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Human Resources Mgmt Flashcards

1
Q

The ______ ______ outlines what the organization and its environment will be like at some specific future time, frequently set at 3-5 years from the present.

A. Strategic Plan
B. Tactical Plan

A

strategic plan (aka house plan)

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 17

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2
Q

_____ is the single largest expense incurred by any healthcare organization and one of the most critical elements in the organization’s success.

A

Labor

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 17

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3
Q

This type of workforce analysis focuses on current supply of workers: demographic, competencies and trends:

A. Supply Analysis
B. Demand Analysis
C. Gap Analysis
D. Solutions Analysis

A

A. Supply Analysis

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 18

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4
Q

This workforce analysis tends to be grounded on the present:

A. Supply Analysis
B. Demand Analysis
C. Gap Analysis
D. Solutions Analysis

A

A. Supply Analysis

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 22

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5
Q

This workforce analysis tends to focus on the future:

A. Supply Analysis
B. Demand Analysis
C. Gap Analysis
D. Solutions Analysis

A

B. Demand Analysis

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 22

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6
Q

One of the most commonly used tools for measuring workforce requirements is:

A. Supply Analysis
B. Bench-marking Data
C. Analytic Data
D. Solutions Data

A

B. Bench-marking Data

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 22

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7
Q

A more recent method of measuring workforce requirements uses:

A. CPT
B. UOS
C. RVU
D. RVS

A

C. RVU

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 22

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8
Q

This type of analysis compares present and future workforce demand, and will include both quantitative and qualitative analysis:

A. Supply Analysis
B. Demand Analysis
C. Gap Analysis
D. Solutions Analysis

A

C. Gap Analysis

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 26

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9
Q

This workforce plan provides feasible solutions to the identified inconsistencies between projected workforce supply and demand.

A. Supply Analysis
B. Demand Analysis
C. Gap Analysis
D. Solutions Analysis

A

D. Solutions Analysis

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 27

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10
Q

_____ are work-related functions recognized as specific tasks that, when performed daily, are integral part of the job.

A. Job Duty
B. Knowledge
C. Skill
D. Abilities
E. Requirements
A

A. Job Duty

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 34

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11
Q

_____ demonstrates that the individual knows the subject matter. Describes something that the incumbent applied to the specific job.

A. Job Duty
B. Knowledge
C. Skill
D. Abilities
E. Requirements
A

B. Knowledge

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 34

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12
Q

A CT tech must understand the basic principles of cross-sectional anatomy and must be familiar with the operation of a CT scanner, is an example of:

A. Job Duty
B. Knowledge
C. Skill
D. Abilities
E. Requirements
A

B. Knowledge

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 34

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13
Q

_____ is measured through an observable competency. It is the ability for an individual to be able to do something either through natural talents or obtained though education and training.

A. Job Duty
B. Knowledge
C. Skill
D. Abilities
E. Requirements
A

C. Skill

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 34-35

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14
Q

A CT technologist must be able to operate a CT scanner and understand specific procedure protocol.

A. Job Duty
B. Knowledge
C. Skill
D. Abilities
E. Requirements
A

C. Skill

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 35

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15
Q

A focused term related to a particular proficiency proven within a projected outcome and is results driven. It is measured through general assessments or competencies.

A. Job Duty
B. Knowledge
C. Skill
D. Abilities
E. Requirements
A

D. Abilities

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 35

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16
Q

A structured pay plan, correspond with position titles and designate a minimum and maximum pay scale based on credentials, experience and/or expertise.

A. Job Duty
B. Knowledge
C. Salary Grades
D. Abilities
E. Requirements
A

C. Salary Grades

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 40

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17
Q

A job description, if used as a performance evaluation tool, should contain:

A. quantitative measurement
B. qualitative measurement
C. secondary measurement
D. standards and performance

A

A. quantitative measurement

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 41

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18
Q

______ serve to provide feedback and assessment using the same format as the performance evaluation tool, which can included specific behavioral objectives.

A. Merit reviews
B. quantitative measurement
C. training
D. Guidelines

A

A. Merit reviews

Page 42

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19
Q

A _____ _____ is a concise statement that describes in general terms how recruitment will be carried out to achieve the desired workforce outcome.

A

Recruitment strategy

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 69

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20
Q

_____ is a term used for components of communication that include body movements or gestures that can be used with spoken words or in lieu of them.

A

Body Language

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 81

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21
Q

This interview technique consists of a loose set of questions, which may vary from interview to interview. The factors evaluated are implicit and vary across candidates.

A. Unstructured or Informal Interview
B. Structures Interview
C. Performance Based Interview
D. Case Based Interview
E. Behavioral Interview
A

A. Unstructured or Informal Interview

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 81

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22
Q

This interview consists of a specific series of questions and is designed to obtain meaningful info. Factors evaluates are explicit, based on analysis, and are the same for each candidate.

A. Unstructured or Informal Interview
B. Structures Interview
C. Performance Based Interview
D. Case Based Interview
E. Behavioral Interview
A

B. Structures Interview

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 81

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23
Q

This interview method yields greatest risk for grievances and is most susceptible to complaints.

A. Unstructured or Informal Interview
B. Structures Interview
C. Performance Based Interview
D. Case Based Interview
E. Behavioral Interview
A

A. Unstructured or Informal Interview

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 81

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24
Q

This interview style engages the candidate to act in the capacity of the open position (eg candidate applying for MRI scan actually performs a supervised MRI).

A. Unstructured or Informal Interview
B. Structures Interview
C. Performance Based Interview
D. Case Based Interview
E. Behavioral Interview
A

C. Performance Based Interview

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 82

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25
Q

This interview engages the applicant to explain and/or describe how he or she would respond in a hypothetical situation, rather than actually performing an activity.

A. Unstructured or Informal Interview
B. Structures Interview
C. Performance Based Interview
D. Case Based Interview
E. Behavioral Interview
A

D. Case Based Interview

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 82

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26
Q

This interview style focuses on competencies drawn from the job description and asks the candidate to describe, in detail, how he or she carried out a project or responded in a situation.

A. Unstructured or Informal Interview
B. Structures Interview
C. Performance Based Interview
D. Case Based Interview
E. Behavioral Interview
A

E. Behavioral Interview

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 82

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27
Q

Avoid asking the following during an interview:

A 
A. Candidates marital status
B. Number of children
C. Race
D. Nationality
E. Religion
F. Age
G. Next of kin
H. Home or automobile ownership

Human Resources Management in Radiology;

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28
Q

No matter the type of interview technique used, questions should primarily be ______ to encourage applicants to talk and give more complete responses.

A. short
B. tactful
C. open ended
D. brief and concise

A

C. open-ended

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 86

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29
Q

In designing a _____, the HR staff and the imaging administrator need to be aware of the emotional and psychological factors that color perception about pay.

A. job description
B. wage grade
C. compensation plan
D. counseling letter

A

C. compensation plan

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 95

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30
Q

Aspects of a compensation plan include:

A 
A. Wage/salary
B. Benefits
C. Insurance
D. Retirement plans
E. Time off
F. Safe & pleasant working environment
G. Respectful relationships
H. Employee recognition

Page 97

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31
Q

A _____ _____ program is put into place that offers employees the opportunity to increase base pay each year based on individual performance, helping maintain perceptions of individual pay equity.

A

merit pay

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 99

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32
Q

A _____ _____ is used most commonly when an organization or department is being dissolved and keeping people to a certain date is important.

A

retention bonus

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 97

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33
Q

Two laws that governing Wages and Salary:

A
  1. The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  2. 2004 FairPay Regulation

Human Resources Management in Radiology;

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34
Q

Compensation is determined for a specific job title by these three methods:

A

A. Slotting (classification)
B. Ranking
C. Point factor (point evaluation)

Human Resources Management in Radiology;

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35
Q

Comparing and classifying a new job against other similar jobs is an example of:

A. Slotting
B. Ranking
C. Assigning Point Factors
D. Point Evaluation

A

A. Slotting

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 101

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36
Q

Assigning points to a specific job where the point equals the relative worth of the job to the facility is an example of:

A. Slotting
B. Ranking
C. Categorizing
D. Point Evaluation

A

D. Point Evaluation

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 101

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37
Q

A _____ is a pay range that provides a maximum and minimum amount to be paid for each job description.

A

Pay Range (spread)

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 104

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38
Q

Spreads at the lower end of the pay scale tend to be _____% above and below midpoint.

A. 5-10
B. 10-20
C. 15-35
D. 20-40

A

B. 10-20

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 105

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39
Q

Spreads at the higher end of the pay scale tend to be _____% above and below midpoint.

A. 5-10
B. 10-20
C. 15-35
D. 20-40

A

D. 20-40

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 105

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40
Q

Benefits account for about ____% of a facility’s payroll costs and are an important factor in achieving external equity and maintaining competitiveness.

A

30%

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 105

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41
Q

Benefits involving the employer, employee and government including social security, Medicare, and Worker Compensation are:

A. Mandatory benefits
B. Voluntary benefits

A

A. Mandatory benefits

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 106

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42
Q

Insurances, time, retirement and quality of life are considered:

A. Mandatory benefits
B. Voluntary benefits

A

B. Voluntary benefits

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 106

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43
Q

Traditional fee-for-service plans offer the _____ flexability to those covered by carry the _____ highest premiums. Employees can choose any physician they want and seek care in any hospital.

A. greatest, lowest
B. greatest, highest
C. lowest, highest
D. lowest, lowest

A

B. greatest, highest

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 108

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44
Q

These plans require that covered employees use a physician and other provider who are either employed by or contracted with this type of insurance group where the employee pays a small co-payment for office visits and certain other services, but the ___ pays the remaining amount.

A. HMO
B. PPO
C. Traditional
D. Fee for service

A

A. HMO

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 108

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45
Q

A ____ plan incorporates the positive features of both HMO and traditional plans. Employees must still use a physician and other providers within the plan’s network to have the lowest co-payment and the least paperwork. Employees can seek out-of-network care.

A. HMO
B. PPO
C. Traditional
D. Fee for service

A

B. PPO

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 108

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46
Q

Dental insurance is available in traditional, PPO and HMO plans. Generally, although the primary characteristics are like those of the medical plans, dental plans have annual _____ on the amount of services covered and involve co-payments and/or deductibles.

A. finances
B. capitation
C. discounts
D. none of the above

A

B. Capitation

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 109

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47
Q

Disability insurance is available as short-term or long-term coverage. Short-term coverage plans pay a rate of about ___ of the employee’s gross weekly pay for up to 26-weeks.

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 50%
D. 60%

A

D. 60%

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 110

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48
Q

Long term disability insurance usually picks up where the short term coverage ends, with a waiting period between ______ days.

A. 10-30
B. 30-180
C. 50-200
D. 70-250

A

B. 30-180

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 110

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49
Q

About up to ___ of payroll by some estimate is spent on PTO.

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 40%

A

B. 10%

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 110

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50
Q

The Family and Medical Leave ACT (FMLA) of 1993 specifies that employers with at least ___ employees working within a 75-mile radius must allow eligible employees to take up to 12-weeks of unpaid leave a year, either as consecutive or in smaller intervals.

A. 50
B. 15
C. 5
D. 20

A

A. 50

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 112

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51
Q

The Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights act of 1994 ensures that service members who are on active duty for up to ____ years are guaranteed reemployment at the level that would have achieved had they not left for military service.

A. 12
B. 15
C. 5
D. 20

A

C. 5-years

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 112

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52
Q

A _____ is usually employer funded and pays the retired employee a predetermined, specific sum based on number of years of service and final salary.

A. PTO plan
B. defined benefit pension plan
C. defined benefit contribution plan
D. 401K plan

A

B. defined benefit pension plan

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 113

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53
Q

A _____ allow employee to contribute up to a specified limit in pretax dollars automatically deducted from their pay. The employer may match contribution, again to a limit.

A. PTO plan
B. defined benefit pension plan
C. defined benefit contribution plan
D. 401K plan

A

D. 401K plan

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 114

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54
Q

These programs can include tuition reimbursement , conference attendance, dues for memberships in relevant professional organizations, office subscriptions to professional publications and in office “lunch and learn” workshops and guest speakers.

A. Professional development
B. Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
C. Wellness program
D. Discounts

A

A. professional development

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 114

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55
Q

Family stresses, drub abuse, mental health problems and death of a loved one are just a few of the non-work related issues are examples of covered services under the:

A. Professional development program
B. Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
C. Wellness program
D. Discounts program

A

B. Employee Assistance Program (EAP)

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 114

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56
Q

The employee violated a policy or exhibited a behavior such that termination was justified, is an example of:

A. Reduction in force
B. Just cause
C. Layoff
D. PTO

A

B. Just cause

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 117

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57
Q

Downsizing or layoff, is an example of:

A. Reduction in force
B. Just cause
C. Reorganization
D. Poor job performance

A

A. Reduction in Force

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 117

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58
Q

Involuntary termination meeting with the effected employee should occur:

A. At the beginning of the week
B. At the end of the week
C. Immediately when fault is found
D. Only with Human Resources

A

A. At the beginning of the week

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 124

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59
Q

In many states, a terminated employee or employee undergoing termination has the right to request for any/all written documentation?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 125

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60
Q

The Exit Interview should be done:

A. Never
B. According to HR policies and guidelines
C. Several days before or after the final day
D. Only if the termination is voluntary

A

C. Several days before or after the final day

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 129

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61
Q

One of the most important principles to convey during a new employee orientation and any stage of training is the organization’s commitment to:

A. merit salaries
B. benefits
C. continuous learning & improvement
D. improving technology

A

C. continuous learning & improvement

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 135

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62
Q

Regulatory or accreditation agencies may request to provide evidence of training, or when an employee’s performance is reviewed and if and when they were trained/oriented to a particular procedure or policy.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 143

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63
Q

All of the following are identified principles adults require to learn except for:

A. Readiness
B. Effect
C. Watch
D. Exercise

A

C. Watch

Readiness; adults learn best when they are ready to learn
Effect; adults learn best when the effect is positive
Exercise; adults learn best engage by simulations, practice, repetition, other multiple chances to try out new skill

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 144

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64
Q

Match the learning retention:

  1. Read ____%
  2. Hear ____%
  3. See ____%
  4. See & hear ____%
  5. Say & do ____%
A
  1. Read __10__%
  2. Hear __20__%
  3. See __30__%
  4. See & hear __50__%
  5. Say & do __90__%

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 151

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65
Q

The purpose of the career development program is to link:

A. PTO to SICK time
B. Benefits to work hours
C. Business objectives to employee goals
D. Employee goals to merit increase

A

C. Business objectives to employee goals

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 162

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66
Q

Career development programs include and/or benefit from all of the following except:

A. exit interviews
B. performance appraisals
C. tuition reimbursement
D. benefits

A

D. Benefits

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 162

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67
Q

This program is designed to reduce turnover, increase retention, improve staff satisfaction & morale, and provide a path to career growth and job enrichment and, as a byproduct, increase one’s salary.

A. Merit program
B. Career development program
C. Clinical ladders
D. Succession planning

A

C. Clinical ladders

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 164

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68
Q

One of the 3 major mistakes organizations make with professional development is:

A. Promoting from within
B. wasting time on a career development program
C. offering merit increases when not deserved
D. considering educational needs for a position

A

A. promoting from within

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 165

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69
Q

A valuable tool used to provide training and assessments to match an employee’s career goals with the organization’s needs and ongoing coaching, feedback and mentoring.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Coaching
C. Roundings
D. Competencies

A

A. Performance appraisal

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 171

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70
Q

Knowing what is expected in job performance has a significant impact on employee satisfaction, which in turn leads to better ____:

A. Performance appraisal
B. job performance
C. employee retention
D. peer-to-peer recognition

A

C. employee retention

Human Resources Management in Radiology; Page 172

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71
Q

The Occupational Safety and Health Act was created in:

a. 1960
b. 1970
c. 1980
d. 1990

A

b. 1970

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72
Q

Federal anti-discriminatory practices in the workplace are enforced by the:

a. EEOC
b. DOE
c. FBI
d. GAO

A

a. EEOC

There are a number of key federal laws that prohibit employment discrimination
enforced by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC). The
EEOC provides coordination and oversight of all federal equal employment opportunity
laws and policies.

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73
Q

Title VII prohibits employment discrimination based on:

a. Race
b. Religion
c. Sex
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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74
Q

Pay differentials are not permitted when based on:

a. Gender
b. Seniority
c. Merit
d. Quantity of production

A

a. Gender

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75
Q

Employees are responsible for reporting harassment:

a. Upon supervisory approval
b. After 90 days of employment
c. At an early stage
d. At the end of employment

A

c. At an early stage

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76
Q

Only supervisors can commit a “quid pro quo” type of harassment.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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77
Q 
Sexual harassment can occur in a variety of circumstances. The harasser can
be:
a. An agent of the employer
b. Victim’s supervisor
c. Coworker
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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78
Q

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 generally applies to:

a. State and local governments only
b. Businesses with 15 or more employees
c. Private employees only
d. Businesses with more than 500 employees

A

b. Businesses with 15 or more employees

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79
Q

The best tool to eliminate sexual harassment in the workplace is:

a. Segregate staff
b. Legal department
c. Prevention
d. Enhance benefits

A

c. Prevention

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80
Q

The IRCA employer sanction provisions do NOT include the following
requirements:
a. Employee to attest authorization to work in US
b. A 12 month education period
c. Employer to attest to documentation before hiring
d. Employer to keep records

A

b. A 12 month education period

Immigration Reform and
Control Act (IRCA) of 1986. IRCA makes it unlawful for an employer to hire any person who is not legally
authorized to work in the United States, and it requires employers to verify the
HRManagement in Radiology 14 The Impact of Employment Law
employment eligibility of all new employees

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81
Q

Under the Equal Pay Act of 1963, skill is measured by the following factor:

a. Age
b. Status
c. Gender
d. Experience

A

d. Experience

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82
Q 
Undue hardship is NOT defined as requiring significant difficulty or expense
when considering such factors as:
a. Scope of benefits
b. Employer’s size
c. Financial resources
d. Nature of operations
A

a. Scope of benefits

Undue hardship is defined as
an action requiring significant difficulty or expense when considering such factors
as an employer’s size, financial resources, and nature of its operation.

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83
Q 
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 protects individuals who
are:
a. 40 years of age and older
b. Under 40 years of age
c. Over 64 years of age
d. None of the above
A

a. 40 years of age and older

This act’s age protections
apply to both employees and job applicants

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84
Q 
Title VII makes it unlawful to discriminate based on national origin. This does
not include:
a. Birthplace
b. Ancestry
c. Body habitus
d. Culture
A

c. Body habitus

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85
Q

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act applies to both employees and job
applicants.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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86
Q

Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act covers:

a. Illegal use of drugs
b. Eye glasses and hearing aids
c. Alcohol abuse
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

Employers may not ask job applicants about the existence, nature, or
severity of a disability. Applicants may be asked about their ability to perform specific
job functions.A

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87
Q

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act applies to:

a. Federal, state, and local governments
b. Any employer with 2 or more employees
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act applies to private employers with 20
or more employees, including state and local governments. It also applies to employment
agencies and most labor unions

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88
Q

The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) obligates employers to:

a. Provide family and medical leave to employees
b. Assist employees with family demands
c. Promotes economic security of families
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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89
Q

The term “quid pro quo” means:

a. Free will
b. Exchange
c. Hostile environment
d. Intimidation

A

b. Exchange

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90
Q 
The Immigration Reform and Control Act (IRCA) established an amnesty
program for illegal aliens of:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
A

a. 1 year

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91
Q

The single largest expense incurred by any healthcare organization is:

a. Medical supplies billable
b. Medical supplies non-billable
c. Labor
d. Capital equipment

A

c. Labor

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92
Q

A workforce plan should include:
a. Projected workforce level categorized by department or major activity,
skill level, and employee group
b. Projected workforce changes through retirement, recruitment, etc
c. Cost projections, including wages, benefits, indirect costs
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

the workforce plan is a road map of how many people and the type of people it takes to work in the department so that it properly functions under different
scenarios

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93
Q

No matter who creates a workforce plan, four categories of data need to be
analyzed:
a. Supply, demand, gap, and solutions
b. Locations, demand, supply, and gap
c. Solutions, demand, supply, and retention
d. Vacancy factor, solutions, supply, and demand

A

a. Supply, demand, gap, and solutions

  1. Supply:Who are the current staff?
  2. Demand:What staff will be needed to carry out the strategic plan?
  3. Gap: How does the projected supply fail to meet the projected demand?
  4. Solutions: How will the facility resolve the gap issues?
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94
Q

When performing a supply analysis, the essential data to be used is:

a. Wage increases, economics, and census
b. Demographics, competencies, and trends
c. Staffing patterns, supply, and vacancy rate
d. All of the above

A

b. Demographics, competencies, and trends

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95
Q

The primary function of the workforce plan is to:
a. Accurately identify budget data for the upcoming fiscal year
b. Serve as a budgeting tool
c. Accurately identify the required number of personnel needed to
function at any given time
d. Prepare a recruiting strategy

A 
c. Accurately identify the required number of personnel needed to
function at any given time
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96
Q

Skills, knowledge, abilities, and personal attributes could be considered:

a. Trendsetting data
b. Demographics
c. Benchmarks
d. Competencies

A

d. Competencies

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97
Q

Examples of workforce competencies are:

a. Licensing and certification
b. Skills and knowledge
c. Special abilities
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

Competencies encompass skills, knowledge, abilities, and personal attributes that,
taken together, are critical to successful work accomplishment. An organization’s
core competencies are those that are most critical to its success; they help define
who the organization is and what it does well. Licensing and certification standards for some professionals (eg, imaging technologists)
offer a starting point to identify competencies.

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98
Q

To calculate the number of FTEs, divide the total worked hours by:

a. 2040
b. 365
c. 2080
d. 280

A

c. 2080

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99
Q

A measure commonly used for physician productivity is the:

a. AMA
b. RVU
c. FTE
d. IRB

A

b. RVU

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100
Q

Once carefully written and approved, the workforce should:

a. Be reviewed and revised at least annually or when necessary
b. Not need analysis for at least 3-5 years
c. Be transferable to other departments
d. Not need review unless additional modalities are added

A

a. Be reviewed and revised at least annually or when necessary

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101
Q

Factors which could effect a workforce plan are:

a. Competitive and service changes
b. Changes in government regulations
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

changes in competitive factors changes in a major service
changes in government regulations
acquisition or merger, rapid growth
changes in senior management.

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102
Q 
Vacancy rates, retention rates, and recruitment duration are components of
the:
a. Trend analysis
b. Competency analysis
c. Demographic analysis
d. Demand analysis
A

a. Trend analysis

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103
Q

Employees that most often work 20 hours or less are considered:

a. Part time employees
b. Independent contractors
c. Full time employees
d. Temporary employees

A

a. Part time employees

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104
Q

Not only is an employer responsible for salary and wages of a full time
employee, they may also be responsible for:
a. Payroll taxes
b. Social security
c. Workers’ compensation
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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105
Q 
Vacation, sick leave, insurance, and holidays provided by an employer are
examples of:
a. Benchmarks
b. Benefits
c. Subsidies
d. Negotiated supplements
A

b. Benefits

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106
Q

Age, sex, race, pay grade, job class, and length of service are examples of:

a. Trends
b. Demand
c. Demographics
d. Competencies

A

c. Demographics

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107
Q

A workforce plan is a key component of an organization’s:

a. Tactical plan
b. Strategic plan
c. Community outreach plan
d. Capital plan

A

b. Strategic plan

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108
Q 
A relatively accurate picture of current staff and a basis for eventual gap
analysis can be obtained from:
a. Workforce demographics
b. Workforce competencies
c. Trends
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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109
Q

Employee questionnaires, focus groups, and individual interviews are:

a. Only performed by the human resources department
b. Methods to acquire fraudulent material
c. Methods of collecting data from employees
d. Both A and B

A

c. Methods of collecting data from employees

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110
Q 
Spanning past, present, and future, this data reveals information regarding
workforce turnover.
a. Competency assessment
b. Vacancy factor
c. Trend analysis
d. All of the above
A

c. Trend analysis

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111
Q

A person consistently working 20 hours per week would be considered a:

a. Full time employee
b. Part time employee
c. 0.75 FTE
d. 0.20 FTE

A

b. Part time employee

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112
Q

A secondary productivity measure that takes into account various factors
(effort, time, and risks) that influence productivity is the:
a. CMS
b. RVU
c. RVS
d. ACR

A

b. RVU

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113
Q

RVUs are assigned to every:

a. CPT
b. CDM
c. CMS value
d. RVS

A

a. CPT

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114
Q

When determining staffing levels and plans, minimum productivity
expectations per FTE is an example of a(n):
a. RVU calculation
b. Benchmark
c. Strategic plan
d. RVS calculation

A

a. RVU calculation

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115
Q

Within a timeframe of 4 hours, a part time employee (0.5 FTE) performs 5 exams
with an RVU rating of 8.0 each. What is their total RVU productivity?
a. 40 RVSs
b. 20 RVUs
c. 40 RVUs
d. 80 RVUs

A

x

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116
Q

Most institutions will display salary grades but will keep what confidential?

a. Actual salary ranges
b. Benefits
c. Paid time off policy
d. Job descriptions

A

a. Actual salary ranges

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117
Q

In regards to job descriptions, the term “knowledge” is defined as:
a. Work related functions recognized as specific tasks that are an integral
part of the job
b. Skills identified as essential in order to meet all criteria for the job
c. Information that correlates to the actual duty
d. The ability to do something either through natural talents or through
education and training

A

c. Information that correlates to the actual duty

knowledge is a term describing something that the incumbent knows, which, when directly
applied to the specific job, demonstrates that the individual knows the subject matter.

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118
Q

Physical requirements for medical imaging jobs are designated by:

a. ADA
b. CMS
c. HIPPA
d. All of the above

A

a. ADA

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119
Q

Job descriptions can be utilized as a resource to train new employees.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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120
Q

The first step in a successful recruiting strategy is:

a. Determining monetary compensation
b. Creating a well-defined job description
c. Selecting talent
d. All of the above

A

b. Creating a well-defined job description

A well-defined job description, created through a process of documentation, job analysis, gathering
detailed information about the job, and aligning responsibilities, is the first step in
a successful recruiting strategy

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121
Q

Descriptions for each job should be maintained and updated:
a. On a yearly basis
b. Whenever job content, performance requirements, or qualifications
change
c. Whenever the job becomes available to prospective employees
d. None of the above

A

b. Whenever job content, performance requirements, or qualifications
change

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122
Q

The best resources when conducting research during a job analysis are:

a. All stakeholders and team members
b. All stakeholders and customers
c. All team members and customers
d. All customers and previous employees

A

a. All stakeholders and team members

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123
Q

Responsibilities that are considered marginal functions of a job are considered:

a. Primary duties
b. Preferred
c. Abilities
d. Secondary duties

A

d. Secondary duties

duties are those identified as performed infrequently and, although important, they
are not a fundamental part of the job

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124
Q

As new equipment and new technologies are developed, what changes?

a. Salaries and locations
b. Laws and ethics
c. Job duties and expectations
d. Recruitment strategies and retention rates

A

c. Job duties and expectations

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125
Q

Once the recruitment process is complete, the job description will be of no
further use to current employees.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

126
Q

Merit reviews serve to provide feedback and assessment using the same format
as the ___________, which can include specific behavioral objectives.
a. Salary reviews
b. Performance evaluation tool
c. Job analysis
d. None of the above

A

b. Performance evaluation tool

Merit reviews serve to provide feedback and assessment
using the same format as the performance evaluation tool, which can include specific
behavioral objectives

127
Q

What can be set on the credentials, years of experience in a specialty, and/or
professional category of the prospective employee?
a. Job titles
b. Health benefits
c. Employee schedules
d. Compensation

A

d. Compensation

128
Q 
Work related functions recognized as specific tasks that are an integral part of
the job are defined as:
a. Job duties
b. Specific requirements
c. Skills
d. Physical requirements
A

a. Job duties

Job duties are work-related functions recognized as specific tasks that, when performed
daily, are an integral part of the job.The terms “job duties” and “responsibilities”
are interchangeable and, in most documents, divided into primary and secondary
responsibilities. It is the main reason why the job exists.

129
Q

What is vital to the coherence of job descriptions?

a. Compensation
b. Valid email address
c. Word choice
d. Font size

A

c. Word choice

130
Q

When establishing specific requirements, focus on the _______ skills,
education, training, and experience required to perform a job satisfactorily.
a. Maximum
b. Secondary
c. Mandatory
d. Minimum

A

d. Minimum

131
Q

Abilities are measured through:

a. Historical perspective of applicant’s experience
b. General assessments or competencies
c. References
d. None of the above

A

b. General assessments or competencies

serve to evaluate that the technologist can
produce a diagnostic and quality scan and prepare it for radiologist interpretation.
They must possess the ability to manage the patient through a well documented
process, perform safety assessments based on medical history, and select protocols
based on the procedure and patient history

132
Q 
A job analysis should be completed and conducted for each position on a
given:
a. Environment
b. Floor
c. Shift
d. Pay scale
A

a. Environment

An environment describes the characteristics or attributes of the job. In
an imaging setting, they are departments/areas/modalities

133
Q

It is crucial to do what to job analysis questions in order to engage staff in the
process and evaluate the different levels of performance?
a. Minimize
b. Personalize
c. Simplify
d. All of the above

A

b. Personalize

A job analysis is a process done to understand what components/qualifications are needed to perform a job. The analysis is used in writing a Job Description.

134
Q

A document used to provide direction regarding the level of experience,
educational requirements, and job role expectations for prospective
employees is a:
a. Job analysis
b. Job description
c. Recruitment strategy
d. Merit review

A

b. Job description

135
Q

Structured pay plans that include salaries in a given pay range are:

a. Tax brackets
b. Flexible savings accounts
c. Benchmarks
d. Salary grades

A

d. Salary grades

136
Q

A decline in imaging programs, both at the community college level and
(most acutely) hospital based programs, are mainly due to the lack of:
a. Interested students
b. Qualified instructors
c. Participating colleges and hospitals
d. Finances

A

b. Qualified instructors

mainly due to the lack of
qualified instructors as the Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic
Technology has mandated that program directors must have, as a minimum, a
master’s degree effective January 1, 2002

137
Q

The New York Times reported that healthcare is the “single strongest sector
in the United States economy today.”
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

138
Q

If an imaging administrator makes a mistake in hiring (usually realized
within the first 6 months), the cost of replacing that technologist can be as
high as _____ times the individual’s annual salary:
a. 2.0
b. 1.5
c. 2.5
d. 3.0

A

c. 2.5

139
Q

A traditional method of recruitment is:

a. Direct mail
b. Online
c. Open house
d. Job fair

A

a. Direct mail

140
Q 
The following recruitment method is recommended to quickly reach a
targeted audience:
a. Job fair
b. Newspaper
c. Word of mouth
d. Online
A

d. Online

141
Q 
The following method of recruitment has the potential to negatively impact
the staffing budget:
a. Open house
b. Campus recruitment
c. Staffing services
d. Job fairs
A

c. Staffing services

142
Q

Advertising online does not provide information on financial incentives and
benefits.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

143
Q

A blind ad is an advertisement that does not identify the institution and
requests that candidates send their resumes to a:
a. Human resource office
b. Post office box
c. Department administrator
d. Chief radiologist

A

b. Post office box

144
Q 
Job fairs require cooperation between the imaging manager,
department, and:
a. Staff technologists
b. Residents
c. Professional resource representatives
d. Recruiters
A

c. Professional resource representatives

145
Q

Which of the following does not fall under the strict definition of a job fair?

a. State society meetings
b. Local chamber of commerce sponsored event
c. National society meetings
d. Local schools

A

d. Local schools

146
Q

When a manager agrees to offer a staffing service an exclusive, he will:

a. Contact multiple staffing agencies
b. “Leverage” one agency against another
c. Let them interview the candidate
d. Work only with them

A

d. Work only with them

147
Q

If a locum’s salary is discovered by permanent staff, the manager can
handle the situation by:
a. Telling the staff, “That’s the cost of doing business”
b. Raising permanent staff salaries to match the locum’s
c. Reminding them of the positive aspects of their employment (eg,
stability, wider range of benefits, and a sense of “home”)
d. Threatening to replace them with locums if they persist in making
salary an issue

A

c. Reminding them of the positive aspects of their employment (eg,
stability, wider range of benefits, and a sense of “home”)

148
Q

An open house held in the department should be staffed by:

a. Radiologists
b. Volunteer employees and human resource personnel
c. Hospital administration
d. Technologists working mandatory overtime

A

b. Volunteer employees and human resource personnel

149
Q

The object of fostering a relationship with a school is to develop a pipeline
for employment of their graduates. This is best accomplished by:
a. Recruiting at the beginning of the second year
b. Concentrating efforts on those students nearing graduation
c. Starting early by building a relationship before students begin the
program
d. Offering employment to all graduating students

A

c. Starting early by building a relationship before students begin the
program

150
Q

One of the most effective ways to attract qualified technologists is:

a. Blind ads
b. Direct mail
c. Utilizing a staffing service
d. Employee referral

A

d. Employee referral

151
Q

When establishing employee financial incentives, it is best to:

a. Tie the reward to retention rates
b. Immediately reward the employee – effective within 30 days
c. Include the incentive in a year-end bonus
d. Spread out the payment over the following quarter

A

b. Immediately reward the employee – effective within 30 days

152
Q

The staffing alternative that most healthcare institutions will not favor is:

a. Job sharing
b. Compressed work schedule
c. Flex time
d. Peak time scheduling

A

a. Job sharing

153
Q

Staffing flexibility allows nontraditional employees to meet their:

a. Lifestyle needs
b. Career goals
c. Desire for a rigid work schedule
d. Financial goals

A

a. Lifestyle needs

154
Q

The timeline associated with the ongoing process of recruitment is:

a. Decreasing
b. Static
c. Increasing
d. Nonexistent

A

c. Increasing

155
Q

The employee that constitutes the foundation of all healthcare
organizations is:
a. Highly trained and motivated
b. Well paid with a limited scope of supervision
c. In need of constant supervision
d. Trained to perform one task only

A

a. Highly trained and motivated

156
Q

Pool size can be affected by all of the following, except:

a. Position specialization
b. Position specification
c. Position remuneration
d. Labor market

A

c. Position remuneration

157
Q

A concise statement that describes in general terms how recruitment will
be carried out to achieve the desired workforce outcome is the:
a. Job analysis
b. Compensation plan
c. Recruitment strategy
d. Escape plan

A

c. Recruitment strategy

158
Q

Exempt positions include _____, while nonexempt generally refers to
_____.
a. Hourly workers; management and salaried workers
b. Management and salaried workers; hourly workers
c. Administrative staff; clinical staff
d. Workers who qualify for health benefits; workers who do not qualify
for health benefits

A

b. Management and salaried workers; hourly workers

159
Q

An example of indirect costs associated with various recruitment tools is:

a. The manager’s time spent interviewing
b. Travel reimbursement
c. Posting jobs online
d. Utilizing a recruitment agency

A

a. The manager’s time spent interviewing

160
Q

The quality of a facility’s Web site has no bearing on potential employees’
opinions of the facility itself.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

161
Q

How many ways are there to present cost-per-hire data?

a. Myriad
b. Three
c. Two
d. None of the above

A

c. Two

  1. overall spending, usually
    subdivided by exempt and nonexempt hires
  2. each type of recruitment
    tool used
162
Q

The percentage of cost-per-hire by recruitment tool is also known as the:

a. Return on investment
b. End cost analysis
c. Source cost analysis
d. Break even analysis

A

c. Source cost analysis

indicator of effectiveness and,
therefore, of the tools most likely to find similar new employees in the future. dividing
the number of new employees recruited with a specific tool by the total number
of new employees for the period

163
Q

The starting point for most recruitment efforts is the:

a. Workforce plan
b. Job analysis
c. Job description
d. Advertising

A

a. Workforce plan

164
Q

Recruitment tools that are useful in reaching candidates for nonexempt
positions include all of the following, except:
a. Job fairs
b. Employment agencies
c. Government agencies
d. Newspaper ads

A

a. Job fairs

Tools that generally reach candidates for exempt positions include professional
journal advertising, direct mail, executive search firms, campus recruiting,
and job fairs

165
Q

The total days needed to hire over a specified time period divided by the
number of employees hired calculates the:
a. Cost-to-hire
b. Source cost
c. Break even point
d. Time-to-hire

A

d. Time-to-hire

166
Q

This interview style places the manager at greatest risk of grievances.

a. Unstructured/Informal
b. Structured
c. Case based
d. Behavioral

A

a. Unstructured/Informal

167
Q 
What might a manager need to rely on to make a choice between equally
qualified candidates?
a. A objective third party
b. Instinct
c. Fate
d. Survey results
A

b. Instinct

A manager may need to rely on instincts to
make a choice from equally qualified candidates.

168
Q

Interviewers for employment positions must be familiar with all of the
following, except:
a. Employment laws
b. How to interpret body language
c. How to score and evaluate applicants’ answers
d. The cultural background of each applicant

A

d. The cultural background of each applicant

169
Q

Candidates who do not receive a job offer should receive:

a. A follow up
b. Nothing
c. A letter of recommendation
d. A lesser position

A

a. A follow up

170
Q

This type of interview evaluates applicants on their previous work
experiences as opposed to their abilities to apply their knowledge and
experiences to the performance of the new job.
a. Unstructured/informal
b. Structured
c. Case based
d. Behavioral

A

d. Behavioral

Unstructured; loose set of questions, which
may vary from interview to interview
Structured; specific series of questions and is designed to
obtain meaningful information about a candidate’s ability to perform the job
Case based; ask hypothetical questions

171
Q

Those applicants who do not meet the minimum requirements outlined in
the job description may not necessarily be removed from the candidate
pool.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Throughout the resume review and interview process, human resource staff and/or
the imaging administrator should review the qualifications of potential candidates to
determine if they meet the minimum requirements as outlined in the job description
and remove those who do not meet these qualifications from the candidate pool.

172
Q

If one accepts that past performance is an accurate guide to future job
performance, what kind of interview provides the most useful information?
a. Structured
b. Case based
c. Behavioral
d. Performance based

A

c. Behavioral

173
Q

Regardless of interview technique, what should questions primarily be to
encourage applicants to talk and give more complete resources?
a. Open ended
b. Easy
c. Disclosed ahead of time
d. Optional

A

a. Open ended

174
Q

The talent selection process begins with:

a. Interviewing candidates
b. A review of the job description for the position
c. Negotiating salary
d. None of the above

A

b. A review of the job description for the position

175
Q 
During an interview, hiring managers may not ask applicants about any of
the following items, except:
a. Next of kin
b. Home ownership
c. Emergency contact
d. Native tongue
A

c. Emergency contact

176
Q

Compensation is the value placed on the job, not the:

a. Organization
b. Payroll department
c. Individual
d. Management

A

c. Individual

This concept of compensating the job,n ot the person,i s a fundamental element in
achieving pay equity

177
Q

Total compensation includes:

a. Salary and wages
b. Benefits
c. Bonuses
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

178
Q

A judgment made by the employee regarding the fairness of compensation is:

a. Perception
b. Philosophical
c. Equity
d. Inequity

A

c. Equity

179
Q 
A safe and pleasant working environment and respectful relationships in the
workplace are examples of:
a. Tangible compensation
b. Intangible compensation
c. Tangible benefits
d. Internal equity
A

b. Intangible compensation

Three forms of compensation:

  1. Salary
  2. Benefits
  3. Intangible benefits
180
Q 
To address sudden changes in the marketplace and healthcare trends, the
compensation plan must have inherent:
a. Counterbalances
b. Trigger points
c. Flexibility
d. Benchmarks
A

c. Flexibility

181
Q 
Most often issued annually, this will help the employee realize the true value of
their total compensation:
a. Performance evaluation
b. Compensation summary
c. Annual report
d. Earnings and losses statement
A

b. Compensation summary

One way to help employees recognize the true value of their compensation is to issue a
compensation summary at the end of each year.These statements list not only the employee’s
gross pay total, but also the itemized value of all benefits, including insurance premiums per
employee; the cost of sick leave, vacation, holidays, and other paid time off; and the employer
contribution to 401k or other retirement plans.

182
Q

Employees will feel they are being paid fairly when:
a. Salary ranges are set up equitably and merit raises given based on
performance are likely to maintain external equity
b. Salary ranges are set up equitably and merit raises given based on
performance are likely to maintain internal equity
c. The vacancy factor is reviewed annually
d. Job codes do not have specific pay ranges

A

b. Salary ranges are set up equitably and merit raises given based on
performance are likely to maintain internal equity

183
Q

A non-exempt employee is one that is:

a. Paid by the hour as determined by the LFSA
b. Protected by the LFSA
c. Paid by the hour
d. Both A and B

A

a. Paid by the hour as determined by the LFSA

184
Q

According to the Fair Pay Regulation of 2004, those employees earning at least
$455 per week and who meet criteria for job categories such as executive,
administrative, and professional could be categorized as:
a. Non-exempt
b. Management
c. Exempt from overtime
d. Upwardly mobile

A

c. Exempt from overtime

In general,exempt
employees have control over other employees,can exercise independent judgment
in substantial work-related matters,an d/or have advanced training or specialized
creative skills.

185
Q

Including the level of supervision, key tasks, responsibilities, education, and
special skills, these are the basis for all salary calculations.
a. Market surveys
b. Inequitable issues
c. Job codes
d. Job descriptions

A

d. Job descriptions

186
Q

According to this act, an employer with at least 50 employees working within a
75 mile radius must allow eligible employees to take up to 12 weeks of unpaid
leave a year:
a. FLSA
b. CMS
c. FMLA
d. EAP

A

c. FMLA

The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993
specifies that employers with at least 50 employees working within a 75 mile
radius must allow eligible employees to take up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave a
year,eit her as consecutive weeks or in smaller intervals.

187
Q 
Professional development, EAP, wellness programs, and discounts are
examples of:
a. Salary enhancements
b. Bonus programs
c. Supplemental endorsements
d. Quality of life benefits
A

d. Quality of life benefits

188
Q

Ranking, slotting, and the point evaluation are components of a:

a. Job evaluation
b. Job description
c. Job addendum
d. Job code

A

a. Job evaluation

The process of job evaluation helps ensure internal equity by establishing comparable
values for each job description to which compensation figures can eventually be
assigned. Although many job evaluation systems exist,3 of the most commonly
used are slotting (also known as classification),r anking,an d point factor (or point
evaluation).

189
Q 
A valuable tool in maintaining internal equity while being able to reward
performance and experience is the:
a. Spread
b. Performance evaluation
c. Pay range
d. Both A and C
A

a. Spread

Also known as spreads,pa y ranges provide the maximum and minimum amounts
to be paid for each job description

190
Q

Employment benefits in the United States fall within two broad categories:

a. Voluntary and discretionary
b. Discretionary and mandatory
c. Mandatory and voluntary
d. None of the above

A

c. Mandatory and voluntary

Mandatory benefits involve the employer,employee,an d government,which mandates
participation. Voluntary benefits encompass all other non-monetary benefits an employer can
choose to offer.

191
Q

Social Security, Medicare, and Worker’s Compensation are examples of:

a. Employee contribution benefits
b. Employee participation benefits
c. Mandatory benefits
d. Discretionary benefits

A

c. Mandatory benefits

192
Q

Insurance, vacation, paid time off, and retirement are examples of:

a. Discretionary benefits
b. Voluntary benefits
c. Tax-deferred benefits
d. Mandatory benefits

A

b. Voluntary benefits

193
Q

Although salary may be the primary motivator for employment, an effective
compensation plan will encompass more than financial considerations and will
support an employee’s less tangible motivators, which might include:
a. Career advancement
b. Skill development
c. Appreciation
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

194
Q

The following are components of a compensation plan that should be specified
by an employer:
a. Rewards for employee performance and knowledge
b. Internal equity maintenance
c. Competitiveness in the market
d. None of the above

A

x

195
Q

Bonuses and other one time payments (signing bonus, spot bonus, and lump
sum merit) to encourage retention are components of a:
a. Flexible scheduling system
b. Variable pay system
c. Bonus program
d. All of the above

A

b. Variable pay system

196
Q

To avoid a perception of favoritism and a negative impact on internal equity by
the receipt of bonuses and merits, what must be clearly spelled out?
a. Eligibility and performance goals
b. Eligibility
c. Ranking
d. Both B and C

A

a. Eligibility and performance goals

197
Q

Specifying the conditions under which they can earn overtime pay and the
minimum wage that nonexempt employees are eligible to receive are the:
a. FSLA and the 2004 Fair Pay Regulation
b. 1993 FMLA Regulation and the 2004 Fair Pay Regulation
c. FLSA and the 2004 Fair Pay Regulation
d. None of the above.

A

c. FLSA and the 2004 Fair Pay Regulation

The FLSA and the 2004 update specify the minimum
wage that nonexempt employees are eligible to receive and conditions under
which they can earn overtime pay

198
Q

When constructing a pay range, what components may be necessary?

a. Job descriptions and benchmarks
b. Internal job evaluation and external wage data
c. Market surveys
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

199
Q 
A well designed compensation plan will achieve these three levels of equity as
perceived by employees:
a. Internal, individual, and growth
b. Skills, experience, and education
c. Internal, individual, and external
d. None of the above
A

c. Internal, individual, and external

200
Q 
The following are characteristics of a compensation plan that should be
specified by an employer:
a. Benefits
b. Salary
c. Less tangible compensation
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

201
Q

An exit interview should be conducted:

a. For voluntary termination
b. For involuntary termination
c. Both A and B
d. Only if the employee requests it

A

c. Both A and B

Whether a voluntary or involuntary termination, conduct an exit interview.

202
Q

Conflict is seen by progressive organizations as:

a. A time to review processes and policies to create a better environment
b. An opportunity for managers to resolve problems
c. A way for employees to engage
d. A way to keep unions out

A

a. A time to review processes and policies to create a better environment

203
Q

Involuntary termination is initiated because of:

a. An employee violating a policy
b. Terminable behavior
c. A reduction in force (RIF)
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

204
Q

Conflicts can be reduced by:

a. Separating people who dislike each other
b. Communicating often and honestly
c. Sending dissatisfied patients to the patient advocate’s office
d. Keeping radiologists in their reading rooms

A

b. Communicating often and honestly

205
Q

The most difficult conflicts to resolve are:

a. Between techs and clerical staff
b. Between radiologists and transcriptionists
c. Those that involve personal differences
d. About lunch breaks

A

c. Those that involve personal differences

206
Q

The best strategy for resolving conflict is:

a. Avoidance
b. Forced resolution
c. Compromise
d. Productive collaboration

A

d. Productive collaboration

207
Q

Seeking accommodation to resolve a conflict maintains a friendly atmosphere
but does not address each person’s rights or full evaluation of the source of
the conflict.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

208
Q

There are 10 rules of termination. Three of them are:
a. Summarily discharge, interview, and have an attorney investigate
b. Get all sides of the story, let human resources investigate, and call the
employee at home to terminate
c. Thoroughly investigate, use progressive discipline, and take action
d. Dredge up all past infractions, human resources reviews
documentation, and the reason for discharge is discoverable

A

c. Thoroughly investigate, use progressive discipline, and take action

209
Q

If a terminated employee has a history of violence or is psychologically
impaired, human resources should handle the termination.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

If the employee has threatened a staff member, has a history of violence,
or is psychologically impaired, the facility’s attorney should handle the termination,
in conformance with state labor laws

210
Q

The best time of day for termination is:

a. Early in the week at the end of the day
b. Early in the week at the beginning of the day
c. Late in the week at the end of the day
d. Late in the week at the beginning of the day

A

a. Early in the week at the end of the day

An involuntary termination is initiated by the employer, for 1 of 3 reasons: just
cause (ie, the employee violated a policy or exhibited a behavior such that termination
was justified); a reduction in force (also called an RIF, downsizing, or a layoff ),
which may result from budgetary cuts, a reorganization, or a merger; or poor job
performance.

211
Q

The Older Workers Benefit Protection Act:

a. Prevents companies from setting a mandatory retirement age
b. Protects workers over age 40
c. Prohibits companies from laying off workers over age 40
d. Prevents workers over age 40 from a fitness for duty physical

A

b. Protects workers over age 40

212
Q

The public policy exception to the at-will doctrine:
a. Is terminating an employee for filing a worker’s compensation claim
b. Can come from a state’s constitution
c. Is illegal
d. Balances the employer’s rights, the employee’s rights, and society’s
interest in carrying out public policy

A

d. Balances the employer’s rights, the employee’s rights, and society’s
interest in carrying out public policy

213
Q

The most common source of implied contracts are:

a. About job security
b. Employee handbooks
c. Union materials
d. Comments overheard in a break room

A

b. Employee handbooks

The implied contract exception covers situations in which the employer makes an
oral or written representation to employees about job security or any procedures
that will be followed in the event of an adverse employment action (eg, layoffs).

214
Q

How many states recognize all 3 exceptions to the employment-at-will doctrine:

(a) the public policy exception,
(b) implied contract exception, and
(c) covenant of good faith and fair
dealing exception.

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

A

c. 6

Alaska, California, Idaho, Nevada,
Utah, and Wyoming

employees of most private businesses work under the doctrine
known as employment-at-will. Either the employee or the employer can terminate
the employment relationship for any reason and without notice, unless otherwise
bound by a written contract that specifically states the employee be terminated for
cause.

215
Q

The exit interview should be conducted by a(n):

a. Human resources representative
b. Attorney
c. Marketing representative
d. Nurse

A

a. Human resources representative

216
Q

If a state recognizes the covenant of good faith exception to the employment-at-
will doctrine:
a. All terminations must be conducted by an attorney
b. The employee must act in good faith at all times
c. Only a violation of a union agreement is grounds for termination
d. Any termination is required to have a just cause

A

d. Any termination is required to have a just cause

The covenant of good faith exception is recognized by only 11 states (Box 8.3). It
paints the broadest brushstroke in defining the employment relationship as a
covenant of good faith and fair dealing between every employee and employer. As a
result, in the states that recognize this exception, any termination must have just
cause.

217
Q

An exit interview should include:
a. The manager, the employee, and a third party
b. A set of standard questions, an in-person interview, and a third party
c. A professional interviewer, the employee, and a coworker
d. A manager from another department, a human resources
representative, and a speaker phone

A

b. A set of standard questions, an in-person interview, and a third party

218
Q

Investigations of a terminable offense:

a. Should be shared with employees
b. Should be conducted by a private investigator
c. Should be thorough, fair, and consistent
d. Should only be done by a human resources specialist

A

d. Should only be done by a human resources specialist

219
Q

While doing an investigation, the employee who allegedly violated the policy:

a. Can continue working
b. Can be dismissed on the spot
c. Can be placed on leave, paid, or unpaid
d. Can help with the investigation

A

c. Can be placed on leave, paid, or unpaid

220
Q

If a conflict has escalated to the point that the department is in turmoil, a
manager should:
a. Step down
b. Bring in a consultant as a “peacemaker”
c. Assemble all parties around the table so they can resolve the conflict
together
d. Have the chief operating officer come into the department and require
everyone to calm down

A

b. Bring in a consultant as a “peacemaker”

221
Q

Offering ongoing training and education to employees can:

a. Aid in recruitment
b. Improve retention
c. Show employees they are valued
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

222
Q

Employee orientation begins:

a. During the interview process
b. After the job offer is made
c. On the first day of the job
d. None of the above

A

a. During the interview process

223
Q

A “Prospective Employee Kit” might include:

a. The organizations value statement
b. Local area information
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

a. The organizations value statement

Name, address, and telephone numbers of the organization and a contact person
within the department
A brief history of the organization with the organizational values, mission, and
goals (Box 9.1)
Pay periods and vacation and time off policies
Medical and dental plans
Paid holidays
Specific job descriptions

224
Q

A new employee welcome letter may include:

a. Confirmation of start date and time
b. Dress code information
c. A contact name and number for any potential questions
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

225
Q

Orientation should never:

a. Be both formal and informal
b. Be given by someone unable to convey empathy
c. Include information from the policy and procedure manual
d. Include information about infection control

A

b. Be given by someone unable to convey empathy

226
Q

A good orientation:

a. Helps ease a new employee’s transition
b. Ignites apathy
c. Helps block organizational culture
d. All of the above

A

a. Helps ease a new employee’s transition

227
Q

A good way to start a department orientation is to take the new employee
on a tour of the department.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

228
Q

The safety portion of the orientation should:

a. Be documented
b. Include information about pregnancy declarations
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

229
Q

It is important to document all information covered in orientation because:

a. It may be useful in documenting employee performance
b. It ensures all important items are reviewed
c. Regulatory agencies may require evidence
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

230
Q

In a large department, the imaging administrator may not be involved in
new employee orientation.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

231
Q

Adults learn best:

a. When performing hands on
b. When they are ready to learn
c. None of the above
d. Both A and B

A

b. When they are ready to learn

232
Q

The first step in devising a workshop or training session is:

a. Selecting a teaching method
b. Preparing a lesson plan
c. Developing clear learning objectives
d. Designing an evaluation

A

c. Developing clear learning objectives

233
Q

An example of a teaching technique that uses the kinesthetic sense is:

a. Films and videotapes
b. Simulations
c. Diagrams
d. Lists of definitions

A

b. Simulations

234
Q

Learning objectives must be:

a. Descriptive
b. Measurable
c. Realistic
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

235
Q

Which of the following is not a level of evaluation that should occur?

a. Trainees’ feedback on the training session
b. Trainees’ ability to teach the class themselves
c. Trainees’ understanding of the key concepts
d. Quantifiable changes that have resulted

A

b. Trainees’ ability to teach the class themselves

236
Q

What should not affect the type of training selected?

a. Budget
b. The number to be trained
c. The gender of the trainer
d. Trainer capabilities

A

c. The gender of the trainer

237
Q

Self-directed learning:

a. Has a higher drop-out rate than trainer-led learning
b. Is helpful in teaching content that involves relationships
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

238
Q 
Which training technique is an ideal way to present multiple points of
view?
a. Demonstrations
b. Panel discussions
c. Audiovisual presentations
d. Lecture
A

b. Panel discussions

239
Q

Research has shown that learners retain what percent of what they read?

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 90%

A

a. 10%

10% of what they read, 
20% of what they hear, 
30% of what they see, 
50% of what they see and hear, and 
90% of what they say and do
240
Q

Formal guidelines specific to a tuition reimbursement program should
include:
a. The maximum level of reimbursement per employee
b. How approval must be obtained
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

241
Q

The most valuable asset to any organization is the:

a. Imaging services
b. Information technology
c. People
d. Administrative team

A

c. People

242
Q

Talent management is:
a. Giving an outlet to employees who are artistically gifted
b. A function of the administrative team
c. A tracking mechanism managed by the human resources department
to identify individuals who are likely to be promoted
d. Aligning the business needs of the organization with an individual’s
ability to make a significant difference in the performance of the
organization

A

d. Aligning the business needs of the organization with an individual’s
ability to make a significant difference in the performance of the
organization

In the imaging field, talent management requires the careful examination of the skill
sets of all staff members, with a view toward the needs of the organization with the
talents and aptitudes of staff to develop a more competitive service.

243
Q

All employees, including managers, should update their resumes:

a. When they are looking for a new position
b. Annually
c. When the company asks for a latest version
d. When submitting a proposal for speaking

A

b. Annually

244
Q

Employee engagement is defined as:
a. Employees who are emotionally and intellectually committed to an
organization
b. Employees on the Employee Activities Committee
c. Employees who are actively involved in their professional organizations
d. Employees who submit peer-reviewed journal articles

A

a. Employees who are emotionally and intellectually committed to an
organization

245
Q

The person who carries out career development is the:

a. CEO
b. COO
c. Department manager
d. Individual

A

d. Individual

246
Q

Elements of a career development program are:

a. Time management, tuition reimbursement, continuing education
b. Training, access to information, career paths
c. Performance appraisal, CEU reimbursement, coaching
d. Leading a project, developing spreadsheets, writing reports

A

b. Training, access to information, career paths

247
Q

Excellent technical skills equals excellent leadership skills.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

248
Q

Ongoing commitment of an organization to an individual is:

a. Leadership development
b. At-will employment
c. Management development
d. Cross training for multiple modalities

A

a. Leadership development

249
Q

The most important roles for imaging leaders include:
a. Time keeping, writing reports, doing performance appraisals
b. Attending meetings, counseling employees, coaching staff
c. Inspiring staff, developing skills, providing access to tools for growth
d. Advising administration of resource needs, meeting with radiologists,
resolving conflicts

A

c. Inspiring staff, developing skills, providing access to tools for growth

250
Q

The government expects __________ baby boomers to apply for Social
Security benefits per day over the next 20 years.
a. 100
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 10,000

A

d. 10,000

The Associated Press reported the first Baby Boomer applied
for Social Security on October 16, 2007, and expects approximately 10,000 people
per day to be applying for retirement over the next 20 years.4

251
Q

Performance and feedback must be:

a. Sporadic and infrequent
b. Speedy and quick
c. Continuous and frequent
d. Long and enduring

A

c. Continuous and frequent

It is important that the
employee knows that the formal performance appraisal is only a small part of the
overall performance management plan.

252
Q

Appraisals based on results are also known as:

a. Management by objectives
b. Management prerogatives
c. Management by performance
d. Management by the seat of the pants

A

a. Management by objectives

management by objectives,measure performance
not by specific behaviors but by results.

253
Q

One of the negative consequences of Del Pro’s list linking pay to performance
is:
a. Employees are more satisfied
b. Employees take on risky goals
c. Financial aspects are not focused on by the employee
d. Employees are less forthcoming in their feedback

A

d. Employees are less forthcoming in their feedback

254
Q

Every healthcare organization needs to invest in manager training to develop a:

a. Well rounded manager who completes performance reviews on time
b. Low recruitment and retention rate
c. Good “pay for performance” system
d. Good performance feedback and evaluation programs

A

d. Good performance feedback and evaluation programs

The reward is a well-functioning unit and
increased employee satisfaction and employee retention.

255
Q

Frequent feedback provides opportunities to discuss:

a. Gossip and rumors
b. What a great manager you are
c. Quality issues and varying performances
d. Crisis issues and micro-management

A

c. Quality issues and varying performances

By providing feedback, the manager is opening the dialogue for 2 way
communication between the manager and employee. These conversations can help
managers see how they may be constructing barriers to the employee’s development.
The best way to find solutions to problems is to work on them in collaboration.

256
Q

Two alternatives to additional appraisals are:

a. Written narratives and pay for performance
b. Meetings and empowerment sessions
c. Self appraisal and 360 degree feedback
d. Appraisal conversations and follow up

A

c. Self appraisal and 360 degree feedback

257
Q

All employees want to know their performance is:

a. Excellent
b. Horrible and needs improvement
c. Valued by the organization
d. Okay but could be better

A

c. Valued by the organization

258
Q

According to Karen McKirchy in her book Powerful Performance Appraisals,
an effective appraisal should:
a. Be a root canal solution to the annual wage increase
b. Promote communication between manager and employee
c. Be a means to an increase
d. Create an opportunity for promotion and reward

A

b. Promote communication between manager and employee

259
Q

From a legal perspective a manager should ask which questions in support of
the written appraisal?
a. Can I support each statement with anecdotal information? Can I
support each statement with facts?
b. Have I interviewed the employee? Have I written down their opinions
and thoughts?
c. Have I crossed all the Ts? Have I dotted all the Is?
d. Have I supported each statement with documentation? Does each
statement relate to the job performance?

A

d. Have I supported each statement with documentation? Does each
statement relate to the job performance?

260
Q

All components of the performance appraisal system should consist of:

a. Job related behaviors and expectations
b. Personal characteristics and job related behaviors
c. Personal characteristics and job related expectations
d. The employee’s interdepartmental reputation

A

a. Job related behaviors and expectations

All components of the performance appraisal system should focus on job-related behaviors
and expectations, not personal characteristics (see Box 11.1).This helps ensure that
all employees are assessed fairly, equitably, rationally, and without bias.

261
Q 
The adequate amount of time to conduct an appropriate performance
appraisal is:
a. About an hour
b. About 15 minutes
c. About 30 minutes
d. Five to 10 minutes
A

a. About an hour

262
Q

Some organizations have severed the link between tying pay so closely with
performance.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

Facilities that agree with this view focus the appraisal meeting on performance and
hold a second meeting to discuss promotions and pay increases

263
Q

Historically, performance appraisal results have been used to determine:

a. Bad behavior
b. Departmental needs
c. Pay increases
d. Individuals to train

A

c. Pay increases

Historically, performance appraisal results have been used to determine pay increases
and promotions. This is still the case in many organizations, and the review meeting
may include a discussion of any change in pay

264
Q

Del Pro suggests managers keep:

a. A black book detailing notes on performance
b. Performance logs on each employee under their supervision
c. Track of all employees and their movements during working hours
d. Avoiding performance appraisal deadlines

A

b. Performance logs on each employee under their supervision

265
Q

In an essay appraisal, the manager writes a narrative on the employee’s
performance and makes suggestions to improve it. This can be accomplished
by the manager alone or in collaboration with the employee. The primary
advantage of this method is its:
a. Rigidness
b. Free flowing nature
c. Idealism
d. Flexibility

A

d. Flexibility

The system works especially well when evaluating
more qualitative attributes such as patient communication skills or leadership.

266
Q

Flexibility can be a disadvantage of essay appraisal systems because:

a. The manager can have bad grammar skills
b. Difficulties arise when comparing and contrasting employees
c. Writer’s block occurs and ideas do not flow together well
d. Difficulties arise when employee performance is subjective

A

b. Difficulties arise when comparing and contrasting employees

267
Q

The most common form of performance appraisals are:

a. Rating scale appraisals
b. Essay appraisals
c. Pay for performance appraisals
d. Management by objective appraisals

A

a. Rating scale appraisals

Rating scales, or behavior checklists, are the most common form of appraisal.4,5 They
consist of a list of job-related behaviors and traits. Each trait is assessed on a scale
that varies from a simple 2 prong “satisfactory-unsatisfactory” to a 5 point scale:“outstanding,
exceeds standards,meets standards, does not meet standards, and unsatisfactory.”

268
Q

Employees who rate “outstanding” in a rating scale appraisal:

a. Have mastered all job related tasks and display exemplary behavior
b. Generally always win when the game is on the line
c. Punch in late and are habitual with tardiness
d. Are great employees to manage and require little maintenance

A

a. Have mastered all job related tasks and display exemplary behavior

269
Q

“Does not meet standards” employees generally:

a. Do a great job and should be commended on performance
b. Need help performing their jobs repeatedly
c. Are beyond help and should be terminated
d. Require management intervention and will never exceed expectations

A

b. Need help performing their jobs repeatedly

270
Q

Managers who invest the time to ensure that excellent performance is
recognized and poor performance is corrected will:
a. Get prolonged vacation time
b. Have staff that appreciate their time and efforts
c. Develop a culture based on understanding
d. Spend less time overall with staffing and performance issues

A

d. Spend less time overall with staffing and performance issues

271
Q

Being a positive role mode provides employees with behavior to:

a. Act inappropriately
b. Look at, study, and understand
c. Emulate
d. Make sense of

A

c. Emulate

272
Q

To increase the likelihood of mentoring success, early stages of the relationship
should include certain key elements. Both parties should clearly delineate and
agree upon:
a) Expectations, risks, boundaries, payment, and benefits
b) Benefits, risks, expectations, cost, travel, and boundaries
c) Boundaries, borders, room and board, and expectations
d) Expectations, boundaries, benefits and risks, and evaluation

A

d) Expectations, boundaries, benefits and risks, and evaluation

273
Q

Coaching is:

a. A technique that takes years to perfect
b. Applied to all employees
c. Yelling at the players when they make mistakes
d. A technique of continually developing all employees

A

d. A technique of continually developing all employees

274
Q

Steps for counseling rule violations or general misconduct usually include:
a. Oral warning, written warning, final written warning, suspension,
termination
b. Three strikes, oral warning, written warning, suspension, termination
c. Anecdotal warning, oral warning, written warning, suspension,
termination
d. Written warning, second chance warning, suspension, termination

A

a. Oral warning, written warning, final written warning, suspension,
termination

275
Q

In their book The Elements of Mentoring, Johnson and Ridley recommend that
mentors and mentees share:
a. Sense of humor, social skills, communication style, career goals, work
ethic, and need for achievement and drive
b. Sense of humor, social skills, anger management, career ladders, work
ethic, and drive
c. Ambition, good hygiene, sense of humor, good looks, social skills, and
communication style
d. Sense of humor, social skills, communication style, money, ambition,
work ethic, and career goals

A

a. Sense of humor, social skills, communication style, career goals, work
ethic, and need for achievement and drive

276
Q

The most important skill for coaches to have is:

a. Language skills
b. Foreign language skills
c. Listening skills
d. Oratory skills

A

c. Listening skills

277
Q

A good coach is willing to do what in the exploration?

a. Explore options and involve employees
b. Involve employees and be a good judge
c. Disregard bad employees and involve good employees
d. Take risks and involve employees

A

a. Explore options and involve employees

278
Q

All employees will respond to coaching in a positive manner.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

279
Q 
A survey of senior level administrators found a vast majority were motivated to
mentor by:
a. Bonus incentive
b. Salary increase
c. Ego
d. Personal satisfaction
A

d. Personal satisfaction

96% personal satisfaction
16% increased pay
18% anticipated bonuses

280
Q

When ending a mentoring relationship, the best way to this is with a(n):

a. Email
b. Phone call
c. Written letter
d. Formal conversation

A

d. Formal conversation

281
Q

Effective coaching is as much about ___________ as it is about ___________.

a. Money, prestige
b. Attitude, behavior
c. Attitude, money
d. Behavior, money

A

b. Attitude, behavior

282
Q

Short term mentoring relationships:

a. Last only a few hours
b. Are specific to an activity
c. Involve many details and tasks
d. Are bad and should only be long term

A

b. Are specific to an activity

283
Q

Long term mentoring relationships:

a. Last forever and rarely end
b. Involve many hours and impact the mentee’s future
c. Create bonds that last forever and cannot be broken
d. Are hard to end and should not ever be considered

A

b. Involve many hours and impact the mentee’s future

284
Q

When properly applied, coaching, counseling, and mentoring can have a
profound impact on an imaging administrator to:
a. Staff the facility and take it easy
b. Reduce problems and concerns
c. Staff the facility and carry out the organizational mission
d. Eliminate issues and create organizational goals

A

c. Staff the facility and carry out the organizational mission

285
Q

Mentors help mentees clarify their vision by:

a. Smacking them on the hand
b. Predicting the future of healthcare
c. Setting realistic goals and articulating the future
d. Setting up goals and driving obtainment

A

c. Setting realistic goals and articulating the future

286
Q

Formal mentoring programs tend to focus on ___________, while informal
pairings tend to favor ___________.
a. Organizational goals, mentee goals
b. Mentor goals, mentee goals
c. The mentor’s organization, the organization’s development
d. Mentor development, overall production plan

A

a. Organizational goals, mentee goals

287
Q

A coach who considers a wide range of options also takes full advantage of:

a. The employees who work in the organization
b. A workforce that develops a great culture
c. A diversified workforce
d. Being able to have several options in front of him

A

c. A diversified workforce

A coach-manager who considers a wide range of options also
takes full advantage of the diversified workforce and its wide range of experience
and viewpoints.

288
Q

Retaining a qualified and motivated workforce will be an ongoing challenge
and is going to be an even greater importance as:
a. The workforce is more motivated by money
b. Generation X becomes dissatisfied
c. Baby Boomers move away from management positions
d. Baby Boomers retire

A

d. Baby Boomers retire

289
Q

It is important to remember that mentoring relationships are always:

a. Difficult
b. Static
c. Evolving
d. Easy

A

c. Evolving

290
Q

Low performing staff members are a(n) ____________ to any business.

a. Complication
b. Burden
c. Good thing
d. Necessity

A

b. Burden

Low performing staff members are a burden to any business. If left unaddressed,
their attitudes and activities can cause high performing staff members to leave,
result in patient dissatisfaction, lower morale and motivation of fellow employees,
and consume too much of an imaging administrator’s time and attention.

291
Q

Factors affecting the need for additional imaging personnel include all of the
following except:
a. An increase in the number of imaging procedures performed annually
b. The length of stay and the acuity levels of patients are continuously
shrinking
c. The population is aging, including the healthcare workers
d. Healthcare workers have multiple employment opportunities outside of
traditional hospital and clinic environments

A

d. Healthcare workers have multiple employment opportunities outside of
traditional hospital and clinic environments

292
Q

Factors affecting the need for additional imaging personnel include all of the
following except:
a. An increase in the number of imaging procedures performed annually
b. The length of stay and the acuity levels of patients are continuously
shrinking
c. The population is aging, including the healthcare workers
d. Healthcare workers have multiple employment opportunities outside of
traditional hospital and clinic environments

A

x

293
Q

The average cost of turnover is estimated to be:

a. 75% of the employee’s annual salary
b. 100% of the employee’s annual salary
c. 150% of the employee’s annual salary
d. Dependent on the employee’s position within the organization

A

c. 150% of the employee’s annual salary

294
Q

The cost of employee turnover is based on:

a. Advertising, recruiting, and interviewing of candidates
b. Direct and indirect costs associated with the loss of the employee
c. Hiring, orientation, and training of new employees
d. Loss of volume due to decrease in workplace staff

A

a. Advertising, recruiting, and interviewing of candidates

295
Q

Recruitment incentives to attract new employees may include the following:

a. Sign on bonuses
b. Tuition reimbursement
c. Flexible schedules
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

296
Q

Common pitfalls and mistakes of recognition programs include all of the
following except:
a. Recognizing employees for behaviors that only support organizational
goals
b. Recognizing past events
c. Recognizing only certain individuals in the organization
d. Without exception, recognizing employees publicly so others can
emulate the behaviors that were rewarded

A

c. Recognizing only certain individuals in the organization

297
Q

Rewards should be financial since rewards with little to no cost are not
powerful motivators.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Recognize accomplishments. Rewards do not necessarily have to be financial.
Rewards with little to no cost are powerful motivators and could be appropriate
in certain situations.

298
Q

Successful implementation of a new rewards and recognition program
includes:
a. Training of managers and supervisors
b. A pilot of the program in one department to identify potential issues
c. On site evaluation by consultants and/or program developers
d. Approval of additional program funds by organizational executives

A

x

299
Q

The purpose of an employee assistance program (EAP) is to:
a. Address risky behaviors by employees so the manager can follow up
with disciplinary action and/or termination
b. Reduce the employer’s liability in dealing with workplace stress that an
employee may encounter
c. Motivate troubled employees to resolve their problems and provide
access to counseling or treatment
d. Eliminate workplace issues and save the organization money

A

c. Motivate troubled employees to resolve their problems and provide
access to counseling or treatment

300
Q

EAPs offer help with the resolution of problems that:
a. Are created by workplace issues that would affect performance
b. Are alcohol, drug, and mental health related since EAPs were modeled
after AA programs
c. Can be easily resolved with either telephone support or minimal face to
face counseling
d. Affect work performance but are created by any problem or issue

A

d. Affect work performance but are created by any problem or issue

301
Q

Information about an employee from the EAP is always confidential except:
a. If the treatment involves medications that could affect the performance
of the employee
b. If the counseling was mandated for disciplinary problems and the
supervisor must follow up to ensure the employee is attending
c. If the human resources department requires the information for the
employee’s records
d. The information is always confidential without exception

A

b. If the counseling was mandated for disciplinary problems and the
supervisor must follow up to ensure the employee is attending

2 exceptions to confidentiality: first, the human resource department
can request general information regarding the number of services and the types
of problems the program addressed, and second, human resource staff and/or supervisors
can request information if counseling was required due to discipline problems
to ensure the employee is attending mandated sessions and the progress made during
the sessions

302
Q

Employees can be satisfied with their jobs but still have low job morale.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

303
Q 
What is the single most important skill of a manager as it relates to employee
morale?
a. Delegation
b. Communication
c. Decisiveness
d. Equitable treatment of all staff
A

b. Communication

Communication is the single most important skill of a manager and is essential for
high morale. Leaders often confuse staff morale with job satisfaction. They are not
the same thing.

304
Q

Which statement about motivation is not true?
a. A manager must create an environment in which an employee can
motivate himself or herself to perform well
b. Intrinsic rewards such as a sense of accomplishment or a feeling of
responsibility are the most crucial type of motivators
c. Financial rewards are the most important factor in increasing employee
performance and retaining staff
d. Managers must understand what motivates each employee and reward
him or her appropriately

A

c. Financial rewards are the most important factor in increasing employee
performance and retaining staff

305
Q

Which of the following is a strategy that managers could implement to increase
motivation?
a. Provide stringent rules that everyone must follow, thus eliminating the
perception of preferential treatment
b. Managers should share only essential information to decrease
employee concern and stress during difficult situations
c. Recruit individuals that are similar and would be motivated by the same
factors
d. Delegate decision making authority to staff

A

d. Delegate decision making

Clearly define expectations and set goals.
Provide performance feedback.
HRManagement in Radiology 227 Communication to Improve Morale
Relax tight supervisory rules and delegate decision making authority.
Provide resources and support so that staff can perform job.
Be a respected role model.
Share information.
Be consistent and fair with all employees.
Provide training and education to promote professional growth.
Recruit motivated individuals.

306
Q 
What percentage of time is spent by managers giving and receiving
information?
a. 15%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 75%
A

b. 40%

It is estimated that managers spend 40% of their time giving and getting information.
6 This means that throughout the course of a day, a manager must be able to
effectively communicate lots of information to employees, and, for many, it has
become increasingly difficult.

307
Q

Younger employees are more likely to digest information that is delivered:
a. Frequently
b. Only once so as to not be repetitive and irritating
c. By using multiple methods such as bulletin boards, posters, newsletters,
and emails
d. Electronically

A

d. Electronically

Gone are the days when important information
could simply be posted on a bulletin board where staff members were sure
to see it. Younger, more technologically savvy employees such as Generation X and
Millenials are less likely to read and digest information if not done so electronically.
That is why it is essential for organizations to incorporate different communication
methods

308
Q 
Which motivational theory is based on the idea that unfulfilled needs are
motivators?
a. Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
b. The Equity Theory
c. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
d. Maslow’s Theory
A

d. Maslow’s Theory

The needs hierarchy
begins with the basic idea that unfulfilled needs are motivators and focuses on
people’s internal needs. Maslow determined that people experience 5 levels of
need9

309
Q

The concept behind the Goal-Setting theory is that motivation is determined
by which of the following:
a. The employer sets goals for the employee based on organizational
goals that are difficult and challenging
b. Employees set their own goals to increase their productivity
c. Employees work harder at goals set if they believe there is a good
chance at meaningful rewards
d. Eliminating goals that are too difficult to achieve will motivate
employees to work harder

A

b. Employees set their own goals to increase their productivity

The concept behind the Goal-Setting Theory is that motivation is determined by goals
that employees strive for.To increase performance, goals must be specific and challenging.
However, there are limitations to this theory.The goals set by the employee may not
align with the goals of the organization, thus affecting performance and motivation.

The Reinforcement Theory states that behavior is a function of its consequences

310
Q

What is the frequency in which employee surveys should be administered?

a. Annually
b. Bi-annually
c. Quarterly
d. Whenever there is a dramatic change in the organization

A

a. Annually

311
Q

What is the primary factor for imaging professionals to express low levels of
satisfaction as it relates to working conditions?
a. Many organizations funnel resources to nursing related programs
b. They tend to associate it with lack of materials or equipment
c. Call requirements in many facilities are stressful and lead to burnout
d. Ordering physicians over utilize the limited resources in imaging
departments

A

b. They tend to associate it with lack of materials or equipment

Healthcare facilities tend to create very stressful environments because of demands
of budget cuts, staffing issues, and diminishing supplies.

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