ICT practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

A buffering agent in oral liquid pharmaceutical solutions is also known as which ONE of the following?

a. Sweetening agent
b. Thickening agent
c. pH modifier
d. Wetting agent
e. Chelating agent

A

C. pH modifier

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2
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable suspension of magnesium hydroxide in water?
a. Flocculation
b. Aggregation
c. Ostwald ripening
d. Hydrolysis
e. Sedimentation

A

= D

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3
Q

Only ONE of the following statements is CORRECT. Please select the CORRECT statement.
The pH of a solution containing 4 g of HCl (molar mass: 36.458 g/mol) in 100 mL of water is equal to which of the following (pH value rounded up):
a. pH= 0.041
b. pH= -0.041
c. pH= 3
d. pH= -3
e. None of the above.

A

=B

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4
Q

Only ONE of the following statements regarding an isothermal process is CORRECT. Please select the CORRECT statement.
a. Any heat transferred to the system is used to increase the system temperature.
b. Internal energy changes only for work done or received by the system.
c. No work is done on or by the system.
d. Any heat transferred to the system is used to do work.
e. q is equal to zero.

A

=D

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5
Q

Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. In a first-order reaction the plot of the natural log (ln) of the reactant concentration against time is a straight line.
b. In a pseudo-first order reaction, the concentration of one of the reactants is considered constant.
c. The rate of a second-order reaction is independent of the reactant concentration.
d. The half-life of the reactant in a zero-order reaction is proportional to the initial concentration.
e. In a complex reaction the overall rate equation cannot be directly written from the stoichiometric equation.

A

=C

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6
Q

Which ONE of the following Phase I and Phase II transformations CANNOT happen to ibuprofen?
a. Conjugation with amino acids.
b. Conjugation with glucuronic acid.
c. Oxidation of exposed alkyl group.
d. Oxidation of activated carbon centres next to sp and sp2 carbons.
e. Oxidative deamination

A

=E

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7
Q

Dextran is a branched polymer of α-d-glucose. Which ONE of the following is not a recognised use for this polymer?
a. Blood plasma expander
b. Anticoagulant
c. Ingredient in the enteric coating of tablets
d. Protectant in freeze drying
e. Bulking agent in freeze drying

A

=C

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8
Q

The Noyes-Whitney equation is used to describe which ONE of the following processes?

a. Settling of solid particles in a suspension.
b. Dissolution of drugs present as solid particles.
c. Flow of a viscous liquid with shear stress.
d. Ionisation of a weak acid with respect to pH and pKa.
e. Change in the reaction rate constant against temperature.

A

=B

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9
Q

A weakly acidic drug is known to have a pKa of 5.3. The aqueous solubility of the free acid is found to be 2.9 x 10-4 mol L-1. What is the minimum pH at which an aqueous solution containing 9.8 x 10-3 mol L-1 of the drug can be prepared?
a. 5.30
b. 2.90
c. 3.78
d. 6.82
e. 9.89

A

=D

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10
Q

Only ONE of the following statements regarding the impact of temperature on a process is CORRECT. Please select the CORRECT statement.
a. Viscosity increases with increasing temperature.
b. Solubility of a gas generally decreases with increasing temperature.
c. Saturation solubility of a solid decreases as temperature increase (assuming dissolution is an endothermic process).
d. Reaction rate constant increases with decreasing temperature (assuming an endothermic reaction).
e. Reaction rate constant decreases with increasing temperature (assuming an endothermic reaction).

A

=B

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11
Q

Which ONE of the options below would be the most appropriate way of expressing the concentration of a solid active ingredient in a solution to be applied externally?
a) mg per mL
b) mg per 5 mL
c) Parts
d) % v/v
e) % w/v

A

=E

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12
Q

Provide one characteristic which would enable you to distinguish a colloidal drug formulation from a solution. (1 mark)

A

Tyndall effect – light beam path through colloid is visible due to light scatter (1 mark) - also accept dialysis or electrophoresis as answers.

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13
Q

Give an example of one pharmaceutical suspension and one colloidal formulation. Choose two properties and briefly describe the differences between them. (4 marks)

A

Pharmaceutical suspension: paracetamol suspension, ibuprofen suspension, amoxicillin suspension, ciprofloxacin suspension, chloramphenicol palmitate suspension, phenytoin suspension, cholera vaccine etc. (1 mark)
Colloidal formulation: any creams or gels, Covid-19 vaccine etc. (1 mark)
Any two properties from below (2 marks)

Property:
Particle Size
1 nm to 1 µm (10-9 m to 10-6 m)
1 µm to 1 mm (10-6 m to 10-3 m)

Appearance
Cloudy, but uniform and homogeneous
Cloudy, heterogeneous, at least two substances visible

Separation
None Particles will eventually settle out
Filtration
Passes through filter Particles filtered out

Effect of light
Scatters light
Variable – generally cannot pass through

Visibility
Particles visible under microscope
Particles visible to naked eye

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14
Q

Briefly describe the major types of non-bonding intermolecular interactions. (5 marks)

A

There are three types of non-bonding intermolecular interactions: dipole-dipole interactions, van der Waals forces and hydrogen bonding (1 mark if all the three are mentioned).

Dipole-dipole interactions are interactions between the positive end of one dipole and the negative end of another dipole (1 mark). Dipole–dipole interactions arise when electrons are not equally shared in the covalent bonds because of the difference in electronegativity. (0.5 marks)
van der Waals forces are relatively weak forces of attraction that exist between non-polar molecules (1 mark). These forces are distance-dependent interactions between atoms or molecules (0.5 marks).
Hydrogen bonding is the attractive force between the hydrogen attached to an electronegative atom of one molecule (0.5 marks) and an electronegative atom of the same or a different molecule (0.5 marks).

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15
Q

Briefly explain why ethanol is often employed as a cosolvent in pharmaceutical solutions. (5 marks)

A

Cosolvents are added to aqueous formulations with the aim of improving the solubility of the active ingredient (1 mark).
Ethanol is a semi-polar solvent (1 mark) which means that it is typically able to dissolve polar and non-polar substances (1 mark).
The addition of ethanol as a cosolvent may mean that a pharmaceutical solution can be prepared when previously only an aqueous suspension was possible (1 mark). An example would be the use of ethanol in the production of paracetamol elixir – a solution (1 mark).

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16
Q

A prescription calls for the extemporaneous dispensing of 100 mL of “Primidone oral solution”. Based upon your knowledge of the bench-scale manufacture of medicines, suggest an appropriate method that could be followed to prepare primidone suspension according to the formula below. (5marks)
Formula:
* Primidone 250 mg tablets x 20
* Xanthan gum 0.4% to 100 mL

A
  1. Crush/grind around 10 bendroflumethiazide tablets in a pestle and mortar into a fine powder. (1 mark)
  2. Add a small amount of Xanthan gum 0.4% to the mortar and mix well with the pestle. (1 mark)
    • Transfer the suspension to a tared (100 mL) bottle and then rinse the mortar with further portions of Xanthan gum solution (and add to the bottle). (2 marks)
  3. Make up to the final volume (shown by the tare mark) with Xanthan gum solution. (1 mark)
  4. Shake well. (1 mark)
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17
Q

Briefly describe the design and operation of a rotating viscometer and state the type of liquids with which it can be used. (5 marks)

A

A cylinder with a cone-shaped end (1 mark)
is rotated at a constant speed (1 mark)
in a second cylinder containing the liquid under investigation (1 mark).
The drag on the cone-shaped cylinder is measured and equated to the viscosity (1 mark).
Can be used for determining the viscosity of Newtonian and Non-Newtonian liquids (2 marks).

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18
Q

A patient has accidentally overdosed on a weakly basic drug. As part of their treatment, it is decided to give the patient ammonium chloride (a urine acidifier). Explain how this course of action may help the patient. (5 marks)

A

Renal excretion of drugs can be controlled by altering the pH of the urine with salt solutions (1 mark)
By acidifying the urine a weakly basic drug is more likely to be ionised in the urine (2 marks). This will lead to a decrease in re-absorption (1 mark) and an increase in excretion of the drug (1 mark). Increased excretion of the drug will therefore lower the plasma levels of the drug (1 mark).

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19
Q

Briefly explain the DLVO theory of colloidal stability. (5 marks)
0.5 marks for mentioning each point below and 0.5 marks for describing each term.

A
  1. Electrostatic repulsive forces (VR)
  2. Van der Waals forces of attraction (VA)
  3. Primary minimum
  4. Primary maximum
  5. Secondary minimum
  6. Arises from the interaction of ELECTRICAL DOUBLE LAYERS surrounding pairs of particles
  7. At large distances of separation, particles experience a minimal attraction. Forces of attraction are weak (flocculation) not coalescence i.e can redisperse upon shaking.
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20
Q

If a reaction is said to be a Zero order reaction, what will the rate of the reaction be?
. 0
b. 1
c. The value of k
d. Depends on the concentration of the reactants
e. None of the above

A

c

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21
Q

A mother read about the news of a bad batch of cough syrup containing dextromethorphan that had
led to the hospitalisation and death of at least 16 children in India. She is about to buy a common
cough syrup OTC for her child, and she would like to find out from you a bit more about what
common excipients are in cough syrups? List at least FIVE excipients and state their function. (5
marks)

A

Solvent: Purified water
Co-solvent: Ethanol, Glycerol
Viscosity-increasing agent: Carboxymethylcellulose sodium, hydroxymethcylcellulose
 Antimicrobial preservative: Sodium benzoate, benzalkonium chloride Chelating/complexing agent: Disodium edetate/ EDTA
Sweetening agent: Maltitol, Sorbitol, Sodium cyclamate, Acesulfame, sucrose, fructose potassium
 Antioxidant: Citric acid, ascorbic acid
 Colourant: Amaranth, Caramel
 Flavouring agent: Levomenthol, Cherry/Grenadine flavour

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22
Q

The HPV vaccine and the Johnson & Johnson/Janssen COVID-19 vaccine contain polysorbate 80 as a
stabiliser.
a. Explain why Polysorbate 80 is used in this injectable formulation. (3 marks)
b. Explain why this formulation needs to be stored in the fridge and in the original carton. (2
marks)

A

a. Non-ionic surfactant (1 mark)
Contributes to steric stabilisation/entropic effects (1 mark)
The hydrophilic polymeric groups (polyoxyethylene groups) overlap which is thermodynamically unfavourable (a loss of entropy), causing them to separate (1 mark)

b. Store in the fridge to reduce rate of antibody degradation and microbial growth (1 mark)
Store in the original carton to protect from light (1 mark)

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23
Q

Describe the approaches you can take, according to the DLVO theory, to stabilise the emulsion as
shown below to prevent the drug particles from aggregation. (5 mark)

A

Van der Waals attraction causes drug particles to aggregate (1 mark)
At primary minimum, the particles coagulate irreversibly (1 mark)
The height of this repulsive force (Vmax) at primary maximum determines the stability of the system
(1 mark)
The height can be increased by electrostatic stabilisation using different surfactants and electrolyte
concentration (1 mark)

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24
Q

Give a brief explanation as to how pH-partition theory suggests that the weak base chlordiazepoxide
(pKa 4.8) will be better absorbed from the small intestines than the stomach. (5 marks)

A
  • Explanation of pH-partition theory (1 mark)
  • pH changes along the GI tract: in the stomach, the pH can be as low as 1.5, but it rises to pH 6 or higher in the small intestines (1 mark)
  • Chlordiazepoxide is a weak base so it is more likely to be ionised at low pH values (at pH 2.8 it will be
    99% ionised). (2 marks)
    In the small intestines, the pH of >6 will mean that chlordiazepoxide is mostly (>90%) unionised and
    therefore uncharged (1 mark) it is therefore more likely to cross the lipophilic gastro-intestinal
    epithelium (1 mark)

Note: marks NOT awarded for information about small intestine surface area, long residence times
etc. The question asked for “how pH-partition theory suggests…

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25
Q

Explain why the polysaccharide cellulose is insoluble in water. How might we be able to alter its molecular structure to develop polymers which have improved aqueous solubility and more pharmaceutical uses? (5 marks)

A

Cellulose is a long straight-chain polymer made up of many beta-glucose monomers. Cellulose is insoluble as it is made up of many H bonds and this holds the microfibrils together strongly, this means that the bonds cannot be broken down when added to water.
To inc solubility, cellulose can be converted to HPMC or HEC which bother have a higher aqueous solubility than that of cellulose. (2)
* mention methylcellulose, structure of cellulose (OH groups),

MS:
Cellulose has three hydroxyl groups on each monomer (1 mark) and this leads to extensive intermolecular attractions – similar to the covalent crosslinks (1 mark)
Because the cellulose polymer molecules are held together strongly, they cannot be separated (or
“pulled apart”) which would allow them to enter solution (1 mark)
In methylcellulose about a third of the hydroxyl groups have been etherified – methyl cellulose is slowly soluble in cold water (1 mark)
HPMC is another cellulose ether derivative with an even better aqueous solubility (1 mark)
Some uses for methylcellulose /HPMC listed (1 mark)

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26
Q

Explain why the bioavailability of a drug administered orally is usually lower than the same drug administered via the intravenous route. (5 marks)

A

IV route= 100% bioavailability.
This is because drug is administered through the skeletal muscle and directly into bloodstream.
Whereas oral has several barriers before being absorbed through the phospholipid bilayer and then into the bloodstream. It also does not need to surpass digestion in the stomach and the first-pass metabolism in the liver, where some of the drug is metabolised and so does not enter the blood.
(3 marks)- need to mention solubility, molecular weight or log P (2 more marks)

MS:
When a drug is administered via the oral route there are several factors which can reduce the bioavailability, these could include:
1. Drug broken down by stomach acid or enzymes (1 mark)
2. Non-ideal physicochemical properties, e.g. low aqueous solubility (1 mark), log P too high/low (1 mark), molecular weight too high (1 mark)
3. First pass metabolism – this is when the drug is successfully absorbed but then a proportion of it is metabolised on its “first pass” through the liver (2 marks

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27
Q

What type of surfactant is polyoxyethylene (10) oleyl ether?
Non ionic
Cationic
Anionic
Zwitterionic
Co-surfactant

A

Non-ionic
(zwitterionic has 2 charges, cationic= positive charge, anionic= neg charge)

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28
Q

One-third of all drugs used in cancer therapy are hydrophobic. Which of the following is NOT a
reason for using drugs in a micellar form?

a. Micelles can be used to deliver water-insoluble drugs in their hydrophobic core
b. Micelles provide favourable changes in drug biodistribution for hydrophobic drugs
c. Micelles improve the permeability of drugs across the physiological barriers
d. Drug in a micellar form is protected from possible inactivation under the effect of biological surrounding
e. Drug in a micellar form provokes undesirable side effects on non-target organs and tissues

A

=E (opposite is correct)

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29
Q

Flocculation of a suspension dosage form can be controlled by..
a. Electrolytes to reduce electrical forces of repulsion
b. Surfactants to form liquid bridges
c. Polymers to adjust interparticulate interactions
d. All the above
e. None of the above

A

=D

30
Q

According to the Stokes-Einstein equation, an/a __________ in viscosity of the solvent and an/a
__________ in radius of the solute molecule lead to greater diffusion coefficient.
a. Increase; increase
b. Decrease; decrease
c. Increase; decrease
d. Decrease; increase
e. Increase; fixed value

A

=B

31
Q

The process of disappearance of small particles or droplets by dissolution and deposition on the
larger particles or droplets is known as
a. Flocculation
b. Sedimentation
c. Creaming
d. Caking
e. Ostwald ripening

A

= E

32
Q

Which of the following is NOT an approach to enhance the solubility of a non-ionic drug in oral
solution?
a. Addition of glycerol
b. Addition of ethanol
c. Addition of propylene glycol
d. Addition of polyethylene glycol
e. Addition of benzoic acid

A

=E (all are co-solvents except benzoic acid which is a preservative)

33
Q

A drug has the initial concentration of 5.0 x 10-3 g cm-3 in aqueous solution. After 24 months, the
concentration drops to 3.48 x 10-3 g cm-3. This degradation process is known to follow first-order
kinetics. Which one of the following is the rate constant for this reaction?
a. -1.5 x 10-2 month-1
b. 1.5 x 10-2 month-1
c. -3.0 x 10-2 month-1
d. 3.0 x 10-2 month-1
e. 3.2 x 10-2 month-1

A

ln (A)t= ln[A]0-kt

34
Q

Arrhenius equation represents graphically the variation between the __________ and temperature.
a. Rate of reaction
b. Frequency factor
c. Rate constant
d. Activation energy
e. Molar gas constant

A

C= Rate constant

35
Q

Creams and ointments containing the same active pharmaceutical ingredient are available. Discuss
their differences in terms of their constituents, viscosity, spreadability, greasiness and duration of
action. (5 marks)

A

Constituents:
Cream- more watery, less hydrocarbons, waxes, polyols
Ointment- less water, more hydrocarbons, waxes, polyols

Viscosity
Cream- thin, less viscous
Ointment- thick, more viscous

Spreadability:
Cream- More spreadable
Ointment- Less spreadable

Greasiness
Cream- Less greasy
Ointment- Greasier

Duration of action
Cream- Lasts for a shorter duration on skin
Ointment- Lasts longer on skin

36
Q

Briefly explain the DLVO theory of colloidal stability. (5 marks)

A

Graph: Repulsion on Top and Attraction at bottom, Distance on Y axis
Drawn from R to L:
distance is closes, then they have repulsion then goes down to fully attracted (were coagulation happens)

Electrostatic repulsive forces
Van der waals forces cause attraction.
Primary minimum
Primary maximum
Secondary minimum

37
Q

A patient has accidentally overdosed on a weakly basic drug. As part of their treatment, it is decided
to give the patient ammonium chloride (a urine acidifier). Explain how this course of action may help
the patient. (5 marks)

A

Basic drugs ionise at a lower pH. So decreasing pH will mean drug is more likely to ionise in urine, so will be excreted and not reabsorbed.

38
Q

The rate constant k for the decomposition of a compound in solution is k=2.5 x 10-5 mol·dm-3 s-1. If
the initial concertation of the compound is 0.15 mol·dm-3. What will the half-life of the compound
be?
a. 300 seconds
b. 500 minutes
c. 50 minutes
d. 30000 seconds
e. 0.5 hours

A

= C
t1/2 = initial conc/ rate (k)
0.15/2.5 x10-5 = 3000s= 50 minutes

39
Q

A compound is known to contain only one oxygen atom and an unknown number of carbon and
hydrogen atoms. If the molecular ion has a m/z value of 100, what is the molecular formula of the
compound?
a. C6H12O
b. C7H16
c. C5H8O2
d. C5H12O
e. C4H36O

A

= A

40
Q

What are the aromatic peaks in the IR spectrum?

A

3000= C-H stretch indicating aromatic ring
1620= C=C stretching of an aromatic

41
Q

UV/Vis spectroscopy can be used to determine the pKa of a compound if either the acidic form or
basic form of the compound absorbs UV or visible light.
a) According to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, for a weak acid, when will the pH of a solution be equal to the pKa of the compound? (1 mark)
b) The absorbance of a solution of weak acid was measured under the same conditions at a series
of pH values, as shown in the table below. The conjugate base of the acid is the only species
in the solution that absorbs UV light at the wavelength used. Estimate the pKa of the acid from
the data obtained. (4 marks)

A

a) When the concentration of the compound in the acidic form is the same as the concentration
of the compound in the basic form. (1 mark)
b) Overall answer is: pKa = 4.0 (4 marks if correct answer given)
- Partial credit for each of the following (up to a maximum of 4 marks):
- Noting absorbance does not increase with pH beyond 1.80 (1 mark)
- This means the compound in the basic form when absorbance is 1.80 (1 mark)
- Therefore when absorbance is half of 1.80 (0.90), half the compound is in acidic form
and half in basic form therefore [acidic] = [basic] (1 mark)
- Absorbance is 0.90 at pH 4.0, therefore pKa = 4.0 (1 mark)

42
Q

The presence, or absence, of an absorption band in IR spectroscopy is a good method for determining
which functional groups are present in a molecule.
a) Assuming the force constants are the same, which occurs at a higher wavenumber: a C – O
stretch or a C – Cl stretch? Why? (2 marks)
b) How can IR spectroscopy be used to distinguish between an aldehyde and a ketone? (1 mark)
c) An oxygen containing compound shows an absorption band at ≈ 1700 cm-1 and no absorption
bands at ≈ 3300 cm-1, ≈ 2700 cm-1, or ≈ 1100 cm-1. What class of compound is it? (2 marks)

A

a. C-O, the vibration of lighter atoms occur at larger wavelengths
b. An aldehyde would show absorption bands at 2820cm-1 and 2720cm-1 whereas a ketone would not have these absorption bands
c. Ketone
Carbonyl group at 1700cm-1
Not at 3300cm-1 so not COOH
No band at 2700cm-1 so not an aldehyde
No band at 1100cm-1 so not an ester or an amide

43
Q

Briefly describe the design and operation of a rotating viscometer and state the type of liquids with
which it can be used. (5 marks)

A

Marking scheme:
A cylinder with a cone-shaped end (1 mark) is rotated at a constant speed (1 mark) in a second
cylinder containing the liquid under investigation (1 mark). The drag on the cone-shaped cylinder is
measured and equated to the viscosity (1 mark). Can be used for determining the viscosity of
Newtonian and Non-Newtonian liquids (2 marks).

Marks awarded up to 5 marks.
Marks may be awarded for other relevant information in lieu the points above.

44
Q

What is
Flocculation?
Sedimentation?
Creaming?
Caking?
Ostwald ripening?
Aggregation?
Coagulation?

A

Flocculation= Aggregates have an open structure with particles a small distance apart, attracted by weak forces to form flocs/flakes vb
Ostwald ripening= The process of disappearance of small particles or droplets by dissolution and deposition on the larger particles or droplet
Aggregation= Particles in groups
Coagulation= Closely aggregated and difficult to redisperse

45
Q

A patient receives a 50 mg intravenous bolus dose of Drug A and the plasma levels of the drug are
monitored. After a washout period, the same patient is given the same drug as a 100 mg oral dose.
What is the bioavailability (F) of Drug A if the AUCIV is 150 h μg L-1 and the AUCoral is 240 h μg L-1?
a. 0.80
b. 0.90
c. 0.62
d. 3.20
e. 50%

A

Formula on DS
= A

46
Q

Tamoxifen (pKa 8.9) is a weakly basic drug used to treat breast cancer in both women and men.
What proportion of the drug is ionised at pH 5.5
a. 90.91%
b. 99.96%
c. 99.01%
d. 50%
e. 10%

A

= B
pH= 7.9 would be 90% ionised
pH=6.9= 99% ionised
pH=5.9 = More than 99.01%

47
Q

Systemic delivery is NOT the intention when a drug is administered by which ONE of the following
delivery routes?
a. Oral route
b. Sublingual route
c. Topical route
d. Intravenous route
e. Buccal route

A

C= Topical
is for local delivery

48
Q

The drug hydrocortisone has a molecular weight of 362.5. Which ONE of the following denotes the
greatest concentration of hydrocortisone?
a. 320 mg / L
b. 0.5 mmol / L
c. 0.1 % w/v
d. 0.5 umol / mL
e. 320 ng / mL

A

= C

49
Q

A new eye-drop formulation is to be sterilised by autoclaving in the final container at 121 °C. Which
ONE of the following materials would NOT be suitable primary packaging?
a. High-density polyethylene (HDPE)
b. Polypropylene (PP)
c. Type I glass
d. Type II glass
e. Polyethylene terephthalate

A

= E

50
Q

Cellulose acetate phthalate (CAP) is a pH-sensitive polymer with a pKa of 5.5. The structure of CAP is
shown below. Which ONE of the following statements regarding this polymer is incorrect?
a. It is a derivative of the naturally occurring polymer cellulose.
b. CAP would potentially be suitable to use in the enteric coating of tablets.
c. The letter “n” denotes the polymerisation number.
d. CAP would be a suitable polymer material to be used in primary packaging.
e. CAP is a homopolymer

A

= D

51
Q

Which ONE of the following formulations is most likely to exhibit “shear thinning”?
a. Syrup BP
b. A suspension stabilised with methylcellulose
c. Purified Water BP
d. Sodium Bicarbonate 8.4% w/v Solution for Injection
e. Sodium Chloride Oral Solution

A

= B

52
Q

Which ONE of the following strategies is LEAST likely to increase the dissolution rate of a poorly
soluble drug? (You can assume that the dissolution of the drug is an endothermic process).
a. Reduce the particle size of the drug.
b. Increase the temperature.
c. Addition of a cosolvent.
d. Use a more soluble salt of the drug.
e. Use a crystalline form of the drug instead of an amorphous form

A

=E

53
Q

How do you calculate DBE?

A
  • Counts rings, count double bonds (1) and triple bonds (2)
  • OR 2C + 2 + N - H- Hal / 2
54
Q

What is the ionisation of the acid HA in water?

A

K
H20 + HA = H3O+ A-

55
Q

How to calculate pI from a polypeptide?
What is pI?

A

Isoelectric point pI : pH at which concentration of the zwitterion (double charged form of an amino acid) is maximum)

zwitterion is neutral.
If pH > pKa (FG does not have the H)
COOH will be COO-
NH2 will be NH2

If pH < pKa (FG has the H)
COOH will be COOH
NH2 will be NH3+

pK1 and pK2 are the values BEFORE and AFTER the species with net charge 0

56
Q

Briefly describe the Virtual Screening method (HTVS) adopted in the Hit discovery process. Make sure you mention/briefly describe HTVS advantages
and all the different types of HTVS (5 marks)

A
  • Advantages: faster, easier, cheaper, and safer [0.5 marks]
  • Only positive virtual hit are tested [0.5 marks].
  • 3 types of virtual screening: structure-based virtual screening, ligand-based virtual screening and a mixed virtual screening. [1 mark].
  • Structure-based virtual screening: based on the 3D structure of the target receptor or enzyme [0.5 mark]. The software takes each virtual compound and explore its possible conformation, so docking pose, within the binding site [0.5 marks]
  • If the crystal structure of a target is not available, the 3D structure of any know active molecule or natural substrate of that target can be used to
    perform a ligand based virtual screening [0.5 marks]. The software screens libraries of virtual compounds that can match the 3D shape and the functional groups disposition of the query molecule [0.5 marks].
  • Virtual compound libraries can also be screened for their matching of a pharmacophoric query, in a mixed virtual screening [0.5 marks]. All the
    possible conformations of the screened molecules are explored and evaluatedfor their fitting to a given pharmacophoric model [0.5 marks].

Marks may be aw arded for other relevant information in lieu of these points.

57
Q

What is the Ka value for strong and weak acids?

A

STRONG = Large value for Ka and produce a high H3O+ concentration
WEAK= Small value for Ka and produce a low H3O+ conc

58
Q

What does the smaller value of pKa mean?

A

The stronger the acid.
Large Ka and small pKa

59
Q

What does the larger value of pKa mean?

A

The weaker the acid.
Small Ka and large pKa

60
Q

ΔG = ΔH − TΔS
How does the reaction proceed if:
ΔG is negative
ΔG zero
ΔG is positive

A

Neg= Reaction proceeds spontaneously in the forward direction (irreversible)
Zero= Reaction is at equilibrium, can proceed in either
directions
Pos=Reaction is non-spontaneous and will not proceed in the fwd direction unless coupled with an energetically favourable reaction.

61
Q

Reaction orders:
What is the half-life equation for
First, second, Third order?

A

zero= 0.5 [A]0/k’
first= 0.693/k
second= 1/[A]0k

62
Q

Examples of excipients:

A
63
Q

How to assign R and S:

A
  1. Assign priority to highest atomic number (this is C1) and follow on
  2. Double or triple bonds are assigned priorities as if both atoms were duplicated or tripled
    3) H is last priority usually.. if facing away from you (dashed) keep it the same. If its towards you (wedge) then flip the sign
64
Q

What are the stretching frequencies for:
OH? (alc and acid)
C-O (alc and ethers)
N-H (Amine)

A

O-H
Alcohol O-H = 3300cm-1
Acid= 3000cm-1

C-O
Alcohols and ethers 1000-1200cm-1

N-H
Amine 3300, broad

65
Q

Ketones and Aldehydes:
What are the stretching frequencies for:
C=O
C-H

A

C=O is 1700cm-1
Aldehyde= 1725cm-1
Ketone= 1710cm-1
C-H= 2700 and 2800cm-1

So aldehyde has 1 and ketone has 3

66
Q

Carbon and Hydrogen NMR
Where would you find the aromatic peaks?

A

RHS and aliphatic compounds on LHS

67
Q

Calculation of a sample concentration using UV:
What equation is used?
[On DS]

A

Beer lambert equation- plot should be straight line
A= ECL
where A is absorbance, E is molar absorption coefficient, C is molar concentration, l is optical path length

68
Q

What is the N+1 rule?

A

If the signal is split by N neighbouring equivalent protons, it will be split into N+1 peaks

69
Q

What are the important 1H NMR stretching freq you need to know?

A

COOH= 10-12ppm
COH= 9-10ppm
Aromatic= 6-8ppm
HC-R= 0.5-2ppm

OH and NH can be anywhere and not split peaks

70
Q

What are the important 13C NMR stretching freq you need to know?

A

C-C = 0-50ppm
C-O = 50-90ppm
C=O - 160-220ppm
Aromatic or C=C -110-160ppm