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Asset Mgmt Flashcards

1
Q

After personnel costs, the largest expense for hospitals are _____ _____, which can represent _____ of expenses for hospitals.

A

supply costs; 25-30%

Chapter 12, p 211

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2
Q

Product selection should focus on looking for and _____ _____ and vendors that provide the greatest user productivity and best patient outcomes at the lowest possible price.

A

standardizing products

Chapter 12, p 212

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3
Q

GPO

A

Group purchasing organizations; negotiate group purchase contracts on behalf of multiple hospitals and health systems.
Chapter 12, p 213, 226

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4
Q

_____ _____ is uncontrolled spending outside negotiated contracts.

A

Maverick purchasing

Chapter 12, p 214

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5
Q

This practice occurs when vendors provide off-contract supply items directly to physicians at patient care settings and invoice the hospital at list price.

A

Back door selling.

Chapter 12, p 215

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6
Q

Predetermined level

A

Par level

Chapter 12, p 216

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7
Q

MMIS

A

management information system

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8
Q

ERP

A

enterprise resource planning system

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9
Q

_____ _____, a type of agreement used to reduce costs for supplies specifically for high-ticket items, will only be paid for by the healthcare facility when they are used. The items are owned by the supplier but located at the facility.

A

Consignment agreement

Chapter 12, p 219

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10
Q

For most products in the US, expiration dates range from ____ to ____ months from the time of original manufacture.

A

12 to 60 months

Chapter 12, p 221

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11
Q

PM

A

Preventive maintenance and repair

Chapter 10, p 163

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12
Q

OEM

A

original equipment manufacture

Chapter 10, p 163

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13
Q

ASP

A

Authorized Service Provider

Chapter 10, p 163

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14
Q

Life cycle costing, aka _____, is a procurement evaluation technique which determines the total cost of acquisition, operation, maintenance and disposal of items being acquired.

A

terotechnology

Chapter 10, p 164

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15
Q

Service cleaning, checking, adjusting, or making repairs to a piece of machinery to ensure that it works properly.

A

Service contract

Chapter 10, p 164

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16
Q

4 characteristics of a contract

A
  1. Agreement
  2. Consideration
  3. Legality
  4. Capacity
    Chapter 10, p 165
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17
Q

BER

A

Beyond Economic Repair; repair cost would be equal to or greater than the replacement cost of the device
Chapter 10, p 165

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18
Q

BQR

A

Beyond Quality Repair; repair may be unreliable or unsafe for the end user
Chapter 10, p 165

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19
Q

ELF

A

Early Life Failure; a product found to be defective within a period defined by the manufacturer after purchase or initial installation.
Chapter 10

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20
Q

Up time Formula

A

Up time = (Base Time - Downtime) / Base Time

Base Time = Hours per day x hours per week x 52
Downtime = hours equipment is inoperable
Chapter 10

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21
Q

A program for the systematic monitoring and evaluation of the various aspects of a project, service, or facility to ensure that standards of quality are being met.

A

Quality Assurance

Chapter 11, p 183

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22
Q

An aggregate of activities (as design analysis and inspection for defects) designed to ensure adequate quality especially in manufactured products.

A

Quality Control

Chapter 11, p 183

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23
Q

Most imaging facilities aim for ____ (or less) downtime.

A

1-2%

Chapter 11, p 192

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24
Q

This modality is regulated by the NRC and individual state health departments.

A

Nuclear Medicine

Chapter 11, p 193

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25
Q

How often should the equipment matrix be updated?

a. Annually
b. Bi-annually
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 5 years

A

a. Annually

matrix lists the status of all of the facility’s imaging equipment and might include

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26
Q

After the expiration of an operational lease, who owns the asset?

a. Lessor
b. Lessee
c. Finance company
d. OEM

A

a. Lessor

The lessee pays the lessor a specific number of payments, at a specified
interest rate.Under an operational lease, on expiration of the lease, the asset belongs
to the lessor

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27
Q

Which of the following is not a benefit in the ASP versus purchase decision?

a. Usually includes updates and upgrades
b. Operational expense
c. Low to no upfront costs
d. Pay the same fee no matter the usage

A

d. Pay the same fee no matter the usag

An Application Service Provider (ASP) funds the asset, and the facility pays on a per-use basis. Two common examples in an imaging facility involve PACS and PET/CT scanners.

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28
Q

Private insurers traditionally follow CMS in regards to changes in

reimbursement. In which of the following cases has this not happened?
a. 3T MRI
b. Cardiac CTA
c. Digital mammography
d. 4D ultrasound

A

c. Digital mammography

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29
Q

The facility operating environment assessment includes:
a. Industry trends, technological advancement, competition,
reimbursement
b. Competition, reimbursement, political consideration, CON
c. Capital access, vendor input, new versus used, CON
d. Technological advancement, capital access, political consideration,
industry trends

A

d. Technological advancement, capital access, political consideration,
industry trends

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30
Q

With the exception of CCTA, a 4-detector CT scanner can meet all of the needs
of most facilities.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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31
Q

According to the Innovations Center and the Edge Report, CT, PET/CT, and
MRI volume are expected to increase how much, respectively, between 2006
and 2016?
a. 13-120%, 13-50%, and 15-60%
b. 15-60%, 13-50%, and 12-120%
c. 15-60%, 13-120%, and 13-50%
d. 13-120%, 13-50%, and 15-60%

A

c. 15-60%, 13-120%, and 13-50%

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32
Q

Which item is an important part of the competitive assessment?

a. Location of competition
b. Price of equipment
c. Current backlogs
d. Both A and C

A

d. Both A and C

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33
Q

Which of the following should not be included in the equipment matrix?

a. Type of equipment
b. Volume of procedures done in department
c. Year installed
d. Serial number

A

b. Volume of procedures done in department

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34
Q

Which modality lends itself to improvements through software updgrades?

a. Ultrasound
b. MRI
c. Digital mammography
d. CT

A

b. MRI

MRI technology lends itself to improving performance through software
and gradient coil upgrades rather than through replacement of the entire MRI
magnet gantry.

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35
Q

Causes of obsolescence include all of the following except:

a. Broken equipment
b. Age of equipment
c. Competitor equipment
d. End of life status

A

c. Competitor equipment

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36
Q

When producing an MRI proforma, the administrator should take all of the
following into consideration in regards to potential volume except:
a. Existing population base
b. Number of existing scanners
c. Modality utilization
d. Changes in MRI reimbursement

A

d. Changes in MRI reimbursement

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37
Q

When a capital purchase is made for political purposes, a proforma is not
necessary.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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38
Q

When prioritizing a list of potential expenditures for administration, the
imaging administrator should put them in order of:
a. Best return to worst return to the organization
b. Favorite preferences of chief radiologist
c. Least expensive to most expensive in total cost of ownership
d. Most expensive to least expensive in total cost of ownership

A

a. Best return to worst return to the organization

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39
Q

Which of the following states does not require a CON as of July 4, 2008?

a. California
b. Louisiana
c. Rhode Island
d. Connecticut

A

a. California

The certificate of need (CON) process aims to reduce duplication of certain high-dollar services and equipment—and to maximize the healthcare dollars spent in a community. California facilities must meet seismic standards to protect people during earthquakes

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40
Q

Incremental volume is:

a. Total volume expected
b. Total paying volume expected
c. Total new volume expected
d. Total existing volume

A

c. Total new volume expected

imaging administrator must determine the incremental volume of
procedures that will be generated, that is, how many additional procedures (and presumably how much additional income) will result from the new asset.

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41
Q

According to the Congressional budget office, which factor will have the
greatest impact on the utilization of imaging services?
a. Changes in referral patterns
b. Changes in technologies
c. Changes in health coverage
d. Changes in demographics

A

b. Changes in technologies

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42
Q

Depreciation is used by for profit companies to:

a. Pay for capital over time
b. Lower their tax burdens
c. Increase their tax burdens
d. Hide spending

A

b. Lower their tax burdens

Not-for-profits use depreciation to spread the impact over multiple
financial statements and to allow for more accurate comparison of statements
from year to year. For-profit facilities benefit from substantially reduced annual
taxes, as shown in Tables 1.2 and 1.3

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43
Q

In large organizations, the present value factor is set by which department?

a. Administration
b. Radiology
c. Accounting
d. Finance

A

d. Finance

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44
Q 
Using the depreciation method mentioned in this chapter, year 3 of an asset
will be depreciated at what level?
a. Same as year 1
b. Higher than year 1
c. Lower than year 1
d. None of the above
A

a. Same as year 1

imaging equipment has been depreciated over 5 years by the most commonly used method, straight-line depreciation. Thus, the income statement assigns 20% of the cost for each of the 5 years.

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45
Q 
All of the following are now considered competitors of the traditional hospital
based imaging departments except:
a. Self referring physicians
b. Radiologist run imaging centers
c. County health department
d. National imaging center chains
A

c. County health department

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46
Q

The two profitability ratios mentioned in this chapter are:

a. ROI and profit margin
b. ROI and NPV
c. NPV and profit margin
d. Profit margin and return on assets

A

b. ROI and NPV

ROI is the percentage return (after expenses) on the capital investment relative to the total capital expense. NPV takes into account the cost of financing and describes future revenue in terms of the present-day value of money

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47
Q

Which element(s), when included in the capital equipment purchasing plan,
will lessen the chance of failure?
a. Solid financial analysis
b. Consideration of the financing options
c. Competition
d. Both A and B

A

d. Both A and B

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48
Q

Medicare populations use imaging services in what relation to non-Medicare populations?

a. More
b. Less
c. The same
d. There is no relationship between them

A

a. More

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49
Q

The first step in a successful capital equipment purchase is to:

a. Secure the funding
b. Identify and assemble the stakeholders
c. Select the equipment
d. Write a request for proposal (RFP)

A

b. Identify and assemble the stakeholders

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50
Q 
One stakeholder often overlooked in the imaging equipment purchase
process is:
a. Radiologist
b. Financial manager
c. Physicist
d. Technologist
A

c. Physicist

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51
Q 
The success or failure of a capital equipment purchase is heavily dependent
on:
a. Referring physicians
b. Physicists
c. Financial managers
d. Technologists
A

a. Referring physicians

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52
Q

The person usually charged in identifying biases among stakeholders is:

a. Radiologist
b. Physicist
c. Imaging administrator
d. Chief financial officer

A

c. Imaging administrator

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53
Q

PET and linear accelerator purchases will require considerable involvement by:

a. Financial managers
b. Physicists
c. Materials managers
d. Community

A

b. Physicists

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54
Q

Technologist involvement can assist the team with decisions such as:

a. Ergonomics
b. Potential training needs
c. User-friendly design
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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55
Q

Which person/department plays a pivotal role in capital asset acquisition and
is usually the one to bring the stakeholders together?
a. Management
b. Physicist
c. Clinical engineering
d. Information systems

A

a. Management

management will be responsible for making the
final purchasing decision for the department or facility.

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56
Q

The radiologist selected for the needs assessment team should be:

a. The decision maker for the imaging group
b. Someone whose decision will be respected and supported
c. Someone who will be working with the modality under consideration
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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57
Q

A new or expanded RIS or PACS will rely heavily on ____________ and they
should therefore be involved from initial vendor contact through installation
to “go live.”
a. Management
b. Clinical engineering
c. Information systems
d. Technologists

A

c. Information systems

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58
Q

The group that is not usually involved in the selection of equipment but are end users are:

a. Owners
b. Community
c. Management
d. Information systems

A

b. Community

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59
Q

Planning for technology implementation entails:

a. Incorporating process improvement techniques
b. Knowing that technology is stagnant
c. Understanding public policy
d. Both A and C

A

d. Both A and C

Being aware that technology is not stagnant
Knowing the needs of various stakeholders
Understanding public policy and its impact
Incorporating process improvement techniques
Addressing staff and user education

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60
Q

What factor may influence a modality volume forecast?

a. Changes in clinical practice
b. Key competitors
c. Referring physician patterns
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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61
Q 
Which of the following will provide historical data on currently installed
equipment?
a. Vendor perception
b. Service records
c. Staff perception
d. The Internet
A

b. Service records

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62
Q

It is important to know the needs of various stakeholders and to whom benefits
of the technology accrue.
a. False
b. True

A

b. True

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63
Q

Which term refers to a device that has been overhauled to manufacturer’s
specifications with upgrades and improvements?
a. Rebuilt
b. Refinanced
c. Refurbished
d. Returned

A

a. Rebuilt

According to the FDA, a refurbished device may only have been repainted
or cleaned before reselling, while a rebuilt device has been completely overhauled to
return it to the manufacturer’s specifications along with any OEM upgrades or
improvements

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64
Q 
One popular resource that can provide reliable information is a GPO, which
stands for:
a. Global planning organization
b. Group planning option
c. Group purchasing organization
d. Guaranteed performance option
A

c. Group purchasing organization

GPOs negotiate group purchase contracts on behalf of multiple hospitals and health
systems. They are able to negotiate lower prices than individual buyers might get by
negotiating solo contracts with manufacturers.

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65
Q

GPOs consist of:

a. Associations
b. Corporations
c. Healthcare systems
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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66
Q

If a level of technology exceeds the service line strategies of the facility, this
yields a rating of _____ on a radiology equipment dashboard.
a. Good
b. Average
c. Poor
d. None of the above

A

a. Good

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67
Q

Which modality is gradient coils a component of?

a. CR
b. CT
c. MR
d. RF

A

c. MR

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68
Q

Which modality is rotation speed a component of?

a. CR
b. CT
c. MR
d. RF

A

b. CT

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69
Q

Which modality is table mobility a component of?

a. RF
b. CT
c. MR
d. CR

A

a. RF

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70
Q

Which modality is worklist management a component of?

a. CR only
b. CT only
c. RF, CR, and CT
d. CR, CT, and MR

A

d. CR, CT, and MR

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71
Q

The cost of capital assets allocated on the income statement over a
predetermined period of time is known as:
a. Depreciation
b. Maintenance
c. Performa
d. Usage

A

a. Depreciation

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72
Q 
One way to elicit specific details about vendor system capabilities is to send an
RFI, which stands for:
a. Recently furnished inquiry
b. Reliable formulary insert
c. Request for information
d. Resource for issues
A

c. Request for information

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73
Q 
A CT scanner that costs $1.4 million with a depreciable life of 7 years can be
depreciated at a rate of:
a. $200,000 per year
b. $400,000 per year
c. $500,000 per year
d. $750,000 per year
A

a. $200,000 per year

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74
Q 
Resources state that a unit refurbished by an independent company will cost
less than one refurbished by a/an:
a. GPO
b. ISO
c. OEM
d. RFI
A

c. OEM

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75
Q

In what year was the first clinical use of computed tomography (CT)?

a. 1946
b. 1967
c. 1971
d. 1973

A

c. 1971

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76
Q 
In what way can the imaging administrator keep up with equipment supply
and demand?
a. Literature
b. Professional conferences
c. Web sites
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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77
Q 
Life expectancy of capital imaging equipment is influenced by which of the
following?
a. Availability of replacement parts
b. Changes in clinical practice
c. Changes in technologists
d. Both A and B
A

d. Both A and B

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78
Q

Used and refurbished equipment is gaining greater acceptance in the imaging
community.
a. False
b. True

A

a. False

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79
Q

Avoiding a hodgepodge of building construction types, floor levels, outward
appearances, and internal infrastructure would be considered part of a(n):
a. Immediate/emergent need
b. Mid-range/planned need
c. Long-range/strategic need
d. None of the above

A

c. Long-range/strategic need

many buildings that have long been used by healthcare providers are
frozen testaments to serial small-scale projects that were not integrated into the
larger context of a long-range or strategic development plan

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80
Q

Which question might be asked when determining capital equipment need?

a. What are the past imaging needs of the patient population?
b. Does the hospital support Level 1, 2, or 3 trauma services?
c. Are employee satisfaction scores acceptable?
d. What is the payer mix?

A

a. What are the past imaging needs of the patient population?

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81
Q

Most needs are identified months or years prior to any critical need.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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82
Q 
In addition to raw square footage, what are some other considerations when
siting imaging equipment?
a. Power supply
b. Cooling loads
c. Environmental factors
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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83
Q

“Bubble diagrams” show:
a. Industry trends, technological advancement, competition,
reimbursement
b. The referring physician base
c. Hypothetical conversations between departments
d. The different areas of a facility in relationship to each other

A

d. The different areas of a facility in relationship to each other

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84
Q

In the imaging department, net square footage would include:
a. Exam rooms, patient waiting areas, offices, and interpretation room
b. Exam rooms, patient waiting areas, and interpretation room
c. Exam rooms, conference rooms, emergency department, and
interpretation room
d. Exam rooms, main lobby, offices, and interpretation room

A

a. Exam rooms, patient waiting areas, offices, and interpretation room

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85
Q 
Based on contemporary vendor templates, an MRI scanner room will only
require approximately:
a. 1600 square feet
b. 1000 square feet
c. 600 square feet
d. None of the above
A

c. 600 square feet

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86
Q

The amount by which the net area needs to be increased to allow for such
infrastructure as electrical closets, pipe and duct chases, corridors, stairs, and
elevators is known as the:
a. Equipment needs factor
b. Grossing factor
c. Installation factor
d. Net area factor

A

b. Grossing factor

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87
Q 
Square footage above that which is indicated in vendor prototypes would
include storage for:
a. Coils
b. Infection control supplies
c. Guide wires
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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88
Q

What is often underrepresented in early planning stages?

a. Support areas for patients and staff
b. Net square footage
c. Operational requirements
d. Regulatory requirements

A

a. Support areas for patients and staff

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89
Q

Current clinical MRI gantries can weigh up to ______ pounds for
superconductive magnets and up to ______ pounds for midfield open MRI
machines with permanent magnets.
a. 18,000 / 76,000
b. 24,000 / 96,000
c. 36,000 / 52,000
d. 37,000 / 108,000

A

b. 24,000 / 96,000

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90
Q

To assist a facility in the initial planning stages to identify space and
programmatic needs for areas within imaging departments, free guides are
available from:
a. The American Institute of Architects
b. The Department of Veterans Affairs
c. The Department of Health and Human Services
d. The Food and Drug Administration

A

b. The Department of Veterans Affairs

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91
Q 
Many state and local jurisdictions are requiring that all construction projects
be designed and built to save:
a. Space and time
b. Time and money
c. Energy and resources
d. Money and staff
A

c. Energy and resources

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92
Q

The following examples show how operational and physical issues beyond the
immediate scope of the equipment manufacturer can have a significant
impact on the efficacy and accuracy of imaging equipment except:
a. Lack of an IV preparation area
b. Inadequate number of changing rooms
c. Placement of an MRI scanner too close to high-voltage electrical panels
d. Placement of an ultrasound room too close to an elevator

A

c. Placement of an MRI scanner too close to high-voltage electrical panels

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93
Q 
A material being developed as a lead-free alternative that facilitates
absorption of x-rays is:
a. LNP Thermotuf PC-1006
b. LNP Thermocomp HSG PH1100B
c. LNP Thermotuf PC-HSG 1100B
d. LNP Thermocomp HSG-PC 2300A
A

b. LNP Thermocomp HSG PH1100B

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94
Q

Which is perhaps the single easiest modality to site?

a. PET
b. CT
c. Ultrasound
d. X-ray

A

c. Ultrasound

95
Q

A term that describes low levels of radiation from PET patients being picked
up by devices with highly sensitive detectors in nearby rooms is:
a. “Cross-talk”
b. “Cross-feed”
c. “Cross-wave”
d. “Cross-walk”

A

a. “Cross-talk”

96
Q

Planning and design elements should anticipate:

a. Paths of travel for removal or replacement of imaging modalities
b. Potential impacts of adjacent construction
c. Flexibility to adapt to changing usage patterns
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

97
Q

Prototypical layouts provided by vendors to show the minimum siting criteria
are often mistakenly reproduced verbatim.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

98
Q

One of the most challenging issues facing those who plan imaging services in
a hospital setting is the question of:
a. Technical versus operational priorities
b. Centralized versus decentralized operations
c. Current versus anticipated volume
d. Internal versus external project management

A

b. Centralized versus decentralized operations

99
Q

Permits are typically required with any installation or deinstallation that
modifies:
a. Plumbing, electrical systems, or staffing
b. Plumbing, HVAC, or number of closets
c. Plumbing, electrical systems, or air conditioning
d. Electrical systems, computer systems, or air conditioning

A

c. Plumbing, electrical systems, or air conditioning

100
Q

The lesser “fringe field” of the MRI below 5 gauss in strength poses known
safety threats to people.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

The lesser “fringe field” of
the MRI below 5 gauss in strength doesn’t pose any known safety threat to people,
but it may be highly disruptive to other imaging equipment

101
Q

CT gantries and tables will typically weigh:

a. Several hundred pounds
b. Several thousand pounds
c. Several thousand tons
d. None of the above

A

b. Several thousand pounds

102
Q

Which is an example of a typical MRI vendor safety requirement?
a. No liquid helium containers may be brought into the magnet area
unless it has been ascertained that the container is made of non-ferrous
material
b. If in a medical emergency instruments must be used, the patient must
be removed from the examination room first
c. During the siting, a controlled access area around the MR system must
be defined where the field strength will exceed 5 Gauss (0.5 mT)
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

103
Q

Hiring the professional design services of architects and engineers is
recommended with:
a. Installations of larger, more complicated and expensive equipment
b. Installations which require no modifications to the building’s
infrastructure
c. Installations of all kinds, big or small
d. Installations that don’t require a building permit

A

a. Installations of larger, more complicated and expensive equipment

104
Q 
The shielding required for x-ray equipment will typically be HSG material.
What does HSG stand for?
a. High specific gravity
b. High standard gravity
c. Hazard specific grossing
d. Hazardous standard grossing
A

b. High standard gravity

105
Q

Single modality concerns can include:

a. Vibration (eg, HVAC equipment, traffic, subway)
b. Noise (eg, from modality or outside sources)
c. Shielding issues
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

106
Q

Nuclear medicine modalities in the US will require what kind of license from
the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) in order to obtain and use the
isotopes needed for imaging studies:
a. Radioactive materials (RAM)
b. Radioisotope materials (RIM)
c. Atomic energy materials (AEM)
d. Radioactive byproducts (RAB)

A

a. Radioactive materials (RAM)

107
Q

In a health review for conformance to state statutes governing the design and
construction of healthcare facilities, many states reference the American
Institute of Architects’:
a. Sustainable Design and Construction in Healthcare
b. For Profit Healthcare Design and Construction
c. General Guidelines for Design and Construction
d. Guidelines for Design and Construction of Healthcare Facilities

A

d. Guidelines for Design and Construction of Healthcare Facilities

108
Q 
Working closely with this person(s) early in the CT planning and design stages
will help avoid unfortunate oversights:
a. Technologist
b. Referring physician
c. Physicist
d. CEO
A

c. Physicist

109
Q

Construction projects in occupied and operational buildings often involve
temporary interruptions to normal entrances and exits or other established
safety features. When this occurs, what must be developed?
a. Temporary life safety processes (TLSP)
b. Provisional life safety measures (PLSM)
c. Interim life safety measures (ILSM)
d. Interim life safety assessment (ILSA)

A

c. Interim life safety measures (ILSM)

plan for how the
temporary increase in hazards will be mitigated

110
Q 
Many hospital and healthcare buildings were designed and built decades ago
under building and life safety codes:
a. Far superior than today’s
b. Equivalent to today’s standards
c. Far less restrictive than today’s
d. Comparable to European standards
A

c. Far less restrictive than today’s

As a consequence, areas
renovated within existing buildings may require incidental improvements to bring
them up to current building codes

111
Q

Violation of this can become problematic during in-service renovations with
contractor staff in close proximity to areas of patient care and treatment.
a. HIPAA
b. Stark
c. National Patient Safety Goals
d. HITECH

A

a. HIPAA

112
Q

An in-service renovation often presents a number of operational hurdles that
will require effective communication among:
a. Upper management, community organizers, and the construction staff
b. The occupying users, the project designers, and the construction staff
c. The occupying users, the board of directors, and the project designers
d. The occupying users, the construction staff , and housekeeping

A

b. The occupying users, the project designers, and the construction staff

113
Q

Perhaps the single greatest disadvantage to renovation can be the limitations
imposed on best-practice operations because of:
a. Lack of available space
b. Existing physical obstacles
c. Patient access
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

114
Q

Compared to new construction, renovations of existing buildings in support
of imaging capital improvement projects is often initially viewed as:
a. Similar
b. Harder and more expensive
c. Easier and less expensive
d. None of the above

A

c. Easier and less expensive

115
Q 
One method frequently used to help diminish the negative impacts of
operational interferences is that of:
a. Continuous construction
b. Modular construction
c. Performance construction
d. Phased construction
A

d. Phased construction

multistep renovations, and relocations of smaller areas within the
Asset Management in Radiology 100 Evaluate Renovation Issues
overall project, sequenced to preserve critical functionality

116
Q

Many existing structures will not be able to support the installation of multi-ton
devices and their requisite shielding without:
a. Modifications to shore the building
b. Demolition of the entire facility
c. Modifications to the equipment specs
d. Violating regulatory standards

A

a. Modifications to shore the building

117
Q

Nearly every imaging modality is available on an interim basis in a relocatable
self-contained suite or in a semitrailer.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

mobile modalities can be brought to a facility to provide uninterruptible patient services during renovation activities.

118
Q

A fundamental concern about renovations to occupied areas is the degree to
which construction activities may negatively impact:
a. Financial statements
b. The healing environment
c. Employee satisfaction
d. Physician satisfaction

A

b. The healing environment

Contractors need to be aware that construction activities may negatively impact patient care and that there may be circumstances where work needs to be suspended or schedules altered

119
Q

Third party accrediting bodies include The Joint Commission, the American
College of Radiology (ACR), and the:
a. Imaging Accreditation Commission (IAC)
b. Intersocietal Accreditation Commission (IAC)
c. Imaging Accreditation College (IAC)
d. Intersocietal Authority Commission (IAC)

A

b. Intersocietal Accreditation Commission (IAC)

120
Q

A(n) factor(s) that can affect the overall budget estimate for a project
include(s):
a. Restrictive technical specifications
b. Competitive bidding
c. Standard requirements for construction in phases
d. All of the above

A

a. Restrictive technical specifications

121
Q 
“Structure/shell” costs make up what percentage of a typical overall project
budget?
a. 5% to 10%
b. 15% to 20%
c. 25% to 30%
d. 40% to 50%
A

c. 25% to 30%

122
Q

What is an example of a typical long-lead item?

a. Mechanical heating/air conditioning units
b. Special equipment chillers
c. Nonstandard lighting fixtures
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

123
Q

If the organization is large enough, members of a project team might include:

a. Regulatory agencies
b. A professional project manager
c. Patients
d. Technologists

A

b. A professional project manager

124
Q

In a post project evaluation, reviewing any scope creep means reviewing:

a. Uncontrolled changes
b. Controlled changes
c. Timeline changes
d. Budget changes

A

a. Uncontrolled changes

Reviewing any scope creep (ie, uncontrolled
changes) may help in better planning similar, subsequent projects

125
Q

It is vital to establish and adhere to a realistically aggressive schedule for:

a. Financial reasons
b. Consideration of effective patient care
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

126
Q

Examples of internal partners are:

a. CFO, housekeeping staff, referring physicians
b. Materials manager, physicist, security officer
c. CFO, general contractor, safety officer
d. None of the above

A

b. Materials manager, physicist, security officer

Radiologist/Cardiologist, Chief Financial Officer/Materials Manager, Lead Technologist, Clinical Care Manager, Infection Control Staff, Physicist, Safety Officer, Security Officer, Housekeeping Staff, Engineering/Maintenance Staff, Design/Construction Staff

127
Q

Examples of external partners are:

a. Lead technologist, general contractor, housekeeping staff
b. Vendor, code authorities, CFO
c. Accrediting bodies, vendor, security officer
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

Designers and Architects, General Contractors, Equipment Vendor, Code Authorities, Accrediting Bodies, Radiology departments,

128
Q

Imaging administrators should rely on their past experiences of having done a
“similar” project several years prior and try to apply the same budget.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

129
Q

The components of a project can be illustrated with the equation, Cost =
f(P,T,S), where cost is a function of:
a. Performance of materials (P), team (T), and scope (S)
b. Performance of patients (P), time (T), and staff (S)
c. Performance of resources (P), time (T), and scope (S)
d. Performance of resources (P), time (T), and staff (S)

A

c. Performance of resources (P), time (T), and scope (S)

130
Q

What responsibilities do general contractors usually assume?
a. Gather and help evaluate bids from equipment vendors
b. Coordinate the schedules and onsite work of project management team
c. Serve as key liaison between accrediting bodies and the project
management team
d. Arrange for permits and related inspections

A

d. Arrange for permits and related inspections

Gather and help evaluate bids from subcontractors
Coordinate the schedules and onsite work of subcontractors
Arrange for permits and related inspections
Interact with the architect to ensure project plans are implemented as designed

131
Q

In projects involving renovation or new construction, what is a factor that
would lead to an unforeseen cost?
a. Shielding gamma cameras from low-level gauss fields
b. Oversized rooms
c. MRI shielding far from an electrical main
d. Failure to plan for proper infection controls

A

c. MRI shielding far from an electrical main

132
Q 
The overall schedule should be reviewed and updated at regular project
meetings, commonly:
a. Every 1 to 2 weeks
b. Every month
c. Bimonthly
d. Every day
A

a. Every 1 to 2 weeks

133
Q 
A written document called the project scope document or project plan
outlines:
a. Objectives of the project
b. Work requirements
c. Expectations of timelines
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

134
Q

What is a common tool used to manage a construction schedule?

a. Scatter chart
b. Gantt chart
c. Flow chart
d. Pareto chart

A

b. Gantt chart

135
Q

Typically, when two regulatory standards identify different levels of care or
safety:
a. Neither one will be implemented
b. The less restrictive of the two will govern
c. The more restrictive of the two will govern
d. A mediator decides which standard will govern

A

c. The more restrictive of the two will govern

136
Q

The process that involves matching the dollar value of specific construction
elements with the programmatic element they support is called:
a. “Value engineered”
b. “Valuation factoring”
c. “Value enhanced”
d. “Valuation planning”

A

a. “Value engineered”

137
Q

The scope document may be used to settle disputes and assess financial
penalties when delays are the direct responsibility of one of the project’s
participants.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

138
Q

Between January 2003 and January 2006, the average per-square-foot
construction cost for hospitals jumped from:
a. $220 to $750
b. $300 to $350
c. $330 to $550
d. $400 to $800

A

c. $330 to $550

139
Q

One of the first processes in purchasing capital equipment is usually to:

a. Select a vendor
b. Develop an RFI
c. Negotiate price
d. Engage physician support

A

c. Negotiate price

page 214

140
Q

A good way to get to know about a product or service is:

a. Facebook
b. Advertisement in a trade magazine
c. Healthcare trade shows and conferences
d. From the vendors competitors

A

c. Healthcare trade shows and conferences

141
Q

A request for information (RFI) is:
a. Only needed for simple projects
b. Paid for by the vendor
c. A document that solicits basic information about products and services from
a wide range of external suppliers
d. A document that solicits detailed information about products and services
from a select few external suppliers

A

c. A document that solicits basic information about products and services from
a wide range of external suppliers

This document is a nonbinding solicitation made to relevant vendors to request
information about the features, availability, and pricing of their products and services.

142
Q

The RFI will help an imaging administrator build a database that includes:

a. Vendor facilities, finances, and motivators
b. Market dynamics, trends, and factors driving change
c. Vendor competition and pricing strategies
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

143
Q

An RFI is warranted when:

a. A large field of vendors must be narrowed
b. A large field of vendors must be expanded
c. A small field of vendors must ne narrowed
d. A preferred vendor is designated

A

a. A large field of vendors must be narrowed

144
Q

The RFI will usually include all of the following except:

a. Statement of need describing the project
b. Rules of consideration and timeframes
c. Money budgeted for the project
d. Qualifications sought from the vendor

A

c. Money budgeted for the project

145
Q

Utilizing an RFI will allow you to identify a pool of potential vendors for the project.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

146
Q

The preferred number of vendors to be considered for a project should be:

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5 or more

A

b. 3

147
Q

When scheduling site visits, the participants on the team may vary depending on
the equipment or service being considered.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

148
Q

All of the following must or should attend a site visit for a new PACS system except:

a. Radiologist
b. Management
c. Physicist
d. Information technologist

A

c. Physicist

149
Q

To gain some advantage during site visits, you should:

a. Schedule your preferred vendor first
b. Schedule your preferred vendor last
c. Schedule your preferred vendor in the middle
d. It makes no difference how you schedule site visits

A

b. Schedule your preferred vendor last

150
Q

After site visits are completed, you should:

a. Cash in your frequent flyer miles
b. Sign the contract for the purchase
c. Establish product availability
d. Narrow the field to a finalist and a runner up

A

d. Narrow the field to a finalist and a runner up

151
Q

RFP stands for:

a. Request for pricing
b. Ready for proposal
c. Request for proposal
d. Really famous person

A

c. Request for proposal

152
Q

Issuing an RFP can achieve goals such as:

a. Help insure the project is awarded to the most qualified and capable vendor
b. Provide competition for the projects budgeted dollars
c. Provide comparable and objective information
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

153
Q

The ____________of an RFP provides an opportunity to summarize key elements
of the project, particularly the dates on which different documents are due.
a. Cover letter
b. Scope of work
c. Statement of purpose
d. Background information

A

a. Cover letter

In addition to being polite and professional, a cover letter provides an opportunity
to summarize key elements of the project, particularly the dates on which different
documents are due. Guidelines for preparing the letter are provided in Sidebar 8.1.

page 135

154
Q

The _____________of an RFP introduces the project and its goals and provides a
description of the product or service the facility seeks.
a. Scope of work
b. Contract term
c. Background information
d. Statement of purpose

A

d. Statement of purpose

Statement of Purpose: This section introduces the project and its goals and provides
a description of the product or service the facility seeks.

page 138

155
Q

When obtaining vendor references, it is advisable to:

a. Have at least 1
b. Have at least 3
c. Get reference information from vendor competitors
d. References are not necessary

A

b. Have at least 3

156
Q

A good question to ask a vendor reference is:

a. Did the vendor take you out to dinner?
b. Did the vendor meet their deadlines?
c. Did the vendor ask too many questions?
d. None of the above

A

b. Did the vendor meet their deadlines?

157
Q

Besides price, other outcomes that may be desirable include:

a. High level of ongoing support and service
b. Installation or project completion within a defined timeframe
c. Equipment configuration to meet current and future needs
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

158
Q

“I’ll never be able to get my company to agree to that” is an example of:

a. Good negotiating skills
b. A great phrase for a vendor to use
c. A common statement designed to give the vendor the upper hand
d. A last ditch effort to close the sale

A

c. A common statement designed to give the vendor the upper hand

159
Q

A best practice for learning a new concept as an adult is:
a. Practice many times in a lab, watch an expert, then let the expert watch
you
b. See one, do one, teach one
c. On the Internet
d. Via teleconference

A

a. Practice many times in a lab, watch an expert, then let the expert watch
you

160
Q

The members of the team to select new equipment include:

a. The manager
b. The manager and a radiologist
c. The manager, a radiologist, and a technologist
d. The manager, a radiologist, a technologist, and a clerk

A

c. The manager, a radiologist, and a technologist

161
Q

Three principles that guide adult learning are:

a. Reading, watching a video, and practicing
b. Readiness, effect, and exercise
c. See one, do one, teach one
d. Webinar, teleconference, and virtual classes

A

b. Readiness, effect, and exercise

Readiness is the desire of the student to learn
Effect is the positive feedback and pleasure
Exercise is the hands-on learning

162
Q

When selecting an employee to work with an applications person to become
the department trainer, the skills needed are:
a. Outgoing personality and good eye contact
b. Empathetic listening and coaching
c. Understanding affect and good spreadsheet skills
d. Excellent technical skills and the ability to teach

A

d. Excellent technical skills and the ability to teach

163
Q 
Whose workflow is most impacted when making changes to a dictation
system and PACS?
a. Transcriptionist
b. Radiologist
c. Technologist
d. IT department
A

b. Radiologist

164
Q

What is the pivotal factor for success with a voice recognition system?

a. Training and practice
b. Radiologists’ attitude
c. Transcription moving to the role of editor
d. IT department

A

a. Training and practice

165
Q

When a gastroenterologist comes to the imaging department to use a new
fluoro system, he/she will require training.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

166
Q

When installing PACS, what is important to remember for referring
physicians?
a. Computers in their offices are capable of viewing PACS images
b. Internet connectivity
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

b. Internet connectivity

167
Q

Specialists will require ____________ when PACS is installed:

a. Hands on training
b. Their own PACS administrator
c. More bandwidth
d. High resolution monitors and training

A

d. High resolution monitors and training

168
Q

Why is it a good idea to include both enthusiastic and apprehensive staff
when implementing a new technology?
a. Then everyone feels included
b. The positive ones bring along the negative ones
c. Staff look up to the manager
d. Positive outlook is sensed by staff and those who are afraid will be
relieved

A

d. Positive outlook is sensed by staff and those who are afraid will be
relieved

169
Q

The goal of an efficient and effective maintenance and repair program is to ensure
minimal downtime and maximum productivity while optimizing what?
a. Capital expenses
b. Operating expenses
c. Customer satisfaction
d. Next day appointments

A

b. Operating expenses

170
Q

What is one way to reduce operating expenses?

a. Control maintenance and repair costs
b. Purchase refurnished equipment
c. Only purchase new equipment
d. Always purchase extended warranties on equipment

A

a. Control maintenance and repair costs

171
Q 
Service contracts should include a guaranteed downtime rate for imaging
equipment of no more than:
a. 4%-5%
b. 10%
c. 1% - 2%
d. 15%
A

c. 1% - 2%

172
Q

_______________ is a procurement evaluation technique that determines the total
cost of acquisition, operation, maintenance, and disposal of items being purchased.
a. Rate of return
b. Net present value
c. Discounted cash flow
d. Life cycle costing

A

d. Life cycle costing

aka terotechnology

173
Q

What are 4 basic characteristics of a contract?

a. Agreement, consideration, return on investment, capacity
b. Consideration, legality, capacity, life cycle costing
c. Agreement, consideration, legality, capacity
d. Consideration, return on investment, legality, capacity

A

c. Agreement, consideration, legality, capacity

Agreement - party makes offer, other party accepts
Consideration - bargaining that leads to exchange
Legality - contract must be lawful
Capacity - ability to enter a legally binding contract

174
Q

What is the correct formula for calculating equipment uptime?

a. Uptime = Downtime/Uptime Base
b. Uptime = Uptime Base/Downtime
c. Uptime = Uptime Base – Downtime
d. Uptime = Uptime Base – Downtime/Uptime Base

A

d. Uptime = Uptime Base – Downtime/Uptime Base

175
Q

A good PM program is the best way to be proactive about equipment maintenance.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

176
Q 
What are the typical service coverage hours for low-end equipment with a basic
service contract?
a. Monday – Friday 8:00 am to 9:00 pm
b. Monday – Friday 8:00 am to 5:00 pm
c. Sunday – Saturday 8:00 am to 9:00 pm
d. Sunday – Saturday 8:00 am to 5:00 pm
A

b. Monday – Friday 8:00 am to 5:00 pm

177
Q 
What is a typical uptime guarantee for high-end equipment with a basic service
contract?
a. 95%
b. 90%
c. 98%
d. 92%
A

c. 98%

178
Q

Equipment downtime not only has a negative impact on revenue and operating
budgets, but it can also result in lower:
a. Customer service scores
b. Reimbursement rates
c. Patient volumes in the emergency department
d. Incidents of no-show patients

A

a. Customer service scores

179
Q

In house biomedical engineers can benefit an imaging department by:

a. Performing equipment repairs
b. Performing equipment installations
c. Performing equipment PMs
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

180
Q

What is one of the more difficult challenges to having in house biomedical
engineers perform maintenance on imaging equipment?
a. On site availability
b. Efficiency of repair times
c. Maintaining service specific competency levels
d. The engineers ability to troubleshoot small issues

A

c. Maintaining service specific competency levels

181
Q 
When purchasing equipment and negotiating service contracts, the letters OEM
refer to?
a. Official Equipment Management
b. Original Equipment Manufacture
c. Operating Equipment Manager
d. Operating Equipment Matrix
A

b. Original Equipment Manufacture

182
Q 
Unexpected downtimes and malfunctions can result in all of the following except
what?
a. Lost revenue
b. Decreased productivity
c. Satisfied customers
d. Disruptions in patient care
A

c. Satisfied customers

183
Q

Having the appropriate service contracts and maintenance plans in place is an
integral part of a successful imaging department.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

184
Q

What does BER stand for?

a. Beyond Economic Repair
b. Basic Equipment Repair
c. Basic Evaluation Recommended
d. Beyond Economic Recommendation

A

a. Beyond Economic Repair

185
Q

An imaging administrator should negotiate the commencement of the warranty
period to coincide with what?
a. The equipment purchase date
b. The equipment manufacture date
c. The equipment delivery date
d. The equipment post installation and acceptance date

A

d. The equipment post installation and acceptance date

186
Q

A typical a la Carte service contract covers?

a. Parts only
b. Parts and Labor
c. PMs only
d. Parts and PMs

A

a. Parts only

187
Q

What is the legal contract term that refers to the customer’s failure to adhere to
recommended polices set forth in a service contract thereby nullifying the company’s
liability under the service contract?
a. False calls
b. Abdication
c. Notifications
d. Termination

A

b. Abdication

188
Q

What is a formal agreement between 2 or more parties that describes contractual
commitments, measurement criteria, and standards?
a. Service Contract
b. Warranty
c. Service Level Agreement
d. Supplemental Contract

A

c. Service Level Agreement

189
Q

What is a program for the systematic monitoring and evaluation of the various
aspects of a project, service, or facility to ensure that quality standards are met?
a. Quality Control
b. Goal Deployment
c. Quality Assurance
d. Quality Management

A

c. Quality Assurance

190
Q

What comprises an aggregate of activities designed to ensure adequate quality?

a. Quality Control
b. Goal Deployment
c. Quality Assurance
d. Quality Management

A

a. Quality Control

QC comprises “an aggregate of activities (as design analysis and inspection for defects) designed to
ensure adequate quality especially in manufactured products.

191
Q

A QA data summary report should be:

a. A true comprehensive reflection of the facility’s QA/QC program
b. Easy to read and prepare
c. Readily available during inspections
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

192
Q

A copy of the QC data sheets should be kept in a binder in the relevant unit for
easy access and review.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

193
Q

In patient care, ALARA is typically accomplished by all of the following except:

a. Regular equipment PMs
b. Using the highest exposure factors
c. Shielding the patient whenever possible
d. Limiting the number of repeat images

A

b. Using the highest exposure factors

194
Q

If an x-ray room is supposed to operate 10 hours a day, 7 days a week, and the
room is down for 5 days, what is the uptime calculation?
a. (70 – 50)/70
b. (70 – 50)/280
c. (280 – 50)/280
d. (280 – 50)/35

A

c. (280 – 50)/280 = 82%

Uptime Base = a hours per day × b hours per week × 52 weeks (Planned maintenance
hours during prior 365 days, where a hours per day and b hours per week
are determined by your elected Corrective Coverage hours for each item
of equipment)

195
Q

The MQSA set the quality standards for which imaging modality?

a. Ultrasound
b. MRI
c. CT Scan
d. Mammography

A

d. Mammography

196
Q

According to the ACR, CT technologists have QC responsibilities that must
focus on what portion(s) of image quality?
a. Patient positioning
b. Image production
c. Image archiving and processing
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

197
Q

What needs to be done in conjunction with regularly scheduled PMs to ensure
that radiation output is measured and that equipment is properly functioning
within the safe operating parameters set by the manufacture?
a. Annual testing by a medical physicist
b. Annual inspection by the FDA.
c. Daily electrical safety checks
d. Weekly SMPTE testing

A

a. Annual testing by a medical physicist

198
Q 
How often should a medical physicist conduct an equipment performance
review of CT equipment?
a. Annually
b. Quarterly
c. Upon initial installation
d. Both a and c
A

d. Both a and c

199
Q

What are the main QC tests performed during the initial acceptance testing of a
nuclear medicine camera?
a. Planar imaging capabilities, total system tests, and SPECT imaging
capabilities
b. Planar imaging capabilities, table capacity testing, and SMPTE testing
c. Total system tests, SMPTE testing, and SPECT imaging capabilities
d. SPECT imaging capabilities, timer checks, and collimator alignment tests

A

a. Planar imaging capabilities, total system tests, and SPECT imaging
capabilitie

200
Q

Some common QC testing performed during PMs and annual inspections of
ultrasound equipment include all of the following except:
a. Grayscale photography
b. Uniformity
c. Beam quality assessment
d. Low-contrast object detection

A

c. Beam quality assessment

201
Q

What does SMPTE stand for?

a. Society of Mammography Picture Testing Engineers
b. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers
c. Society of Magnetic Positron Technical Engineers
d. Society of Maintenance Professionals and Technical Engineers

A

b. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers

202
Q

What does ALARA stand for?

a. As low as reasonably achievable
b. Always lower acceptable radiation administration
c. As low as rightfully accept
d. As low as the radiologist allows

A

a. As low as reasonably achievable

test pattern or other patterns

203
Q

Downtime is commonly referred to as time when the specified imaging
equipment is unavailable for use due to maintenance or malfunction.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

204
Q

What are the daily QC tests in mammography required by the ACR and FDA?

a. Screen cleanliness, darkroom cleanliness, and mobile unit QC
b. Repeat analysis, screen cleanliness, and darkroom cleanliness
c. Darkroom cleanliness, processor quality control, and mobile unit QC
d. Darkroom cleanliness, processor quality control, and visual checklist

A

c. Darkroom cleanliness, processor quality control, and mobile unit QC

205
Q

Aside from time, distance, and shielding, what is a very important component
of radiation safety for the “occupationally exposed”?
a. Wearing lead goggles
b. Utilizing pulse fluoroscopy
c. Limiting number of repeats
d. Wearing a film badge

A

d. Wearing a film badge

206
Q

What does NRC stand for?

a. National radiation control
b. Nuclear regulatory commission
c. Nuclear radiation commission
d. National radiation committee

A

b. Nuclear regulatory commission

207
Q 
What type of spreadsheet can be used to clearly track, report, and trend QA/QC
outcomes in 4 categories?
a. PM inspection form
b. Balanced score card
c. Equipment uptime report
d. Radiographic calibration sheet
A

b. Balanced score card

208
Q

Where should the film badge be worn by an “occupationally exposed” imaging
professional if they only have one film badge?
a. Under the lead apron at waist level
b. Under the thyroid shield
c. Outside the lead apron at the collar level
d. Outside the lead apron at the waist level

A

c. Outside the lead apron at the collar level

209
Q

Inventory management is defined as:
a. The total amount of supplies contained in storage at any given time.
b. The total amount of supplies contained in storage at the end of the fiscal year.
c. The process of managing inventory using controlled policies and procedures for
supplies on hand at a given time.
d. The process of managing inventory using controlled policies and procedures for
supplies on hand at the end of the fiscal year.

A

c. The process of managing inventory using controlled policies and procedures for
supplies on hand at a given time.

210
Q 
What is the range for expiration dates from the time of original manufacturer for most
drugs in the United States?
a. 12 to 18 months
b. 12 to 24 months
c. 12 to 48 months
d. 12 to 60 months
A

d. 12 to 60 months

For most products in the United States, expiration
dates range from 12 to 60 months from the time of original manufacture

211
Q

Members of a value analysis committee charged with standardizing supplies utilized in a
healthcare facility should consist of:
a. Work area managers and physicians
b. Administrators and materials management representatives
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

212
Q

The practice of vendors taking off-contract supplies directly to physicians at patient care
settings and charging list price is called:
a. Front door selling
b. Back door selling
c. Out of control selling
d. None of the above

A

b. Back door selling

213
Q

An automated method used for identifying objects, collecting data about them, and
entering that data directly into a computer system using radio waves is called:
a. ERP
b. EDI
c. RFID
d. MMIS

A

c. RFID

214
Q

The second largest expense for hospitals is:

a. Personnel salaries
b. IT systems costs
c. Utility costs
d. Supply costs

A

d. Supply costs

215
Q

Which options are available for administrators to streamline supply costs?

a. Purchase electronic storage devices for supplies and medications
b. Partner with materials management department at facility
c. Partner with vendor that specializes in inventory management
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

216
Q 
A phrase that describes how supplies should be processed and moved in order to arrive in
time for the next operation is called:
a. Just in Time
b. Always on Time
c. In the Nick of Time
d. None of the above
A

a. Just in Time (JIT)

217
Q

All healthcare facilities have the proper infrastructure to properly manage inventory.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

218
Q 
Which year did the FDA require radiopharmaceutical manufactures to provide expiration
dates on all of their products?
a. 1969
b. 1979
c. 1989
d. 1999
A

b. 1979

219
Q 
The stocking method used for supplies with expiration dates, such as contrast agents, is
known as:
a. LIFO
b. FIFO
c. LILO
d. FILO
A

b. FIFO

“First in first out”

220
Q

A consignment agreement is an effective method used by administrators to reduce cost
for high-ticket physician preference items.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

Consignment means the supplies will only be paid for
by the healthcare facility when they are used

221
Q

Sourcing and contracting requires close attention to:

a. Portfolio management
b. Price leveling
c. Vendor consolidation
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

222
Q

Supply expense is defined as :
a. The net cost of all tangible items that are expensed including freight and standard
distribution cost
b. The net cost of all intangible items that are expensed including freight and
standard distribution cost
c. The net cost of all tangible items that are expensed including labor related
expenses
d. The net cost of all intangible items that are expensed including labor related
expenses

A

a. The net cost of all tangible items that are expensed including freight and standard
distribution cost

223
Q

Which of the following would be included in supply expenses:

a. Surgical supplies
b. Lab supplies
c. Oxygen and related medical gases
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

224
Q

Which of the following would NOT be included in supply expenses:

a. Housekeeping supplies
b. Drugs/pharmaceuticals
c. Postage
d. Dialysis supplies and fluids

A

c. Postage

225
Q

Supply expenses represent 25% to 30% of hospital costs.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

226
Q

Group Purchasing Organizations (GPOs) negotiate group purchase contracts on behalf of:

a. Directors and administrators
b. Nurses and nurse administrators
c. Multiple hospitals and healthcare systems
d. Chief executive officer and chief financial officer

A

c. Multiple hospitals and healthcare systems

227
Q

For the evaluation of consumption and utilization of supplies, review of regulatory
agencies’ standards of care and recommended best practices from professional
organizations can provide guidance in the development of policies and procedures.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

228
Q

In the healthcare industry, why is managing the flow of supplies from manufacturers to
distributors to providers of care still not fully automated?
a. Lack of IT investment
b. Lack of materials management knowledge
c. Lack of other industries to learn from
d. Lack of necessity

A

a. Lack of IT investment

229
Q

Planning, implementing, and controlling the efficient and cost effective flow of storage of
supplies from point of origin to point of consumption is termed:
a. Logistics
b. Utilization
c. Supply chain
d. None of the above

A

a. Logistics

230
Q

The combination of the various processes involved in the planning, organizing,
controlling, distribution, and financial aspect of a product or service is termed:
a. Logistics
b. Utilization
c. Supply chain
d. None of the above

A

c. Supply chain

231
Q

The chargemaster is the list of all chargeable:

a. Supplies
b. Procedures
c. Supplies and procedures
d. Supplies, procedures, and equipment

A

c. Supplies and procedures

232
Q

Healthcare organizations should perform annual physical audits of:

a. Supplies
b. Equipment
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

233
Q

Which of the following constitute the five “mega processes” of the supply chain?

a. Selection of product and inventory management
b. Sourcing and contracting
c. Logistics and purchasing
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

  1. Selection and utilization of product (value analysis and controlling supply cost)
  2. Sourcing and contracting (contract compliance)
  3. Inventory management (forecasting need, replenishing supply, and ensuring
    availability)
  4. Logistics (controlling the flow of inbound supply to point of consumption)
  5. Purchasing and payment

Greg's Cards (8 decks)

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