ch. 4: skeletal Flashcards
1
Q
posterior defect of the spinal canal resulting from failure of the posterior elements to fuse properly
A
spina bifida
2
Q
a rare hereditary bone dysplasia in which failure of the resorptive mechanism of calcified cartilage interferes with normal replacement by mature bone, which prevents blood marrow from forming
A
osteopetrosis
3
Q
“marble bones” refers to _____________
“brittle bones” refers to ______________
A
marble = osteopetrosis, brittle = osteogenesis imperfecta
4
Q
inherited generalized disorder of connective tissue characterized by multiple fractures and an unequal blue color of the normally white sclerae of the eye
A
osteogenesis imperfecta
5
Q
most common form of dwarfism which results from diminished proliferation of cartilage in the growth plate (decreased endochondral bone formation)
A
achondroplasia
6
Q
malformation of acetabulum and laxity of ligaments
A
congenital hip dysplasia
7
Q
imaging appearance of spina bifida
A
splitting of bony neural canal, CT/MRI for soft tissue posterior mass with or without spinal cord and nerve roots
8
Q
imaging appearance of osteopetrosis
A
generalized increased bone density
9
Q
imaging appearance of osteogenesis imperfecta
A
pathologic fracture, very thin cortical density
10
Q
imaging appearance of achondroplasia
A
progressive interpedicular distance from S to I, widened metaphysis
11
Q
imaging appearance of hip dysplasia
A
(in children/infants)
AP and frog leg projections of pelvis to demonstrate superior and posterior dislocation
12
Q
chronic systemic disease where the body’s immune system attacks the lining of the joints, damaging the cartilage and bone.
A
rheumatoid arthritis
13
Q
variants of rheumatoid arthritis
A
ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis
14
Q
loss of bone matrix, increases the risk of fractures
A
osteoporosis
15
Q
osteoporosis is the primary cause of _______________________ fractures
A
non-traumatic compression
16
Q
bone softening, decreased bone mineralization after bone growth has ended
A
osteomalacia
17
Q
disease that occurs in children which results from a Vitamin D deficiency
A
Rickets
18
Q
disease that results from excess uric acid and typically affects first MTP joint
A
gout
19
Q
is osteochondroma benign or malignant?
A
benign
20
Q
is enchondroma benign or malignant?
A
benign
21
Q
is osteoclastoma benign or malignant?
A
benign
22
Q
is osteoma benign or malignant?
A
benign
22
Q
is osteoid osteoma benign or malignant?
A
benign
22
Q
is a simple bone cyst benign or malignant?
A
benign
23
is aneurysmal bone cyst benign or malignant?
benign
24
is bone island benign or malignant?
benign
25
is osteogenic sarcoma benign or malignant?
malignant
26
is chondrosarcoma benign or malignant?
malignant
27
is Ewing's sarcoma benign or malignant?
malignant
28
is multiple myeloma benign or malignant?
malignant
29
serious infection of the bone and marrow, does not cause bone changes
osteomyelitis
30
with osteomyelitis, _____% decrease in bone matrix must occur before it is radiographically evident
30-50%
31
inflammation of one or more bursae
bursitis
32
most common benign bone tumor, frequently around knee joint, "exostoses"
osteochondroma
33
benign neoplasm with abnormal production of compact bone, occurs in cranium or facial bones
osteoma
34
benign neoplasm with small growth of compact bone within cancellous bone, "enostosis"
bone island
35
Primary skeletal cancers most common in (older/younger) patients
younger
36
Bone metastasis is (more/less) common than primary bone malignancy in all ages
more
37
malignant neoplasm diagnosed between 10-30 years of age, highly aggressive
osteosarcoma
38
malignant neoplasm of cartilaginous origin, most common in adults age 35-60 years, slow growing
chondrosarcoma
39
malignant neoplasm that occurs between 10 - 20 years of age, highly aggressive
Ewing's sarcoma
40
malignant neoplasm that appears as numerous lesions, "swiss cheese" appearance
multiple myeloma
41
__________ returns fracture fragments to anatomical positions
reduction
42
_________ denotes fragments have healed in a manner that interferes with function and/or aesthetics
Malunion
43
___________ indicates fracture has not healed in the expected time frame
delayed union
44
___________ means the fracture fragments are not united and healing process has stopped
nonunion
45
transverse fracture through distal radius with dorsal angulation (image)
Colles' fracture
46
transverse fracture of the neck of 5th metacarpal with palmar angulation
Boxer's fracture
47
ulnar shaft fracture with anterior dislocation of radius at elbow
Monteggia fracture
48
radial shaft fracture with dorsal dislocation of ulna at wrist
Galeazzi fracture
49
fracture of both malleoli with ankle dislocation
Pott's
50
fracture of both malleoli
Bimalleolar fracture
51
fracture of both malleoli and posterior lip of tibia
Trimalleolar fracture
52
transverse fracture of 5th metatarsal base
Jones fracture
53
comminuted fracture of C1, odontoid Fracture
Jefferson fracture
54
fracture of C2 arch with subluxation of C2-C3
Hangman's fracture
55
avulsion fracture of a spinous process in lower C-spine or upper T-spine (image)
Clay Shoveler's fracture
56
transverse fracture of lumbar vertebral body
Seat belt fracture
57
forward displacement of one vertebra on another
spondylolisthesis
58
cleft in the pars interarticularis without displacement
spondylolysis
59
term for small bony bone spurs
osteophytes
60
extremely common generalized disorder characterized by loss of joint cartilage and reactive new bone formation
osteoarthritis (degenerative joint disease)
61
in contrast to the smooth even narrowing of ________, the joint narrowing in __________________ is irregular and more pronounced
rheumatoid arthritis, degenerative joint disease
62
in degenerative joint disease, in the fingers, the disease involves primarily the ______________ joints
distal interphalangeal
63
in infants/children, osteomyelitis typically occurs in _________ as opposed to in ___________ in adults
long bones, vertebrae
64
where does Pott disease (TB of the spine) occur?
midthoracic and thoracolumbar regions
65
imaging appearance of rheumatoid arthritis
periarticular soft tissue swelling, symmetric joint destruction and deformity (true in all variants)
66
imaging appearance of osteoarthritis
irregular narrowing of joint space with small bony spurs (osteophytes)
67
imaging appearance of infectious arthritis
early joint narrowing with focal erosions
68
imaging appearance of bursitis
calcific tendinitis in 50%
69
imaging appearance of rotator cuff tear
(with US imaging) tear in bursa and inflamed synovium
70
imaging appearance of meniscal tear of knee
(In MR imaging) tears have high signal intensity (normal, black)
71
imaging appearance of bacterial osteomyelitis
soft tissue swelling with periosteal inflammation
72
imaging appearance of tuberculous osteomyelitis
lytic lesion without periosteal elevation, collapsed vertebra with kyphosis
73
what is another name for degenerative joint disease?
osteoarthritis
74
term for bone removal vs bone formation
osteoclast = removal; osteoblast = laying down of bone
75
technique changes for osteoporosis
use lowest possible kVp
76
osteoporosis occurs when ___________; osteomalacia occurs when __________________
bone resorption exceeds bone formation, bone insufficiently mineralizes
77
in (osteoporosis/osteomalacia), the cortical outlines of bones appear indistinct
osteomalacia
78
acute gout initially attacks a single joint, typically the ______
first MTP
79
imaging appearance of osteoporosis
cortical thinning appears as relatively dense and prominent thin line
80
imaging appearance of osteomalacia
loss of bone density, cortex becomes thin and often indistinct
81
imaging appearance of Rickets
cupped and frayed metaphysis in long bones
82
imaging appearance of gout
joint inflammation (effusion) and destruction, urate crystals (tophi) in joint space
83
imaging appearance of Page disase
radiolucencies in destructive (lytic) phase, cotton wool appearance in reparative phase
84
disorder characterized by the proliferation of fibrous tissue within the medullary cavity
fibrous dysplasia
85
imaging appearance of lead poisoning
classic lead lines (dense transverse bands extending across the metaphysis of long bones)
86
imaging appearance of fibrous dysplasia
well defined radiolucent area, homogeneous ground glass density or soap bubble appearance
87
imaging appearance of ischemic necrosis
crescent sign, lytic/sclerotic areas with flattening of femoral head
88
benign tumors generally __________ soft tissue while malignant bone tumors produce ____________________
displace, true soft tissue swelling
89
benign bone tumor in which the long axis of the tumor characteristically runs parallel to the parent bone and points away from the nearest joint
osteochondroma
90
benign bone tumor in which cortical thinning and endosteal scalloping occurs, calcifications within the lesion appear stippled, speckled, ring-like, or arc like
enchondroma
91
benign bone tumor which appears as multiple large bubbles separated by strips of bone, typically appearing at the distal femur
giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma)
92
benign bone tumor that is well-circumscribed, extremely dense, round lesions <2 cm in diameter, typically found in the skull
osteoma
93
benign bone tumor with round or oval lesion with lucent center (nidus) sometimes surrounded by dense sclerotic zone (<1 cm)
osteoid osteoma
94
imaging appearance of simple bone cyst
expansile lucent lesion with a thin rim of sclerosis
95
imaging appearance of aneurysmal bone cyst
pronounced ballooning with thinned cortex (internal separations)
96
imaging appearance of bone island
sharply defined, dense compact lesion
97
most common location of osteogenic sarcoma, imaging appearance
knee; mixed destructive/sclerotic lesion with ST mass, SUNBURST pattern, codman triangle
98
most common location of chondrosarcoma, imaging appearance
metaphysis of long or flat bone, punctate or amorphous calcification in cartilaginous matrix
99
most common location of Ewing Sarcoma, imaging appearance
bone marrow of long bones, medullary destruction with "onionskin" periosteal reaction
100
most common location multiple myeloma, imaging appearance
intramedullary canal of the diaphysis, multiple punched out lesions
101
most common location bone mestastases, imaging appearance
entire skeleton, irregular poorly defined lucent lesions or poorly defined increased densities depending on site of origin
102
in a Colles fracture, the distal end of the radius/ulna is positioned __________; in a Smith fracture, the distal radius/ulna is positioned ___________
posterior, anterior
103
where are fractures in the navicular most common?
in the waist (central portion)
104
the combination of a fracture of the shaft often radius and a dorsal (posterior) dislocation of the ulna at the wrist
Galeazzi fracture
105
fracture of the shaft of the ulna associated with anterior dislocation of the radius at the elbow
Monteggia fracture
106
most shoulder dislocations are (anterior/posterior)
anterior
107
what is a Jones fracture?
transverse fracture at the base of the 5th MT
108
what is a Jefferson fracture?
comminuted fracture of the ring of the atlas, involves both anterior and posterior arches
109
what is a Hangman's fracture?
fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the inferior facet and is usually associated with anterior subluxation of C2 on C3
110
what is a clay shoveler's fracture?
avulsion fracture of a spinous process in the lower cervical or upper thoracic spine
111
what is a seat belt fracture?
transverse fracture of a lumber vertebrae
112
what is subluxation?
incomplete or partial dislocation
113
a cleft in the pars interarticularis without displacement
spondylolysis
114
a cleft in the pars interarticularis with displacement; what direction?
spondylolisthesis, forward displacement
115
a cleft in the pars interarticularis without displacement is ____________;
with displacement is ____________
spondylolysis, spondylolisthesis
116
what is a Pott's fracture?
fracture of both malleoli with ankle dislocation
117
what is a bilmalleolar fracture?
fracture of both malleoli
118
what is a trimalleolar fracture?
fracture of both malleoli and posterior lip of tibia
