Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Cardiology > Hypertension > Flashcards

Hypertension Flashcards

1
Q

What is hypertension?

A

BP > 140/90 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is essential hypertension?

A
  • Hypertension with no identifiable underlying cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is secondary hypertension?

A
  • Hypertension with an identifiable underlying cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Identify a vascular cause of secondary hypertension

A
  • Coarctation of the aorta

- Renal artery stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Identify a two renal causes of secondary hypertension

A
  • Chronic pyelonephritis
  • Diabetic nephropathy
  • Glomerulonephritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Identify three endocrine cause of secondary hypertension

A
  • Primary hyperaldosteronism
  • Phaeochromocytoma
  • Cushing’s Syndrome
  • Acromegaly
  • Hypothyroidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is stage 1 hypertension?

A
  • 140/90 to 159/99
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is stage 2 hypertension?

A
  • 159/99 to 179/119
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify three risk factors for hypertension?

A
  • Increasing age
  • Male gender
  • BAME
  • Smoking
  • Excess dietary salt
  • Excess alcohol
  • Obesity
  • Lack of exercise
  • Anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify three complications of hypertension

A
  • Heart failure
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Peripheral arterial disease
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Stroke
  • Vascular dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is hypertension diagnosed?

A
  • Clinic BP > 140/90

AND

  • ABPM or HBPM > 135/85
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Identify 3 investigations of target organ damage

A
  • Fundoscopy
  • ECG
  • Urinalysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What tool should be used to assess 10 year risk of developing cardiovascular disease?

A
  • QRISK
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Identify the criteria for urgent specialist assessment of end organ damage

A
  • Stage 3 hypertension in addition to
  • Retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema
  • New onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure or AKI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first line management of stage 1 hypertension?

A
  • Lifestyle advice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Identify three lifestyle changes

A
  • Healthy diet
  • Regular exercise
  • Low sodium diet
  • Smoking cessation
  • Reduced alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Identify three criteria for commencing antihypertensive drugs in stage 1 hypertensionn?

A
  • Target organ damage
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Renal disease
  • Diabetes
  • QRISK > 10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the first line treatment for stage 2 hypertension?

A
  • Antihypertensive drugs in addition to lifestyle changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the first line antihypertensive drug for a person under 55?

A
  • ACE inhibitor (ramipril)

- ARB (losartan) if ACE inhibitor is not tolerated

20
Q

What is the first line antihypertensive drug for a person over 55?

A
  • CCB (amlodipine)

OR

  • Thiazide like diuretic (indapamide) if CCB is not tolerated
21
Q

What is the first line antihypertensive drug for a person of African or Caribbean descent?

A
  • CCB (amlodipine)

OR

  • Thiazide like diuretic (indapamide) if CCB is not tolerated
22
Q

What is the first line antihypertensive drug for a person with diabetes?

A
  • ACE inhibitor (ramipril)

- ARB (losartan) if ACE inhibitor is not tolerated

23
Q

What is the second line treatment in hypertension?

A
  • ACE inhibitor + CCB

- ARB instead of ACEI if poorly tolerated or black African or Caribbean

24
Q

What is the third line treatment in hypertension?

A
  • ACE inhibitor + CCB + thiazide diuretic
25
What is the fourth line treatment for hypertension?
- If K+ < 4.5: Spironolactone | - If K+ > 4.5: Alpha blocker or beta blocker
26
What is the target blood pressure for people under 80?
- 140/90 on CBP | - 135/85 on AMBP/HMBP
27
What is the target blood pressure for people over 80?
- 150/90 on CBP | - 145/85 on AMBP/HMBP
28
When should a statin be offered?
- QRISK > 10%
29
Identify three causes of hypertension with hypokalaemia
- Primary hyperaldosteronism - Cushing's syndrome - Liddle's syndrome - 11B hydroxylase variant of congenital adrenal hyperplasia
30
What is malignant hypertension?
- Blood pressure greater than 180/120 with signs of retinal haemorrhage and new target organ damage
31
Identify three risk factors for malignant hypertension?
- Inadequately treated hypertension - Chronic kidney disease - Renal artery stenosis - Renal transplant - Pregnancy
32
Identify three clinical features of malignant hypertension
- Visual changes - Headache - Nausea - Chest pain - Shortness of breath - Haematuria - Oliguria - Nosebleeds
33
Identify three investigations in malignant hypertension
- U&E: Raised urea and creatinine - Urinalysis: Protein; RBCs - ECG: Ischaemic changes - CXR: Pulmonary oedema
34
Outline the management of malignant hypertension
- IV labetalol - Reduce BP slowly - No more than 25% within 24 hours - To prevent acute ischaemia
35
Identify three adverse effects of ACE inhibitors
- Dry cough - Hypotension - Hyperkalaemia - Renal failure
36
What is the dose and administration of ramipril?
- 1.25 - 2.5 mg once daily | - By mouth
37
Identify three adverse effects of dihydropyridines
- Oedema - Flushing - Headaches - Palpitations
38
What is the dose and administration of amlodipine?
- 5 mg once daily | - By mouth
39
Identify three adverse effects of thiazide diuretics
- Hyponatraemia - Hypokalaemia - Arrhythmia - Erectile dysfunction - Agranulocytosis - Worsening of gout
40
What is the dose and administration of indapamide?
- 2.5 mg once daily | - Orally
41
Identify two adverse effects of spironolactone
- Gynaecomastia | - Hyperkalaemia
42
What is the dose and administration of spironolactone?
- 25 mg once daily | - By mouth
43
Identify three adverse effects of alpha blockers
- Postural hypotension - Dizziness - Syncope
44
What is the dose and administration of doxazosin?
- 1 mg initially | - By mouth
45
Identify three adverse effects of beta blockers
- Fatigue - Cold extremities - Headache - Nausea - Nightmares - Impotence
46
Identify a contraindication of beta blockers
- Asthma
47
Identify the dose and administration of atenolol
- 25 - 50 mg once daily | - By mouth

Cardiology (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions