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VetMed Year 3 -Term 1 > i) 18-Nov-13 > Flashcards

i) 18-Nov-13 Flashcards

1
Q

Difference between antiseptic and disinfectant

A

ANTISEPTIC: is a chemical agent that either kills or inhibits pathogenic microorganisms. Applied to the skin DISINFECTANT: Germicidal chemical that kills microorganisms on inanimate objects.

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2
Q

Define sepsis

A

Presence of pathogens or their toxic products in the tissues of a patient

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3
Q

Complete elimination of microbial viability, including spores by physical/chemical means is known as

A

Sterilisation

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4
Q

What are Halsteads principles? When were these proposed??

A

19th century. 1. Gental tissue handling 2. Accurate haemostasis 3. Preservation of vascularity 4. Surgical asepsis 5. No tension on tissues 6. Approximation of tissues 7. Obliteration of dead space

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5
Q

Three types of hand washing chemicals

A
  1. Chlorhexidine 2. Povidone- iodine 3. Ethyl alcohol (70%)
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6
Q

How does chlorhexidine work? Why is it favoured by farm vets?

A

Broad spectrum vs bacteria. Variable vs virus’. NOT against spores. Kills by: Precipitation of cellular contents and alteration in cell proliferation Instant kill and some residual activity. Favoured by FARM VETS as not inactivated by organic matter

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7
Q

Clorhexidine is toxic in 3 ways….

A

Ototoxic, corneal, neurotoxic (do not apply directly!!)

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8
Q

Povidone-iodine action. What is the required contact time? What decreases its action time?

A

Broad spectrum (bac, virus NOT SPORES). Inhibition of protein synthesis Required contact time is 2 minutes. Action time decreased by organic matter + hard water.

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9
Q

Can chlorhexidine and Povidone-iodine be used together?

A

No, they inactivate each other. Alcohol enhances their action

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10
Q

Which of the antiseptics is best around open wounds?

A

Povidone-iodine. Avoid alcohol

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11
Q

Is closed gloving or open gloving more sterile?

A

CLOSED GLOVING is MORE sterile. Use OPEN gloving for urinary catheter etc.

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12
Q

Method for ‘scrubbing up’ the patient

A

Inside out. Minimum 5 minutes contact time

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13
Q

If using the 4 drape method, where should the first one be placed?

A

In the field immediately infront of the surgeon. Then work in circular pattern clockwise

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14
Q

Which part of the surgeon is not considered to be sterile?

A

Not below waist OR BACK

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15
Q

NRC four classifications of contamination

A
  1. Clean 2. Clean-contaminated 3. Contaminated 4. Dirty
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16
Q

Entry to the gastrointestinal/ urogenital/bilary tract without contamination would be described as which of the 4 NRC classifications

A

Clean contaminated Also minor break in aseptic technique (glove puncture)

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17
Q

Gross spillage into the body cavity from GIT would be which of the NRC four classifications

A

Contaminated, also entrance to urogenital/bilary if infected. Fresh traumatic wound or major break in aseptic technique

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18
Q

When would a surgery be classed as dirty

A

Perforated viscus. Pus encountered Faecal contamination. Major break in sterile

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19
Q

What are the important principles of antimicrobial prophylaxis

A
  1. Administer BEFORE SURGERY 2. Maintain MIC at surgical sire Decrease number of bacteria to a level that host immune system can cope with. If longer surgery HAVE TO GIVE IV throughout surgery.
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20
Q

By which method should prophalactic antimicrobials be given?

A

Intravenous. Additional dose given 1/2x t1/2 If SC= Too slow to have any effect. No proven effect if given after surgery

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21
Q

Fluroquinoles should NOT be used as a first line of antimicrobial. What do they have NO EFFICACY against?

A

Fluroquinoles have NO EFFICACY against anaerobes. Are GOOD against gram negative.

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22
Q

Metronidazole is great against

A

Anaerobes (poor against others)

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23
Q

A safe minimum standard for steam sterilisation is

A

13 minutes at 120 degrees. Thermal destruction of bacteria is time and temperature dependent. The presence of moisture means bacterial death occurs at a lower temperature in a shorter period of time

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24
Q

Dry heat requires more or less time that moist heat sterilisers

A

Dry heat requires more time. 160 degrees for 120 minutes

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25
Q

Items damaged by heat e.g. fibre-optic equipement cannot be sterilised by temperature. What can be used?

A

ETHYLENE OXIDE, is capable of destroying all known bacteria, spores, fungi and larger fibres. It inactivates cellular DNA. 12 hours in polythene liner at room temperature. HYDROGEN PEROXIDE

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26
Q

When should (cold sterilisation) disinfectants not be used

A

Should not play a part in critical instruments. (Those used below the skin)

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27
Q
A

Metzenbaum sissors

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28
Q
A

Mayo sissors

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29
Q

Different types of haemostatic forceps

A

Mosquioto, Kelly, Carmalt

(in order of increasing size)

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30
Q

Two types of diathermy

A

Monopolar

Bipolar (electric field between the two). Less traumatic, effective in a wet field

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31
Q

What is a Esmarch bandage?

A

Type of bandage used for haemostasis.

Wrap bandage distally to proximally to remove blood. Can upwrap a distal portion while the proximal portion is occuluding the vessel

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32
Q

Types of thumb forceps

A

Adson, Adson Brown, DeBakey

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33
Q

The needle holders with sissors at the bottom are known as

A

Olsen-Hegar

34
Q

What is the 7 step herd/flock investigation process?

A
  1. Define/Refine problem
  2. History
  3. Distance examination
  4. Clinical examination
  5. Ancillary aids
  6. Analysis/ Decision Making
  7. Reporting back/ further monitoring
35
Q

What is involved in the indivudal animal exam?

A

Age, BCS, Temp, HR, RR, rumination rate, Hydration status, mucus membranes

36
Q

Definition of poor thift

A

Failure to gain weight AS EXPECTED

Poor body condition score

Is very common and VERY EXPENSIVE

37
Q

How does the feed conversion ratio vary between poor thift animals and normal?

A

Feed conversion ratio is HIGHER for poor thift animals/

It takes more dry matter to convert into a kg of weight

38
Q

When is economic cost of poor thift most significant?

A

At key times of the year

-Matings- decrease conception rates/ ovulation rates

Early pregnancy: Decreased placental development

Late pregnancy: Increased risk of metabolic disease

Lactation: Decreased milk production

WELFARE

39
Q

Whole group causes of poor thift

A

Under feeding (quantitity)

Under feeding (quality)- trace element deficiency

If normal appetite: Maldigestion/Malabsorbtion (nematodes, fluke, coccidosis)

40
Q

What can be used to see if nutrition is adequate in a herd

A

Milk yield, BCS, calving-conception interval, forages testing

41
Q

What are the three GI worms of sheep visible by eye?

A

HOT 2-1-0.5

Haemoncus

Ostertagia

Trichostrongylus

42
Q

What is the condition ‘Pine’

A

Cobalt deficinecy

Can cause pale mucous membranes

Makes PGE worse/ dirrrhoea

43
Q

TE deficiency can be described as PRIMARY or SECONDARY. Explain the differences

A

Primary: Soil/Plant deficiency

Secondary: Lack of absorption in the animal

44
Q

Which TE are more commonly involved in

a) Primary deficiency
b) Secondary deficiency a

A

Primary (soil/plant): Co, Se, I, Cu

Secondary (Absorption in animal): Cu

(Cu binds to Mo in rumen)

45
Q

Why is Cobalt a trace element?

How do difficient animals present?

A

Co is an essential part of VitB12 (incorportated into vit B 12 by rumen microbes)

Vit B12 is part of a co-enzyme involved in propionate –> Glucose pathway

If deficient = shortage of glucose. Therefore POOR THIFT of growing animals

46
Q

Can does a severely Co deficient animal present?

A

Anemia, Eye discharge.

Usually seen in weaned lambs. Often associated with concurrent parasitism

47
Q

Before checking TE, what is it important to observe?

A

Adequate nutrition, parasites? LOOK AT FIELD.

TEST ANIMALS NOT SOIL

48
Q

What is the function of VitE/ Selenium.

How do deficient animals present?

A

Protects against free radicals i.e. don’t know.

WHITE MUSCLE DISEASE (2-6 weeks)

i.e. if calf that won’t stand = WARNING SIGN.- tip of ice berg

Poor growth rates

49
Q

Why do animals require Cu?

How do deficient animals present?

A

Cu is essential part of many enzymes (myelin formation), tyrosinase (pigmentation)

Swayback (lambs born to deficient ewes/deer)

Deficient animals: Poor thift, diarrhoea poor coat colour.

Brown rings around eyes!! Tyrosinase/.

50
Q

Where is the trace element, Cu stored?

A

Liver, so can take biopsy to see if appropriate storage.

Liver Cu levels deplete over winter.

51
Q

A lamb is born with a swelling by its neck. What TE is the most likely to be deficient?

A

Iodine. Required for synthesis of thyroid hormones.

If deficient = hyperplasia of thyroid tissue.

Could also be bottle jaw (but probably too young) which is oedema due to protein loss= parasitism

52
Q

A young sheep has an abnormal gait. What TE defiency could be causing this?

A

Cu = sway back in lambs- important in myelin formation

OR

Selenium - white muscle disease (also affects diarphram= dyspnoea??)

Cu deficiency also =- spontaneous fractures

53
Q

How do you diagnose TE deficiency?

A

TEST ANIMAL, NOT SOIL

TE stored in body?

YES= Test storage site (e.g. Cu in Liver)

NO= Sample blood (Se)

If variation = sample lots (Cu, Co) . No variation = only few samples (Se)

54
Q

Co most commenly affects

A

Weaned lambs

55
Q

Se most commonly affects

A

Any species

56
Q

Cu normally affects

A

Cattle

57
Q

What is good practice when treating TE deficencys in a herd

A

Keep a control group (ideally 1/2) to check effectiveness

58
Q

Important first step when investigating sudden death?

A

Define the problem.

Observational skills = v.v. important

Is it really sudden death?

59
Q

Infectious causes of sudden death include:

A

Infectious: Septicaemia/ Toxemia

Common; usually bacterial.

Predisposed by management factors: CLOSTRIDIAL DISEASES
Stocking density= Salmonellosis

Recent flooding= Leptospirosis

60
Q

Three unvaccinated yearing dairy-bred bullocks at grass died in a week.

What further tests would you consider

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Would take history, vaccination, management, changes in MM colour- if congested = enterotoxemia

Clostridal enterotoxamia

61
Q

How long before lambing should ewes be vaccinated with a booster against clostridial diseases?

How long do maternal antibodies against clostridial diseases last for in the lamb?

A

Ewe: Sensitiser + Booster THEN booster 4-6 weeks before lambing

MDA last for 10-12 weeks (if adeuate clolostrum). Clostridal vaccines are effective in the face of maternal antibody

62
Q

If grass has recently been cut for silage and cows are put out to graze it; what do you need to CHECK?

A

If there are marshy areas around the outside edge of the field with longer grass cows will preferentially graze this and may result in high metacercaria numbers ingested

= acute fascioliasis

Similar with Haemonchus

= anamia

63
Q

Which plants are toxic to cows?

A

Yew, Oleander, Oak, PA containing (e.g. Ragwort)

Easier diagnosis as all affected cows in same field.

Common after storms especially acorns falling down.

64
Q

What is the significance of this plant?

A

Is Oleander. Toxic to cows

65
Q

Over supplmentation of which mineral results in sudden death

A

Over supplmentation of Selenium (or Cu!)
Diagnosis: Blood Se levels

Lead (car batterys), Cyanide (peach seeds)

66
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden death in beef cattle (as reported by VLA in 2008)

A

Hypomagenesium!

52% of sudden death

67
Q

Thiamine deficiency in cows causes sudden death due to ______

A

Cerebro-cortical necrosis consistant with thiamine deficiency (vit B1)

68
Q

Which stage of the Fasiola life cycle is ingested by cows?

A

Metacercaria then immature fluke migrates to liver. Mature fluke develops in liver.

Majority of parasites life IN REFUGIA i.e. ON PASTURE

69
Q

What are the four main nematodes that affect ruminants and WHERE ARE THEY FOUND?

A

Ostertagia, Hamonchus = ABOMASUM

Treichostrongulus, Nematodirrus (at lambing time!) = SMALL INTESTINE

70
Q

Fasiola hepatica is an example of a __-

A

Trematode

= 12 WEEK LIFE CYCLE

71
Q

Adults are responably immune, the exceptions are…

A
  1. Goats
  2. Immuno-compromised
  3. PPRI (after lambing - 1-3 weeks after lambing!!!)
  4. Horses= cyathostomins
  5. Liver fluke
72
Q

Arrested over-wintered parasites start to resume develop in which season?

A

Spring. e..g. arrested ostertagia and cyathostomins.

SPRING: MAIN THREATS:

Nematodirus battus, overwintered eggs

Type 2 Ostertagiasis (young cattle)

Larval cyathosomins

FEC limited value

73
Q

What are the main parasite threats in summer

A

All nematodes (calves, lambs, goats)

Parascaris

Cyathostomins

74
Q

When would you expect lambs/goats to get infected with a) ostertagia b) trichostrongylus

A

Ostertagia: Summer

Trichostrongulus: Autumn

75
Q

Main parasite threats in WINTER

A

Chronic fascioliasis - adults

76
Q

What are the SCOPS Guidlines? Which is the most important?

A
  1. Work out a control strategy with vet/ advisor
  2. Use effective quarentine strategies
  3. Test for AR on farm
  4. Adminsiter anthelmintics effectively
  5. Use anthelmintics only when necessary = MOST IMPORTANT. ONLY TREAT FEC WORTH TREATING
  6. Select appropriate anthelmintic for task
  7. Adopt strategies to preserve sucseptible worms on the farm
  8. Reduce dependent on anthelmintics
77
Q

How is Gross Margin calculated?

What do they NOT take into account of?

A

Gross Margin: Output- Variable costs

Gross Margin does NOT take into account of fixed costs

78
Q

Partial budgeting is based on

A

Partial budgeting is based on additional costs and additional benefits

Costs: new costs (e.g. vaccine/discinfectant) / revenues forgone (salvage value of animals with disease)

Benefit: Costs saved/ new revenue

79
Q

Difference between Macromolecules and Trace Elements. INCLUDE EXAMPLES

A

Macrominerals: Required in 10s of Grams/ day

e.g. Ca, Mg, P,

Trace Elements: Required in grams/ day

e.g. Co, Zn, Se, Cu,

80
Q
A

VetMed Year 3 -Term 1 (15 decks)

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