepsinogen synthesised?

A

By the chief cells of the stomach

806
Q

What do parathyroid chief cells make?

A

Parathyroid hormone

807
Q

Where is calcium oxalate found?

A

In thyroid tissue

808
Q

Give 4 functions of somatostatin

A
  • Delayed gastric emptying
  • Hepatic glycogenesis
  • Lowered blood glucose concentration
  • Suppression of gastric acid secretion
809
Q

How is serum calcium concentration regulated?

A

By parathyroid hormone

810
Q

Where is ANP made?

A

In the atrial myocardium of the heart

811
Q

What does the adrenal zona fasciculate principally secrete?

A

Cortisol

812
Q

What is the thickest layer of the adrenal cortex?

A

The zona fasciculata

813
Q

Where does the adrenal gland synthesize hormones and with what substance?

A
  • From cholesterol

- Done in the layers of cells near to the surface (adrenal cortex)

814
Q

Where is the adrenal gland are hormones synthesised from tyrosine?

A

In the adrenal medulla

815
Q

What is the endocrine organ which receives its blood supply through a portal circulation?

A

The anterior pituitary

Phase 1 Med (Liv) (13 decks)

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