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Hangaaar IFR > IFR Departure Procedures > Flashcards

IFR Departure Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

SID

A

Standard Instrument Departure

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2
Q

TC

A

Transport Canada

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3
Q

AIM

A

Aeronautical Information Manual

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4
Q

What part of the AIM specifically applies to IFR procedures

A

Rules of the Air (RAC) section

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5
Q

CAP

A

Canada Air Pilot

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6
Q

What part of the CAP specifically applies to IFR?

A

The General Section (CAP GEN)

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7
Q

What is the determinant of IFR departure

A

Visibility governs IFR Departures.

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8
Q

What is standard departure visibility?

A

1/2 Statute Mile (SM) or 2600 RVR

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9
Q

Is it possible to depart with reduced visibility?

A

Yes, but only with special air crew and aircraft and operational procedures.

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10
Q

Define Govern

A

Legal authority to limit, forms the basis’s for violations and enforcement under the CARS.

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11
Q

What to do when we don’t have the visibility?

A

Don’t depart

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12
Q

We only care about ____ and not ____ for a legal departure

A

Visibility, ceilings

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13
Q

Visibility Order of Precedence

A
  1. Runway Visual Range (RVR)
  2. Aerodrome Ground Visibility (as reported by trained observer)
  3. Vis as determined by PIC
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14
Q

Most accurate means to measure visibility

A

Runway Visibility Range (RVR), read in feet

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15
Q

RVR Limitations

A

Only valid for a single runway (not the runway at the opposite end of the concrete)

Might be fooled by local phenomena like blowing snow.

RVR becomes not governing when subject to fluctuations or local phenomena.

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16
Q

RVR is discarded when:

A

Airport Ground Visibility is at or above the required min.

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17
Q

Airport ground visibility is determined

A

Trained observers like ATC, FSS, air operator radio station, or

AWOS station

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18
Q

AWOS

A

Aerodrome Weather observing station 

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19
Q

PIC can only take authority to determine visibility when

A

There is no RVR

AND

There is no ground visibility report

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20
Q

Departure Summary
You can go if (one of these visibilities are okay):

A
  1. RVR is okay
  2. Ground Visibility is OK (because now RVR doesn’t matter).
  3. If no RVR or aground Visibility Reported and OIC determines visibility
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21
Q

ATC/FSS/CARS will advise you want visibility is governing (True / False)

A

True, they will tell you and you aren’t likely to get an ATC takeoff clearance if below minimums.

FSS or CARS can’t stop you from taking off, but they are likely to advise against it.

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22
Q

How do we know if RVR is available?

A

It appears in METAR when at or below 6000 feet (along with trend)

Aerodrome chart will also show you.

ATC/FSS will include in the ATIS and likely in voice advisories.

23
Q

RVR may be designated as:

A

RVR A - runway threshold
RVR B - at runway midpoint
RVR C - rollout portion at end of runway and is VERY rare

24
Q

Obstacle Clearance for IFR Departures assume:

A
  1. Aircraft cross runway end at minimum of 35 feet AGL
  2. Climb straight ahead to 400’ AAE before making any turns
  3. Maintain climb gradient of 200’ per nautical mile until reaching MEA for en route.
25
Q

AAE

A

Above aerodrome elevation

26
Q

MEA

A

Minimum en route altitude

27
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum obstacle clearance altitude

28
Q

Why do we have a Climb Gradient

A

Ensures we don’t hit obstacles

29
Q

How is climbing gradient expressed?

A

Feet per nautical mile

30
Q

What information do we need to calculate climb gradient?

A

Ground speed and rate of climb

31
Q

How do we convert climb gradient to feet per minute?

A

Use chart or ____ function on CXE

32
Q

What is GESR’s rate of climb at 90 kts GS to maintain 200 feet per nautical mile climb gradient?

A

300’ per minute

33
Q

With regards to climbing gradients, what might the aerodrome chart show other than 200 feet/ nautical mile?

A
  1. A climb gradient greater than 200 ft./min.
  2. Shuttle procedures in mountainous terrain.
  3. Visual climbs.
34
Q

SPEC VIS

A

Special Visibility Procedure - the note explaining a climb visually to a safe altitude (based on aircraft speed).

May require a ceiling height.

35
Q

When determining the visibility required for SPEC VIS . itwill depend on

A

Aircraft Category

36
Q

Aircraft Categories maneuvering speeds:

A

A - up to 90 kts
B - 91 to 120 kts
C - 121 to 140 kts
D - 141 to 165 kts
E - 165 kts +

37
Q

Required departure Visibility for each category of aircraft

A

A - 1 sm
B - 1 1/2 sm
C, D, E - 2 sm

38
Q

SID

A

Standard Instrument Departure

39
Q

Route Clearance in Controlled airspace is normally obtained prior to departure from:

A

FSS on MF or via Remote Communication Outlet (RCO)

Clearance Delivery / Ground Control

ATC PAL station

40
Q

FSS

A

Flight Service Station

41
Q

RCO

A

Remote Communication Outlet (for a Flight Information Centre)

42
Q

ATC PAL

A

ATC unit close enough (peripheral) to get clearance on the ground.

43
Q

IFR clearances and amendments must be read back and full with the exception of:

A

When a clearance is received on the ground before departing a controlled Aerodrome and include an SID.

Then, the pilot only needs to acknowledge with the aircraft call sign and transponder code

44
Q

If not on the ground, and IFR clearance may come in flight from:

A

An ATC unit or FSS

45
Q

To generate an IFR clearance,

A

File an IFR flight plan.

46
Q

IFR flight plans are the same as VFR flight plans except

A

 they must include an alternate airport

And pilots should consider any mandatory routes contained in planning section of CFS

47
Q

How long does the AIM recommend you file an IFR plan prior to departure.

A

30 min (but it’s actually much faster these days with electronic submissions)

48
Q

Seven elements of an IFR Clearance:

A
  1. Call sign
  2. Clearance Limit (denoted by the word “To”)
  3. Route (Via)
  4. Altitude (Maintain)
  5. Departure Runway and Transition (Depart)
  6. Transponder Code (Squawk)
  7. ATC Frequency (Contact)
49
Q

Void time

A

You must depart prior to or at the void time or receive a new clearance (usually from an uncontrolled airport)

50
Q

What does ATC need to know after take off?

A

Call sign
Altitude we are vacating
Altitude we are climbing to

(or altitude we are maintaining if already in level flight)

51
Q

Do we need to maintain a listening watch on the mandatory frequency even after being instructed to switch frequencies?

A

Yes.

52
Q

What to do if your departure is delayed at an uncontrolled airport?

A

There is a 60 minute departure window to make contact.

You must update departure time by contacting FSS or Area Control Centre by telephone.

53
Q

Can you depart when RVR is fluctuating between 1300 and 2600?

A

No. The lowest RVR value dominates.

54
Q

With regard to SPEC VIS, does ground speed matter?

A

No. Even if you have a wind speed directly on the nose that reduces your GS by 50 knots, the Aircraft Category climb speed is all that matters for Visibility requirements.

Hangaaar IFR (21 decks)

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