ID- MKSAP VI Flashcards

1
Q

When do you post-exposure prophylax for Lyme? What is the ppx?

A
  • 72 hours of tick removal
  • tick on for at 36 hours
  • doxy 200mg x1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do you do if you are exposed to smallpox (variola)?

A

Vaccinia vaccination no more than 7 days (but preferably within 3) after presumed exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infection of VZV in young person should prompt testing for _____.

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does Creutzfeldt Jakob present?

A
  • rapidly presenting dementia, ataxia, myoclonus
  • can have T-tau or 14-3-3 protein in CSF
  • MRI findings are nonspecific
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Do you treat EHEC (AKA Shiga-toxin producing E coli AKA STEC) with antibiotics?

A

No, increased risk of HUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can CMV infection cause?

A

Retinitis (common in AIDS), pneumonitis, hepatitis, bone marrow suppression, colitis with bloody diarrhea, esophagitis, adrenalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do most surgical site infections occur?

A

within 30 days (90 days if it involves implant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do you sample to guide a superficial incisional infection?

A

culture of drainage from wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Side effects of FQ

A
  1. tendonitis/tendon rupture
  2. CNS- HA, neuropathy, sleep and mood alterations
  3. QTC prolongation
  4. GI symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for oropharyngeal/esophageal candidiasis

A
  • oral fluconazole (7-14 days or 14-21 days if esophageal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most appropriate testing for genital ulcers caused by HSV.

A

NAAT for HSV-1 and HSV-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment of nec fasc for GAS

A

Clinda and PCN after surgical debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of Vibrio vulnificus necrotizing skin infection

A

Doxy and 3rd gen cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does Mediterranean spotted fever present?

A

Fever, myalgia, HA, maculopapular/petechial rash, distinct black eschar at site of inoculation

Caused by Rickettsia conorii, 2-14 days after tick bite

Often in Europe but also Africa, India, and Middle East

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When does erythema migrans present after infection?

A

1-4 weeks afterwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When do cardiac or neurologic symptoms occur in early disseminated disease?

A

2-10 weeks after erythema migrans rash

17
Q

What is the “rule of 7s” for Lyme disease? (Meaning what makes it less likely Lyme)

A

HA <7 days, <70% mono in CSF, absence of 7th nerve palsy

18
Q

CMV vs EBV in transplant patients

A

CMV does NOT cause hepatosplenomegaly or generalized LAD

19
Q

What is posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) and how does it present?

A
  • caused by EBV and presents several years after transplantation with fever, pancytopenia, generalized LAD and hepatosplenomegaly
20
Q

Abx of choice for purulent skin infections s/p I&D?

A

Bactrim and doxy (not clinda)

21
Q

TB skin test cut off

A

High risk (HIV, recent contact, etc): > or = 5mm

High-prevalence countries, IVDU, residents/workers in high-risk settings: > or = 10mm

Low risk: > or = 15mm