hw review Flashcards
1
Q
All left-to-right shunts can be complicated by the development of:
A
pulmonary hypertension (Eisenmenger syndrome)
2
Q
A potentially fatal complication of closed chest trauma is
A
traumatic rupture of the aorta
3
Q
All of the following are predisposing factors to the development of coronary artery disease except:
obesity
congenital defects
smoking
hypertension
A
congenital defects
4
Q
Death of myocardial cells caused by a lack of blood supply is known as a
A
myocardial infarction
5
Q
Deoxygenated venous blood returns to the heart via the
A
superior and inferior vena cava
6
Q
true/false: Radiography is of little value in the demonstration of infective endocarditis
A
true
7
Q
What is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease?
A
Tetralogy of Fallot
8
Q
The accumulation of fluid in the membrane surrounding the heart is termed
A
pericardial effusion
9
Q
What is an aortic dissection?
A
disruption of the intima allowing blood to flow between the layers of the wall
10
Q
When an artery is dilated, or bulging, on only one side of the arterial wall, it is termed a:
A
saccular aneurysm (around entire wall is a fusiform)
11
Q
The central nervous system is composed of the
A
brain and spinal cord
12
Q
true/false: The nasal bones are the most commonly fractured facial bones
A
true
13
Q
Viral inflammation of the brain is termed
A
encephalitis
14
Q
What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor?
A
glioma
15
Q
Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) formed?
A
in the choroid plexus
16
Q
Which of the following degenerative neurologic diseases causes widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerves that eventually leads to paralysis and death?
A
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig)
17
Q
Which of the following involves bilateral and horizontal fractures of the maxillae?
A
Le Fort fracture
18
Q
Which of the following is caused by arterial bleeding in the cranium?
A
epidural hematoma
19
Q
Which of the following is the most common type of glioma?
a. Glioblastoma multiforme
b. Astrocytoma
c. Ependymoma
d. Oligodendrocytoma
A
b. Astrocytoma
20
Q
What is the primary imaging modality used to examine head injuries (trauma)?
A
CT
21
Q
A decrease in the amount of oxygen-carrying hemoglobin in the blood is termed
A
anemia
22
Q
A neoplastic proliferation of white blood cells is termed
A
leukemia
23
Q
An inherited anomaly in blood coagulation that appears clinically only in males is termed
A
hemophilia
24
Q
Infectious mononucleosis may be caused by
A
the Epstein-Barr virus
25
true/false: platelets are essential to the blood clotting process
true
26
true/false: sickle cell anemia is a type of aplastic anemia
false
27
Where are white blood cells produced?
red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue
28
Which form of hemolytic anemia causes the most severe radiographic changes?
a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Spherocytosis
d. Thalassemia
d. Thalassemia
29
What defends the body against bacteria?
Neutrophils
30
What type of anemia is caused by a B12 deficiency?
megaloblastic anemia
31
Cushing’s syndrome is caused by
an excess of glucocorticoid hormones
32
true/false:
Diabetes insipidus is related to diabetes mellitus.
false
33
Diabetes insipidus results from _________________
low blood levels of ADH
34
Excess thyroid hormone production from the entire gland results in
Graves' disease
35
Hypopituitarism in children causes a type of
dwarfism
36
true/false: Steroid hormones are secreted by the adrenal glands
true
37
the posterior lobe of the pituitary produces
vasopressin and oxytocin
38
Where is the pituitary gland located?
The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
39
There are _____ parathyroid glands in the body.
four
40
What group of steroid hormones regulates salt and water balance?
mineralocorticoids
41
Which of the following is a major complication of diabetes mellitus?
a. Emaciation
b. Obesity
c. Polydipsia
d. Atherosclerosis
d. Atherosclerosis
42
A condition of an undescended testis is known as
cryptorchidism
43
A painful condition in which endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus is termed
endometriosis
44
true/false: breast cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in women
true
45
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can be demonstrated via
ultrasound or CT
46
true/false: prostate cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in men
false
47
What hormone is secreted by the testes?
testosterone
48
What is trophoblastic disease?
A spectrum of pregnancy-related disorders causing either benign or malignant neoplasms
49
which stage of syphilis produces radiographic evidence of this disease?
tertiary
50
What imaging modality is the most effective screening technique for skeletal metastasis of prostate carcinoma?
nuclear medicine
51
What male gland lies just beneath the bladder and surrounds the urethra?
prostate
52
A group of chronic inherited conditions in which fat replaces muscle is known as
muscular dystrophy
53
An excess of adipose (fatty) tissue resulting from a consistent excessive caloric intake as compared with calories required, or used, by daily activities refers to
obesity
54
true/false: Beriberi is caused by a thiamine deficiency
true
55
true/false: Down syndrome is the most common trisomy disorder
true
56
Gaucher’s disease is categorized as a
glycogen storage disease
57
Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency in
vitamin D
58
true/false: Rickets is caused by a vitamin D deficiency
true
59
severe protein-calorie malnutrition (kwashiorkor) causes
emaciation
60
Which of the following is an extremely malignant skin cancer?
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Melanoma
d. Gaucher’s disease
Melanoma
61
What vitamin is essential in the blood-clotting mechanism?
vitamin K
62
heart rate is controlled by the _____________
autonomic nervous system
63
what is the most common congenital cardiac lesion?
left to right shunt
64
left to right shunts permit mixing of blood in the _______________________-
systemic and pulmonary circulations
65
Most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease
tetralogy of fallot
66
Four “tetra” abnormalities in the Tetralogy of Fallot
1. High ventricular septal defect
2. Pulmonary stenosis
3. Overriding of the aortic orifice above the ventricular defect
4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
67
Narrowing or constriction of the aorta
coarctation
68
classic sign of coarctation of the aorta; this is the most frequent cause of ___________ in children
normal BP in the arms but very low BP in the legs, hypertension
69
Narrowing of the lumen of one or more of the coronary arteries, what is the most common cause of this?
coronary artery disease, atherosclerosis
70
Inability of the heart to propel blood at a rate and volume sufficient to provide adequate supply to the tissues
congestive heart failure
71
causes of congestive heart failure
intrinsic cardiac abnormalities, hypertension, any obstructive process that increaseses the resistance of blood flow
72
radiographic appearance of CHF
cardiac enlargement, enlarged superior pulmonary veins, edema, pleural effusions
73
pulmonary edema: abnormal accumulation of fluid in the ___________________
extravascular pulmonary tissues
74
pulmonary edema is most commonly caused by elevation of ______________________
the pulmonary venous pressure (left sided heart failure)
75
involves only one side of the arterial wall = _______________
bulging of the entire circumference of the vessel wall = ______________________
saccular aneurysm, fusiform aneurysm
76
aortic dissection is potentially life threatening condition in which disruption of the ___________________ permits blood to enter the wall of the ______________________
intima (inner layer), aorta and separate its layers
77
_____________ is almost always a complication of rheumatic disease
mitral stenosis
78
Mitral stenosis results from thickening of the valve by _________________________
fibrous tissue, calcific deposits, or both
79
Obstruction to left ventricular outflow in aortic stenosis increases the workload of the left ventricle
aortic stenosis
80
infective endocarditis refers to the development of ____________________________
nodules or vegetations on heart valves caused by deposits of bacteria or fungi
81
infective endocarditis vegetations are filled with ____________
bacteria
82
pericardial effusion is the accumulation of fluid within the ______________________________
pericardial space surrounding the heart
83
pericardial effusion results from
Bacteria
Viruses
Neoplastic involvement
Idiopathic pericardial effusion
84
Precipitating factors of deep vein thrombosis
Trauma
Bacterial infection
Prolonged bed rest
Oral contraceptives
85
DVT may be the earliest symptom of unsuspected malignancy of the _________________________
pancreas, lung or GI system
86
deep venous thromboses are a major source of potentially fatal _________________
pulmonary embolism
87
Dilated, elongated and tortuous vessels that most commonly involve superficial veins of the leg
varicose veins
88
Central Nervous System (CNS) contains the _____________
Brain
Spinal cord
89
the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) contains the _________________
12 pairs of cranial nerves
31 pairs of spinal nerves
Autonomic nerves
Ganglia
90
there are ___ pairs of cranial nerves; there are _____ pairs of spinal nerves
12 pairs of cranial nerves
31 pairs of spinal nerves
91
PNS composed of two types of neurons. what are they?
Afferent
Efferent
92
_______________ neurons conduct impulses from peripheral receptors to the CNS
_____________ neurons conduct impulses away from the CNS to the peripheral effectors
Afferent (sensory), Efferent (motor)
93
_________ nervous system supplies striated skeletal muscles
somatic
94
____________ nervous system supplies smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular epithelial tissue
Autonomic
95
meningitis is the ____________
Acute inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid
96
how is meningitis best visualized radiographically?
via MRI or CT
97
meningitis is caused by _______________
bacteria viruses
98
____________________ is the most common form
Bacterial meningitis (pyogenic)
99
encephalitis is the ___________________
Viral inflammation of the brain and meninges
100
how is encephalitis best visualized radiographically?
MRI and CT
101
how are brain abscesses best visualized radiographically?
MRI or CT
102
how is a subdural empyema best visualized radiographically?
MRI
103
Brain abscesses are usually the result of chronic infections of the __________________________________
middle ear, paranasal sinuses, or mastoid air cells, or of systemic infections
104
Suppurative process in the space between the inner surface of the dura and the outer surface of the arachnoid
subdural empyema
105
The most common cause of subdural empyema is the spread of infection from the ______________
frontal or ethmoid sinuses
106
The most common cause of epidural empyema is the spread of infection from the ______________
ear or sinus infection
107
epidural empyema is the ____________ in a cranial bone
osteomyelitis
108
osteomyelitis of the skull radiographic changes develop ___________ after clinical onset
1-2 weeks
109
Most common primary malignant brain tumor
glioma
110
most common form of glioma
astrocytoma
111
most aggressive form of glioma
glioblastoma
112
____ is most sensitive for detecting most brain tumors
MRI
113
Benign neurological tumor, arises from arachnoid lining cells
meningioma
114
Slow growing, benign neurological tumor
acoustic neuroma
115
most common type pituitary adenoma
non-secreting chromophobe adenoma
116
Most common primary cancers to spread to the brain are ___________
lung and breast
117
how does a linear skull fracture appear?
sharp lucent line that is often irregular or jagged and occasionally branches
118
how does a diastatic skull fracture appear?
linear fracture that intersects a suture and courses along it causing sutural separation
119
how does a depressed skull fracture appear?
often stellate (star shaped) with multiple fracture lines radiating outward from a central point
120
epidural hematoma appears as ____________________ lesion
biconvex, peripheral, high density
121
subdural hematoma appears as ____________________ of increased density
crescent shaped, peripheral zone
122
cerebral contusion appears as ________________________
low density areas of edema and tissue necrosis
123
intracerebral hematoma appears as _________________________ region surrounded by low density edema
well-circumscribed, homogeneous, high density
124
___________ most common facial fracture
Nasal bone fractures
125
transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are focal neurologic deficits, resolve within ___________
24 hours
126
Most common demyelinating disorder
multiple sclerosis (MS)
127
peak incidence of MS is between _______ years and is seen best on ____
20-40 years, MRI
128
with hydrocephalus, __ will show ventricular dilation while
____ is more specific to demonstrate cause
CT, MRI
129
two types of hydrocephalus
Non-communicating (obstructive)
Communicating
130
