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Year 6 > Images and Instruments > Flashcards

Images and Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

What are the complications of cannula?

A 
Exstravasation
Haematoma 
Phlebitis 
Thrombosis 
Systemic infection
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2
Q

What is a the description of the a central venous catheter (central line)?

A

A catheter which is inserted into either the jugular vein, subclavian vein or femoral vein

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3
Q

How long a central venous catheter used for?

A

3 days (it is short term)

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4
Q

What are the indications for a central venous catheter? (7)

A
  1. Central administration of medication
  2. Vasopressors
  3. Inotropes
  4. Total parenteral nutrition
  5. Chemotherapy
  6. Access for extracorporeal circuit - renal replacement therapy
  7. Monitoring central venous pressure
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5
Q

Describe a tunnelled central line

A

Catheter inserted into the subclavian through a subcutaneous tunnel

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6
Q

What are the other names for a tunnelled central line

A

Hickman line

Tesio line

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7
Q

What are the indications for a tunnelled central line? (6)

A
  1. IV administration of medication
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Chemotherapy
  4. Regular vascular access
  5. Renal replacement therapy
  6. Blood sampling
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8
Q

What does PICC line stand for?

A

Peripherally inserted central catheter

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9
Q

How long can a tunnelled central line be used?

A

Long term - months to years

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10
Q

Describe a peripherally inserted central catheter

A

inserted into the basilic or cephalic veins with the tip sitting into the superior vena cava

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11
Q

How long can a PICC line be used for?

A

Medium term - weeks to months

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12
Q

What are the indications for a PICC line? (4)

A
  1. IV administration of medication
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Chemotherapy
  4. Poor peripheral access
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13
Q

What are the immediate complications of central venous access? (6)

A
  1. Haemorrhage
  2. Pneumothorax
  3. Arterial puncture
  4. Arrhythmias
  5. Cardiac tamponade
  6. Air embolism
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14
Q

What are the delated complications of central venous access? (6)

A
  1. Venous stenosis
  2. Thrombosis
  3. Erosion of vessel
  4. Line fracture
  5. Catheter colonisation
  6. Line related sepsis
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15
Q

Describe a chest drain

A

A drain which is inserted into the triangle of safety for drainage of pleural space via a tube

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16
Q

How is the position of a chest drain confirmed?

A

CXR

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17
Q

What are the indications for chest drain?

A
  1. Pneumothorax
  2. Pleural effusion
  3. Traumatic haemopneumothorax - wide bore
  4. Post -surgical (cardiac, thoracic, oesophagus)
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18
Q

What are the borders of the triangle of safety

A

Lateral edge of pec major
Lateral edge of latissimus dorsi
5th ICS
Apex of axilla

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19
Q

Why do you insert it above the rib?

A

To avoid the neurovascular bundle

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20
Q

What are the complications of Chest drains?

A

Insertion related:

  1. Damage to nearby structures (intercostal artery, solid organ)
  2. Subcutaneous emphysema
  3. Pneumothorax

Position related:

  1. Obstruction
  2. Kinking
  3. Dislodged
  4. Re-expansion pulmonary oedema

Infection

  1. Wound infection
  2. Pneumonia
  3. Empyema
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21
Q

Describe chest drain bottle

A

Bottle filled with sterile water with drainage tube submerged
Creates an underwater seal and one-way valve

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22
Q

Where should a chest drain bottle be position?

A

Below the patient and kept upright

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23
Q

What does the swinging represent in the chest drain bottle? (state what up and down represents)

A

Movement of the water column with the respiratory cycle

Up in inspiration and down in expiration

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24
Q

What does the bubbling represent in the chest drain bottle?

A

Bubbling = air leaving the pleural cavity

Stops when all air is expelled

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25
Q

Describe surgical drains

A

Tubes inserted into the surgical field to allow decompression of fluid or air

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26
Q

What are the indications for surgical drains?

A
  • Drainage of a potential space post-surgery
  • Removal of harmful fluid - e.g. blood, pus, bile
  • Detection of bleeding or leakage - e.g. anastomosis
    Multiple uses in upper GI, orthopaedic, cardiothoracic, plastic, breast, head and neck surgery
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27
Q

What is the difference between open and closed surgical drains?

A 
Open drains (e.g. corrugated or rubber) connect to the external environment 
Closed drains connect via tubing to a drain bottle
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28
Q

What are open drains used for?

A

Superficial wounds but increase the risk of infection

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29
Q

What is the difference between active and passive surgical drains?

A

Active drains maintained under negative pressure, improves wound closure

Passive drains use gravity

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30
Q

Where in the body are passive drains preferred and why?

A

In the abdomen because there is less risk of visceral perforation

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31
Q

What are the complications of surgical drains?

A
  1. Ascending infection (more common with open or passive systems)
  2. Foreign body reaction (fibrosis or granulation)
  3. Migration
  4. Obstruction/kinking
  5. Fistulation
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32
Q

Describe nasogastric feeding tube

A

A tube which goes in through the nostril, down the oesophagus into the stomach with aid of a guidewire to give stiffness to the tube
- Narrow bore nasogastric tube (<9 Fr)

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33
Q

How is the position of NG tube confirmed?

A 
pH aspirate (<4.5) 
or CXR
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34
Q

What are the indications for Nasogastric feeding tube?

A
  1. Short/medium term feeding (max 4-6 weeks) in patients with a functional GI tract
  2. Administration of drugs/contrast in an unsafe swallow
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35
Q

What is a Ryles tube?

A

A wide bore tube (16-18 Fr) nasogastric tube - no guidewire is needed

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36
Q

What are the indications for a Ryles NG tube?

A

Gastric decompression (in bowel obstruction, ileus, post-surgical)

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37
Q

What is the benefit of having thicker walls in a Ryles NG tube?

A

Prevent tube collapse during aspiration of gastric contents

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38
Q

What 4 questions can you ask to make sure the position of the NG tube is correct when looking at the CXR?

A
  1. Does the tube path follow the oesophagus/avoid the contours of the bronchi?
  2. Does the tube clearly bisect the carina or the bronchi?
  3. Does it cross the diaphragm in the midline?
  4. Is the tip clearly visible below the left hemi-diaphragm?
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39
Q

What are the complications of nasogastric tubes?

A

Pulmonary

  1. Aspiration pneumonia (incorrect position)
  2. Pneumothorax

GI

  1. Malposition in the GI tract
  2. Obstruction/knotting/kinking
  3. Reflux oesophagitiis
  4. Gastritis
  5. Visceral perforation (rare)
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40
Q

What is post-pyloric feeding?

A

When the NG tube is passed through the pylorus and rests in the jejunum

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41
Q

How do you insert a post -pyloric tube?

A

Using endoscopic or fluoroscopic means

and this is also used to confirm it is in the right place

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42
Q

What are the indications of Post-pyloric feeding?

A
  1. Gastroparesis e.g. in critical illness, diabetes, neurological (MS, Parkinson’s)
  2. Gastric outlet obstruction e.g. peptic ulcer disease, malignancy
  3. Recurrent aspiration
  4. Pancreatitis (less stimulation of pancreas)
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43
Q

Describe urinary catheter

A

A catheter inserted into the urethra to the bladder into the bladder for drainage of urine

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44
Q

What are the 3 types of urinary catheter?

A
  1. Foleys catheter
  2. Long-term catheter
  3. Three-way catheter
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45
Q

What are the typical sizes of urinary catheter?

A

14-16 Ch

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46
Q

How long can Foleys be used for vs Long term?

A

Foleys - 28 days

Long term - more than 6 weeks

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47
Q

What is a Foleys catheter vs a long term catheter made from?

A

Foleys = latex (yellow)

Long term = silicone (transparent)

48
Q

What does the curved tip of a catheter help with?

A

To aid insertion past an enlarged prostate

49
Q

What are the indications of a urinary catheter?

A
  1. Urinary retention
  2. Measurement of urine output in acute illness
  3. During abdominal/pelvic surgery
  4. Neurogenic bladder
  5. Immobility
  6. End of life care
  7. Urinary incontinence
  8. Sacaral or perineal ulceration
50
Q

Describe a 3 way catheter

A

A urinary catheter with a third port to allow for bladder irrigation and prevent clot formation

51
Q

What are the indications of a 3 way catheter?

A

Visible haematuria with clots

Post-bladder/prostate surgery

52
Q

What are the immediate/early complications of urinary catheterisation?

A
  1. Urethral trauma
  2. allergic reaction to material
  3. Balloon rupture
  4. Obstruction
  5. Bypass leakage
  6. Bladder perforation (rare)
53
Q

What are the delayed complications of urinary catheterisation?

A
  1. Bacteriuria/UTI – do not treat if asymptomatic
  2. Pyelonephritis
  3. Urethral stricture
  4. Bladder stones
54
Q

Describe a catheter drainage bag

A

Collection of urine

Has a port to empty the bag/sample the urine

55
Q

Describe a Urometer

A

A catheter bag and collection chamber

- it allows for accurate recording of the urine output

56
Q

Describe a rigid sigmoidoscope

A

A scope inserted into the anus used to insect the rectum and lower sigmoid colon in an outpatient setting

57
Q

What position does the patient need to be to use the rigid sigmoidoscope?

A

Left lateral position with knees flexed

58
Q

What should occur before a rigid sigmoidoscope is carried out?

A

A DRE to assess the rectal contents

59
Q

What is the maximum length of the sigmoidoscope inserted?

A

15-20cm

60
Q

What is a complication of using a rigid sigmoidoscope?

A

Pain and Rectal discomfort - very common

61
Q

Describe a proctoscope

A

Used to visualise the anal canal and lower rectum

62
Q

What extra feature can you use a proctoscope for?

A

Injecting (sclerotherapy) or banding haemarrhoids

63
Q

What extra feature can you use a rigid sigmoidoscope for?

A

Biopsy of the rectal mucosa e.g. in UC

64
Q

Describe a stoma bag

A

A stoma bag is a prosthetic medical device that provides a means for the collection of waste (faeces, flatus or urine) from a surgically diverted bowel.

65
Q

How can you prevent wind inflation and smell with a stoma bag?

A

some stoma bags ahve a filter which can release the wind

Some have a deodorising component

66
Q

What are the complications of stoma bags?

A

Adhesive can cause irritation (stomal dermatitis)

It can become displaced

67
Q

Describe a Scalpel

A

A scalpel is made up of a blade and handle
The blade is single use and disposable whilst the handle is reusable or disposable
Scalpels are numbered based on shape

68
Q

State the numbers of scalpels and what they are used for

A

10 - ‘traditional blade’ - large cutting curve for skin incisions
11 - pointed apex for puncturing movements
15 - smaller cutting surface for more delicate control

69
Q

Describe sutures

A

Used for wound closure and approximation of tissue
All sutures cause a tissue foreign body reaction
Ideally sterile, easy to handle, low risk of infection and cheap

70
Q

What are the types of Sutures?

A

Absorbable (broken down by hydrolysis or enzymatic degradation) - Vicryl, Monocryl, PDS

Non-absorbable - Nylon , Prolene, silk, steel

Monofilament

Braided (multifilament)

71
Q

Compare and contrast monofilament and multifilament

A

Monofilament: less trauma and tissue reaction, lower risk of infection

Multifilament: Easier to handle and retain knots, increased risk of infection

72
Q

Over what features are sutures chosen?

A

Diameter (larger number of ‘0’s = smaller diameter)
tissue strength
duration of closure

73
Q

When do you use absorbable sutures?

A

Deep or rapid healing tissues e.g. bowel/biliary/urinary anastamoses

74
Q

When do you use non-absorbable sutures?

A

Used for permanent support and slower healing tissues e.g. vascular
anastomoses, tendon, fascia

75
Q

When do you use monofilament sutures?

A

Used for superficial wound closure (less tissue reaction)

76
Q

Describe a Laparoscopic trocar

A
  • Used to create entry ports in laparoscopic procedures
  • Initial entry carries the highest risk of visceral perforation
  • Several described techniques (Veress needle, Hasson technique)
  • Extra care taken at extremes of BMI and previous laparotomy
77
Q

At what point would you insert the other ports when using a laparoscopic trocar?

A

Once pneumoperitoneum is established

78
Q

What gas do you use with lapascopic procedures and why?

A

Carbon dioxide - it is inert, highly soluble in blood and tissues and rapidly cleared by expiration

79
Q

Describe diathermy

A

High frequency current driven by an electric generator
Current can be delivered as a continuous waveform for cutting
tissue or intermittent waveform for coagulation of small vessels

80
Q

What are the two types of diathermy?

A

Monopolar-
Current flows between pen and electrode bad through the patient

Bipolar -
Both electrodes mounted on the forceps
Used when tissue can be grabbed from two sides

81
Q

Describe the two types of hip prosthesis

A

Hemiarthroplasty
- Single component
- Used for intracapsular NOF fractures in co-morbid patients with poor
functional reserve

Total hip replacement

  • Two components (femoral and acetabular)
  • Used for intracapsular NOF fractures in healthier and more active patients
82
Q

What are the complications of a Hip prosthesis?

A 
Dislocation 
Osteolysis 
Metal sensitivity 
Nerve injury 
Chronic pain
83
Q

Describe oropharyngeal airway

A
  • First-line airway adjunct
  • Lifts tongue of posterior pharyngeal
    wall
  • Sized by measuring the from incisors
    to the angle of the mandible
  • Inserted into the mouth upside down,
    and rotated within the oral cavity
    (except in children)
84
Q

What are the complications of oropharyngeal airways?

A

Vomiting
Aspiration if the
gag reflex is present

85
Q

Describe a nasopharyngeal airway

A

Inserted horizontally into nostril
Sized by patient height (6 for female, 7 for
male)

86
Q

When is nasopharyngeal airway used?

A

In patients with decreased

consciousness but intact gag reflex

87
Q

What are the complications of nasopharyngeal airway?

A

Ulceration

Epistaxis

88
Q

When should nasopharyngeal airway be avoided?

A

In severe head or maxillofacial trauma (esp if signs of basal skull fracture)

89
Q

Describe a Laryngeal mask airway

A

Supraglottic airway devic e

90
Q

What is the difference between an iGel and Laryngeal mask airway?

A
  • iGels contain a thermoplastic elastomer (styrene) that moulds to perilaryngeal framework with patient temperature
  • The tip extends into the oesophageal opening, has its own gastric channel to allow the passing of NG tube into the stomach for gastric emptying
  • The iGel also seals off the oropharyngeal opening from the larynx, preventing aspiration
91
Q

Describe an endotracheal tube?

A

Inserted through the mouth with the aid of a laryngoscope
so that the end of the tube lies above the carina
Cuff is inflated to secure the airway and prevent gastric
aspiration

92
Q

How do you confirm the position of an endotracheal tube?

A

Definitive airway
Symmetrical
chest expansion and breath sounds (alternatively, a chest
x-ray can confirm its placement, CO2 monitor, or
aspiration)

93
Q

What are the two definitive airways?

A

Endotracheal tube

Tracheostomy

94
Q

Describe tracheostomy tube

A

Definitive airway

Inserted below the glottis (surgical or percutaneous access)

95
Q

What are the advantages of a tracheostomy vs endotracheal intubation?

A

Reduced dead space
Improved oral hygiene
Reduced sedation

96
Q

What are the indications for tracheostomy?

A

Weaning of mechanical ventilation

Severe maxillofacial trauma

97
Q

What are the complications of intubation?

A

Early

  1. Cant intubate, cant ventilate
  2. Trauma
  3. Bleeding
  4. Cuff perforation
  5. Endobronchial intubation

Delayed
Tracheal necrosis
Tracheal stensois

98
Q

What are the complications of intubation?

A

Early

  1. Cant intubate, cant ventilate
  2. Trauma
  3. Bleeding
  4. Cuff perforation
  5. Endobronchial intubation

Delayed
Tracheal necrosis
Tracheal stensois

99
Q

What is the stepwise progression for airway management?

A

Airway manoeuvres
Airway adjuncts
Supraglottic devices
Definitive airway

100
Q

What are the features of a definitive airway?

A

Infraglottic (crosses the cords)
Secure (cuffed)
Prevents aspiration of gastric contents
Can deliver max concentrations of o2

101
Q

What are the indications for intubation?

A
  1. Decreased consciousness and loss of airway reflexes (GCS <8)
    - failure to protect against aspiration
  2. Failure to oxygenate (T1RF)
    - Respiratory pathologu, ARDS, pulmonary oedema
  3. Failure to ventilate (T2RF)
    - Tiring patient (life threatening)
  4. Failure to maintain airway patency
    - Upper aiway obstruction
    - Angioedema
    - Facial/upper airway trauma
102
Q

What are the indications for intubation?

A
  1. Decreased consciousness and loss of airway reflexes (GCS <8)
    - failure to protect against aspiration
  2. Failure to oxygenate (T1RF)
    - Respiratory pathologu, ARDS, pulmonary oedema
  3. Failure to ventilate (T2RF)
    - Tiring patient (life threatening)
  4. Failure to maintain airway patency
    - Upper aiway obstruction
    - Angioedema
    - Facial/upper airway trauma
103
Q

Describe a laryngoscope

A
  • A device used in conjunction with an endotracheal tube for intubation
  • It has its own light source which aids visualisation of the laryngeal folds
  • used in the left hand, with the right hand guiding the tube down
104
Q

Describe nasal cannulae

A

First line device for oxygen therapy
Can deliver 25-35% FiO2
Mix 4L/min of oxygen

105
Q

What are the indications for Nasal cannula?

A

Mild hypoxia

Used for long term oxygen therapy

106
Q

What are the complications of nasal cannula?

A

necrosis

ulceration

107
Q

Describe face mask

A
  • Used for moderate hypoxia (<90% o2 sats)
  • Can deliver up to 10L/min
  • FiO2 25-60%
108
Q

Describe a non-rebreathe mask

A 
A fask mask combined with a bag and valve 
Can deliver up to 15L/min O2 
FiO2 80-85%
First line in acutely unwell patients 
Aim target sats 94-98%
109
Q

Describe a venturi mask

A

Multiple valves of different colours allow controlled FiO2
Uses the venturi effect to entrain air into the mask
The flow rate is selected, giving a specific FiO2

110
Q

What is the indication for a venturi mask?

A

Used when there is a risk of T2RF and CO2 retention e..g. COPD

111
Q

What is the stepwise action plan for delivering o2 therapy?

A
  1. Nasal cannula
  2. Face mask (and venturi)
  3. Non-rebreathe mask
  4. High flow nasal cannula
  5. Non-invasive ventilation
  6. Mechanical ventilation
112
Q

Described TED stockings

A 
Graduated compressionn (maximum distally) 
Often used in conjunction with LMWH
113
Q

What are the indications of TED stockings?

A
  1. Used in patients undergoing surgery those 2. pts who are immobile for DVT prophylaxis
114
Q

What are the contraindications of TED stockings?

A
  1. Severe peripheral vascular disease

2. Severe skin breakdown e.g. ulceration, infection

115
Q

Describe intermittent pneumatic compression

A

Inflatable sleeves that are wrapped around the calves
Inflated one side at a time at regular intervals
They reduce venous stasis and the risk of VTE

116
Q

What are the indications of Intermittent pneumatic compression?

A
  1. Mechanical thromboprophylaxis
  2. Post-abdominal /orhorpaedic surgery
  3. Post-stroke
117
Q

What are the contraindications of intermittent pneumatic compression?

A

Severe peripheral vascular disease

severe skin breakdown e.g. ulceration, infection

Year 6 (18 decks)

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