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Greg's Cards > Communication Info Mgmt > Flashcards

Communication Info Mgmt Flashcards

1
Q

One of the first things necessary to attempt strategic planning is based on the
best information available. This is accomplished by baseline assessments of:
a. Trends and staffing levels
b. Trends, current capacity, staffing levels, and perception of facility
c. Patient volumes, staffing levels, and reimbursement levels
d. All of the above

A

b. Trends, current capacity, staffing levels, and perception of facility

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2
Q

Radiology administrators can build a future view of their organization by
closely examining historical and public information.
a. True
b. False

A

a. true

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3
Q

No analysis of trends is complete without an examination of the future of
imaging technology. With digital formats come an ever increasing number of
images and data to manage. By managing connectivity of the following
system(s) this can be done.
a. RIS
b. HIS, RIS
c. EMR, HIS
d. RIS, HIS, EMR

A

d. RIS, HIS, EMR

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4
Q

A facility’s capacity depends on:
a. Staffing and financial resources
b. Staffing, financial resources, and workflow
c. Staffing, workflow, available technology, financial resources,
organizational structure
d. Staffing, workflow, available technology, and financial resources

A

b. Staffing, financial resources, and workflow

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5
Q

Key elements of technology assessments start with existing resources and their
capabilities. This is can be done through:
a. Personal observation and research
b. Personal observation, industry standards, documentation, research, and
comments of users
c. Personal observation, industry standards, and documentation
d. None of the above

A

b. Personal observation, industry standards, documentation, research, and
comments of users

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6
Q

Budgets that regularly fail to cover technology expenditures will hinder
capacity growth.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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7
Q

A staffing assessment should include the following reviews:
a. Staffing levels, staffing resources, staffing capabilities, and current
employee survey
b. Staffing levels, staffing resources, and staffing capabilities
c. Staffing levels, staffing capabilities, and current employee survey
d. Staffing resources, staffing capabilities, and current employee survey

A

b. Staffing levels, staffing resources, and staffing capabilities

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8
Q

A public perception survey is an effective method for assessing how the facility
is perceived within its market. It can reveal:
a. That staff is caring
b. That staff is compassionate
c. What was going on
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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9
Q

In a SWOT analysis, SWOT stands for:

a. See, Work, Outside, Technical
b. See, Work, Outlier, Technical
c. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
d. None of the above

A

c. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

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10
Q

A SWOT analysis is used to analyze an organization and its business
opportunities, and the analysis is by no means all inclusive.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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11
Q

To effectively measure productivity, it must be quantitative, show performance
measures, and be simplistic in nature.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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12
Q

The expected outcome(s) of goals are to:

a. Provide set of expectations
b. Provide direction
c. Give members sense of order
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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13
Q

Strategic planning involves:

a. A unified vision
b. Efforts of a few select personnel
c. Identification of a facility’s goals
d. Both B & C

A

c. Identification of a facility’s goals

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14
Q

If you want to alter an established productivity standard, what data should you
gather?
a. New services to be added or deleted that will affect staff
b. How it will affect the budget financially
c. Current staffing levels in relation to peak volumes
d. None of the above

A

a. New services to be added or deleted that will affect staff
b. How it will affect the budget financially
c. Current staffing levels in relation to peak volumes

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15
Q

Methods of internal analysis consist of:

a. Personal self assessment
b. Focus groups
c. Indirect communication
d. Both B & C

A

d. Both B & C

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16
Q

Questions to answer when doing an internal analysis are:

a. Do processes need revision?
b. Are current processes an advantage or hindrance?
c. Are the facility’s strategic initiatives being furthered?
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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17
Q

Which of the following are vastly important when conducting a workflow
analysis?
a. Keeping its results broad
b. Performing an internal analysis of processes
c. Keeping its results complex
d. Both A & B

A

d. Both A & B

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18
Q

To ensure the success of proposed workflow changes, what is important to all
individuals involved?
a. Visual display of new processes to help employees adopt change
b. Less tracking of unachieved results
c. Ongoing communication of how processes that have changed have
affected outcomes
d. Both A & B

A

a. Visual display of new processes to help employees adopt change

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19
Q 
Healthcare as an industry devotes approximately what percentage of its cost to
labor?
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 35%
d. 70%
A

b. 60%

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20
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a strategic goal?

a. Increase market share.
b. Increase customer satisfaction percentages.
c. Increase volume over previous year(s).
d. Decrease personal tardiness by being on time to work.

A

d. Decrease personal tardiness by being on time to work.

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21
Q

To successfully increase the Labor Management Statistic (LMS) standard, it
must be shown how this change will fortify the strategic plan and improve the
organization’s goals/areas in need of improvement.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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22
Q

The nation’s leading organization of radiology professionals is the:

a. ARRT
b. ARDMS
c. ACR
d. ASRT

A

c. ACR

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23
Q

The number one reason a facility should seek ACR accreditation is:

a. Benefits
b. Marketability of services
c. Quality
d. Recognition

A

c. Quality

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24
Q

Focus groups include the following :

a. Focused discussions
b. People
c. Useful collected data
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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25
Q

External customers include:

a. The community at large
b. Employees
c. Vendors
d. All of the above

A

a. The community at large

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26
Q

One of the disadvantages of a focus group is that the time line from initial set
up to final information gathering is relatively short.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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27
Q

Strategic initiatives must bring about change that benefits:

a. The department only
b. Ancillary areas that work directly with the department
c. The whole facility
d. The customers only

A

c. The whole facility

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28
Q

A valuable resource to identify issues involving quality assurance are:

a. Radiologists
b. Co-workers
c. Consumers
d. Accreditation standards

A

a. Radiologists

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29
Q

An alternative physician peer review program must include the following:

a. Exams and procedures unrepresentative of each physician’s specialty
b. Single reading assessment
c. Random selection of studies
d. Both A & C

A

c. Random selection of studies

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30
Q

The advantage of one on one interviews with employees is:

a. Offer insight not discovered in a focus group.
b. They probably already exist as an organization process.
c. Offer the benefit of nonverbal communication.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

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31
Q

The success of a strategic plan depends on:

a. Gathering one source of information and working on this solely
b. Probing discussion
c. Using small focus groups only
d. A handful of people only

A

b. Probing discussion

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32
Q

Once a strategic plan is formulated, it is important to:

a. Never change it.
b. Only empower certain individuals to make sure it endures.
c. Adjust each facet to ensure solid implementation of the worked tasks.
d. Note that if it is a sound practice, it will not need to be refined.

A

c. Adjust each facet to ensure solid implementation of the worked tasks.

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33
Q

The greatest strategic plans involve:

a. The ideas of only a select number of chosen individuals
b. The desires of the developers
c. Independence from the organization’s mission and purpose
d. Both B & C

A

b. The desires of the developers

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34
Q

To increase the effectiveness of employee surveys:

a. Analyze the data only after being gathered
b. Make it part of the planning cycle
c. Use a single type of survey for effectiveness
d. Both B & C

A

b. Make it part of the planning cycle

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35
Q

Some tools to utilize to formulate a strong strategic plan are:

a. Review of productivity stats
b. Focus groups
c. Workflow analysis
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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36
Q

Deming’s 14 points of radiology include which of the following?

a. Cease dependence on mass inspection
b. Take action to accomplish the transformation
c. Institute leadership
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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37
Q

In the plan phase of the cycle, the identified problem is:

a. Analyzed
b. Implemented
c. Assessed
d. Measured

A

a. Analyzed

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38
Q 
A chart that prioritizes factors and puts them in graphic form quickly and
simply is:
a. Fishbone chart
b. Control chart
c. Pareto chart
d. Flow chart
A

c. Pareto chart

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39
Q

Six sigma refers to the statistical likelihood that there will be only 3.4 failures or
defects in a million opportunities.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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40
Q

The chart that uses a cause and effect method whereby the step-by-step
process is followed from beginning to end in order to look at each stage of
production is:
a. Pareto chart
b. Histogram
c. Control chart
d. Fishbone chart

A

d. Fishbone chart

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41
Q

A favorable outcome indicates that the technologists are performing within the
national standards and patients are not being exposed to unnecessary
radiation because of:
a. Missed diagnosis
b. Repeated exams
c. QI measures
d. Safety

A

b. Repeated exams

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42
Q

Quality improvement began in manufacturing in the early:

a. 1920s
b. 1950s
c. 1940s
d. 1970s

A

b. 1950s

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43
Q 
“Knowledge begins with data and ends with other data” is a quote by which
quality expert?
a. Walter Shewhart
b. W. Edwards Deming
c. Joseph Juran
d. Philip Crosby
A

a. Walter Shewhart

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44
Q

The evaluation of root causes involves a rigorous, thoughtful team approach to
glow diagramming and construction of cause-and-effect diagrams after
consideration of:
a. Failures in human factors of communication, training, fatigue, or
scheduling
b. Barriers
c. Environmental or equipment failures
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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45
Q

The five essential steps in Lean methodology include all except:

a. Make the activities flow
b. Perfect the process
c. Exploit the constraint
d. Identify the value steam

A

c. Exploit the constraint

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46
Q

The degree to which the care and services provided and relevant to an
individual’s clinical needs is a definition of which of the Nine Dimensions of
Performance?
a. Efficiency
b. Continuity
c. Availability
d. Appropriateness

A

d. Appropriateness

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47
Q

The Plan Do Check Act method of performance measurement is a tool that
focuses on _______ problem(s) and then tests the solution(s).
a. Two
b. One
c. All
d. Simultaneous

A

b. One

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48
Q

“Monitor and collect data” and “compare new data against old data for
improvements in the process” are which step of the PDCA method?
a. Plan
b. Do
c. Check
d. Act

A

c. Check

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49
Q 
The chart that helps a radiology manager understand the stream of processes
is a:
a. Control chart
b. Run charts
c. Flow chart
d. Pareto chart
A

c. Flow chart

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50
Q 
Theory of Constraints (TOC) contains 5 steps. Which of the following is/are
considered a step in the process?
a. Elevate the constraint
b. Identify the constraint
c. Exploit the constraint
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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51
Q

Managed care emerged as a means to help control:

a. Patient utilization
b. Cost
c. Monitoring processes
d. Diseases

A

b. Cost

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52
Q

Data sources are categorized into what 3 types?

a. Healthcare provider, consumer, and management of the provider
b. Human resources, consumer, and patient
c. Healthcare provider, consumer, and administration
d. None of the above

A

a. Healthcare provider, consumer, and management of the provider

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53
Q

Data collection must be linked to an outcome, and a process should be
improved or declared satisfactory if the data collection process is to be efficient
and useful.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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54
Q

Information received from patient surveys and feedback from suggestion
boxes, such as perceived satisfaction or feelings, is a definition of which type of
data?
a. Objective data
b. Collected data
c. Subjective data
d. Knowledge data

A

c. Subjective data

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55
Q

Data collection should:

a. Reveal opportunities
b. Indentify trends
c. Predict future performance
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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56
Q

The sample size for data collection on a sentinel event should be:

a. 20%
b. 100%
c. 50%
d. 33%

A

b. 100%

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57
Q

Regulations and quality standards are provided for mammography by the:

a. Mammography Quality Standards Act
b. American College of Radiology
c. The Joint Commission
d. American Hospital Association

A

a. Mammography Quality Standards Act

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58
Q 
The reason for a QI plan is to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ processes and to reduce the inevitable
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ error.
a. Identify, equipment
b. Monitor, fatal
c. Flow chart, human
d. Monitor, human
A

d. Monitor, human

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59
Q

The PROCESS model has how many phases?

a. 6
b. 8
c. 9
d. 7

A

d. 7

The PROCESS Model
1. Specify the plan requirements and objectives. Identify who, what, when, and how.
2. Analyze current processes. Identify the needs of the customers. Collect historical information.
3. Perform a root cause analysis. Display data is related graph form.
4. Identify improvement processes.
Identify steps in the improved procedure. Develop a policy for the new process. Implement the new process.
5. Analyze the process. Collect data on implemented processes. Measure data using QI tools (graphs and charts).
6. Assess the process against proven standards. Document the process. Educate and reeducate as needed.
7. Begin the process again. Continually measure and identify areas for improvement.

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60
Q

What is a resource for evidence-based clinical practice guidelines?

a. National Guidelines Clearinghouse
b. Privacy Rights Clearinghouse
c. American Medical Guidelines Association
d. American Medical Association

A

a. National Guidelines Clearinghouse

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61
Q

Which factor(s) determine credit worthiness?

a. Capital, collateral, creativity
b. Character, capacity, capital
c. Capacity, collateral, commitment
d. None of the above

A

b. Character, capacity, capital

Character—the borrower’s reputation and honesty.
Capacity—the borrower’s business experience and know-how.
Capital—the borrower’s ability to meet loan payments.
Collateral—assets that can be liquidated in the event of default.

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62
Q

An advantage of leasing includes:

a. Leaves credit untouched
b. Equipment is not a facility asset
c. No finance charges
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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63
Q

Key elements of a pro forma document include:

a. Projected balance sheet
b. Income projections
c. Break-even point
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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64
Q

SBA stands for:

a. Society for the Benefit of America
b. Small Business Alliance
c. Small Business Administration
d. Securities, Benefits, Assets

A

c. Small Business Administration

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65
Q

Ways to identify financial resources include all of the following except:

a. Investor assessment
b. Forecasting revenue
c. Forecasting profits
d. Financial/historical analysis

A

b. Forecasting revenue

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66
Q

Business ratios include:

a. Profit margin
b. Days in accounts receivable
c. Current ratio
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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67
Q

To develop a seasonality index, use all of the following steps except:
a. Calculate volume data by month for past 3 years
b. Calculate the average volume for each week over the 3 year period
c. Add the average volumes together and divide by 12 for average monthly
volume
d. Divide each month’s average volume by the average monthly volume to
get each month’s seasonal index

A

b. Calculate the average volume for each week over the 3 year period

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68
Q

Resources include all of the following except:

a. Human
b. Marketing
c. Technical
d. Financial

A

b. Marketing

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69
Q

The two most common sources of equity capital are angel investors and
venture capital firms.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

Equity Capital—Equity capital is funds given to a business in exchange for a share
of the ownership. Angel investors are wealthy individuals who invest in businesses of high growth potential with the expectation of high returns on the investment

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70
Q

Any project should offer the following return on investment percentage:

a. 10% to 20%
b. 25% to 35%
c. 35% to 45%
d. 45% to 55%

A

b. 25% to 35%

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71
Q

The human resources of a facility are the most important factor in the success
of a strategic plan.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

The technological resources of a facility are an important factor

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72
Q

Alternative technology resources include:

a. Forecasting
b. Purchasing
c. Sharing
d. Both B & C

A

b. Purchasing

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73
Q

Some advantages in hiring temporary workers include all of the following
except:
a. A cost effective option
b. Provides opportunity for employee evaluation prior to long term
commitment
c. Helps in meeting short term demands
d. Gives skilled workers flexibility

A

c. Helps in meeting short term demands

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74
Q

Question(s) to ask key staffing agencies include:

a. What is the agency’s pricing strategy?
b. What is the typical age range of personnel?
c. What benefits does the agency provide to its workers?
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

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75
Q

The request for qualifications (RFQ) process includes:

a. Using word of mouth for solicitation purposes
b. Selecting the candidates
c. Ranking the candidates
d. Both B & C

A

d. Both B & C

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76
Q

The “work-in-progress “staff members are the most abundant category in the
workplace for analyzing internal human resources.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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77
Q

Selecting an outsourcing vendor involves several phases, including:

a. Negotiating with the chosen vendor
b. Narrowing the selection based on the proposals
c. Defining needs and expectations
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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78
Q

Rising stars are:
a. Individuals who climbed the corporate ladder quickly
b. Individuals who are successful at what they do because they are highly
motivated
c. Individuals who tolerate their jobs
d. Individuals chosen to educate others because of their superior intellects

A

b. Individuals who are successful at what they do because they are highly
motivated

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79
Q 
To identify an employee who would be a great match to the needs of a project,
use:
a. Performance review process
b. Personnel records
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
A

c. Both A & B

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80
Q

The most common motivator(s) for rising stars are:

a. Challenges
b. Less responsibilities
c. Acknowledgement/prestige
d. Both A & B

A

a. Challenges

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81
Q

CPT stands for:

a. Current procedural trends
b. Current productivity trends
c. Current process terminology
d. Current procedural terminology

A

d. Current procedural terminology

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82
Q

Identifying financial and technological resources is extremely important in a
strategic plan, but incorporation of the _______ factor is also crucial.
a. Economic
b. Labor
c. Human
d. Marketing

A

c. Human

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83
Q 
What can reignite the fire in some employees and help with recruitment and
retention?
a. Financial gains
b. New responsibilities
c. Instant recognition
d. Career advancement
A

b. New responsibilities

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84
Q

The disadvantages of leasing include all of the following except:

a. No tax breaks
b. Lack of ownership
c. Need to make lease payments even if equipment is not in use
d. Substantial costs in finance charges

A

a. No tax breaks

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85
Q

The estimate of total startup capital provided by angel investors in the US is:

a. 55%
b. 60%
c. 75%
d. 80%

A

d. 80%

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86
Q

Why is it important to gain a clearer perspective about your customers before
entering into the strategic planning process?
a. The consumer provides direction for the planning process
b. The consumer’s perspective provides the attitudes, behaviors, wants,
and specific needs of the market
c. The perspective is one element of understanding the market
d. All of the above
x

A

b. The consumer’s perspective provides the attitudes, behaviors, wants,
and specific needs of the market

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87
Q 
When conducting any market research, it is important to focus on the following
key elements:
a. Project issues
b. Project objectives
c. Customers
d. Competitors
A

c. Customers

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88
Q 
When conducting any market research, it is important to focus on the following
key elements:
a. Project issues
b. Project objectives
c. Customers
d. Competitors
A

c. Customers

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89
Q

Market research can be gleaned using two principal methods:

a. Primary and secondary research
b. Qualitative research and surveys
c. Demographics and attitudinal research
d. Competitive overview and informatics

A

a. Primary and secondary research

Primary research
involves collecting data about the customer by way of surveys, personal interviews,
observation, and focus groups.

Secondary research is conducted using studies
that have already been performed and published, such as governmental studies,
technologic publications, political issues, legislation, business reports, and trade
publications.

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90
Q

Secondary market research provides information regarding:
a. Review any existing data, studies, plans, or research
b. Political, economic, sociocultural, and technological factors
c. Demographics, payer type, national utilization, and referral base for
general oncology
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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91
Q

Evaluating an internal environment consists of conducting a preliminary SWOT

analysis. Where in the organization does this begin?
a. Operational staff
b. Managerial staff
c. Top leadership/owners
d. Staff radiologists

A

c. Top leadership/owners

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92
Q

When evaluating the patient “customer” segment, understanding their values
and religion is not an integral part of the evaluation process.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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93
Q

The following specific information is needed to proceed with the planning of a new facility, except:

a. Market research (including general demographics, growth trends, and physician population)
b. Perspective on the market’s key referral drivers and service demands
c. Internal assessment to determine operational efficiency
d. An understanding of the referral sources’ relationships with current service providers

A

c. Internal assessment to determine operational efficiency

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94
Q

Competitors’ news stories and press releases are critical elements of the strategic
planning process.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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95
Q

The following components are elements of the preparation phase, except for:

a. Determining sample plan and size
b. Preparing survey candidates
c. Determining research design
d. Designing data collection forms/questionnaires

A

b. Preparing survey candidates

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96
Q

Primary research techniques include the following except for:

a. Direct observation
b. Focus groups
c. Demographics segmented by age, gender, and health status
d. Mail, telephone, and email surveys

A

c. Demographics segmented by age, gender, and health status

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97
Q

During the primary research phase, ask the referring physician for all of the following information except:

a. Are there financial barriers to entry?
b. What are the current referral loyalties?
c. Who are the physician champions in the market?
d. Is there perceived need for a new imaging facility?

A

a. Are there financial barriers to entry?

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98
Q

Designing an effective survey tool may take the resources of an outside agency.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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99
Q

All of the following are examples of maintaining good data collection procedures, except for:

a. Perform data verification
b. Develop a method for coding the responses
c. Document all comments
d. Develop a method for developing data into useful information

A

d. Develop a method for developing data into useful information

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100
Q

Data collected should:

a. Define size of the facility
b. Identify strategic strengths and possible exam fees
c. Identify growth opportunities and referrer’s needs and demands
d. All of the above

A

c. Identify growth opportunities and referrer’s needs and demands

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101
Q

An outside research firm may best provide:

a. Objectivity in interpreting data
b. Efficient research processes
c. Formalized reporting representing data collection methods
d. SWOT analysis

A

a. Objectivity in interpreting data

Because the data are qualitative, the team uses a survey design
that includes some open-ended questions. The tool offers yes/no questions and
involves a rating system to evaluate customer satisfaction. It allows for a quick,
succinct survey that easily correlates with the objectives. These questions will
make coding responses and interpretation easier.

page 101

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102
Q

The workflow assessment requires all of the following, except:

a. Evaluating current processes
b. Tracking call queuing
c. Performance goals
d. Patient satisfaction level

A

b. Tracking call queuing

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103
Q

The internal work process should be specifically designed to:

a. Meet the needs of the staff radiologist
b. Meet the needs of each customer segment
c. Work to address busy patient processing issues
d. None of the above

A

b. Meet the needs of each customer segment

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104
Q

The preliminary SWOT analysis should:
a. Be expanded as data is acquired to develop it further
b. Continue to include key stakeholders and staff
c. Be revisited on an annual basis
d. All of the above
x

A

b. Continue to include key stakeholders and staff

page 92

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105
Q

Key objectives described through the typical research process include the following:

a. Define the problem, process, design, and development
b. Research process and function, preparation, and report
c. Define the problem, research design and preparation, functions/process, and report
d. Problem definition, external and internal analysis, research function, and report

A

c. Define the problem, research design and preparation, functions/process, and report

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106
Q

Success is defined as:

a. The achievement of something desired, planned, or attempted
b. Achieving results higher than those of competitors
c. Creating changes within an organization
d. The creation of alternative methods or processes

A

a. The achievement of something desired, planned, or attempted

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107
Q

QI stands for:

a. Quantitative improvement
b. Quality instincts
c. Quality improvement
d. Quality identifiers

A

c. Quality improvement

108
Q

In order to achieve results, one must first assess an organization’s:

a. Bottom line
b. Benchmarks
c. Delivery methods
d. Baseline

A

d. Baseline

109
Q

The primary key to success in any endeavor may be:

a. Willingness to change
b. Creating an objective relationship with results
c. Measuring appropriately
d. Understanding the competition

A

b. Creating an objective relationship with results

110
Q

One of the most significant declarations of success is to note the responses of:

a. The public
b. Patients
c. Banks
d. Stakeholders

A

d. Stakeholders

111
Q

Creating an objective relationship with results requires which set of activities?

a. Establishing a baseline, setting attainable goals, and measuring the progress toward that goal
b. Establishing a baseline, setting protocols, celebrating results
c. Establishing protocols, measuring results, improving processes
d. Measuring problems, creating processes, measuring success

A

a. Establishing a baseline, setting attainable goals, and measuring the progress toward that goal

112
Q

Defining the parameters of any program is the first step to ensuring success
and inspiring confidence in stakeholders.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

113
Q

How often should progress be measured?

a. Every week
b. At the beginning and end of the process
c. No set time, but as determined by the end state goal
d. When problems arise

A

c. No set time, but as determined by the end state goal

114
Q

Long term goals are important when looking to effect change in an organization, but not short term goals.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

long-term goals remaining in place
for a considerable time and the short-term ones subject to change.

115
Q 
A way to open conversations about what is and is not working is the use of:
A. Visual analysis
B. Group brainstorming sessions
C. Memos
D. Sticky notes
A

A. Visual analysis

116
Q

What is an effective communication tool to ensure that all team members
within are working towards a common goal?
a. Daily huddles
b. Daily rounding with staff
c. Having team members create a mission and vision statement
d. Posting departmental goals

A

c. Having team members create a mission and vision statement

117
Q

What is an effective visual communication tool used to measure quality
performance outcomes and provide evidence of the results to patients,
administration, and other customers?
a. Monthly budget report
b. Department newsletter
c. Dashboard
d. Monthly repeat rate

A

c. Dashboard

118
Q

A vision statement should answer the question, “What will success look like?”

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

119
Q

The following are all components of a mission statement except:

a. The overall purpose of the department
b. The design of the department
c. What the department does
d. What is important to the employees in the department

A

b. The design of the department

Well-crafted mission and vision statements become the glue that binds the various
parts of the imaging department together and are what drives the behaviors of the
employees toward a common goal.2

120
Q 
What is the simplest method of sharing information with team members that
encourages face to face communication?
a. Posting a memo
b. E-mail
c. Monthly staff meetings
d. Rounding with staff
A

c. Monthly staff meetings

121
Q

What are the 4 quadrants of the balanced score card?

a. Mission statement, vision statement, quality, finance
b. Customer service, mission statement, market share, finance
c. Quality, finance, customer service, mission statement
d. Quality, finance, customer service, quality of work life

A

d. Quality, finance, customer service, quality of work life

122
Q 
What is a tool for the progressive monitoring of the departmental quality
assurance performance?
a. Dashboard
b. Balanced score card
c. Strategic plan
d. Monthly report
A

a. Dashboard

123
Q

What is a tool that can be utilized to inform staff members of the department’s
monthly progress towards meeting departmental goals?
a. Dashboard
b. Balanced score card
c. Strategic plan
d. Monthly report

A

d. Monthly report

124
Q

Statistical data collection, information sharing, and communicating results are
all critical elements of a successful radiology department.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

125
Q

Some clinical quality indicators that can be tracked and reported on a dashboard include:

a. Repeat rate
b. Turnaround time
c. Radiation incidents
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

126
Q

Employee handbooks should contain:

a. Policies and procedures
b. Job descriptions
c. Rights, privileges, and benefits
d. All of the above

A

c. Rights, privileges, and benefits

127
Q

The ability to communicate in writing is a(n):

a. Art
b. Craft
c. Science
d. Both A and B

A

d. Both A and B

128
Q

A memo is defined as:

a. A short note for remembrance or reminder
b. An informed communication
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

129
Q 
The most critical documentation that administrators face is the construction and
publication of:
a. A policy or procedure
b. A memo
c. A directive
d. All of the above
A

a. A policy or procedure

130
Q 
A directive should be used to:
a. Define change in practice
b. Refine a point in policy
c. Correct a documented procedure until a new or modified procedure can
be issued
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

131
Q

Management must honestly investigate negative customer comments:
a. In order to address customer concerns and weed out poor performers in
the workforce
b. To discover internal problems through patient comments and implement
improvement in services to keep returning patients satisfied
c. To be able to identify employees responsible for poor services
d. All of the above

A

b. To discover internal problems through patient comments and implement
improvement in services to keep returning patients satisfied

132
Q

A directive:
a. Is used to promote individual communication
b. Is used only between direct lines of management
c. Is functionally the same as a memo
d. Has the expression of authority behind it and requires the support of
administration and all upper management

A

d. Has the expression of authority behind it and requires the support of
administration and all upper management

A directive is a formal communication addressed to a larger audience within
an organization. It can be defined as “a general instruction or order issued
authoritatively.”3

133
Q

When communicating, it is essential to know the:

a. Audience and possible responses
b. Intended message and possible responses
c. Intended message and intended audience
d. Intended message, intended audience, and possible responses

A

c. Intended message and intended audience

134
Q

A well written policy is:

a. A crucial senior administration expectation
b. An important management tool
c. Crucial for outlining staff behavior
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

135
Q

Organizational and department policies:

a. Are basically the same
b. Have different points of focus
c. Are complimentary to each other
d. Can frequently be in conflict with each other

A

c. Are complimentary to each other

136
Q

As perpetual organizational documents, policy and procedure manuals must be
continually reviewed and modified to:
a. Ensure appropriate outcomes stemming from changes in political
environments, change in technology, and other factors
b. Please accrediting bodies
c. Create confusion for the staff
d. Make administrators productive

A

a. Ensure appropriate outcomes stemming from changes in political
environments, change in technology, and other factors

137
Q

Memos should never be addressed to specific individuals for specific purposes,
but should be intended for group communication only.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Memos should be addressed to specific individuals for specific purposes. Radiology
administrators may address memos to their management staff. Supervisors might
send a memo to members of their direct line staff

138
Q

Communication is an exchange of ideas that is made up of:

a. Formation, transmission, response, feedback
b. Initiation, transmission, reception, feedback
c. Delivery, response, rebuttal
d. Formation, delivery, reception, rebuttal

A

b. Initiation, transmission, reception, feedback

139
Q

A policy or procedure:

a. Is a principle, plan, or course of action
b. Can be pursued by a government, organization, or individual
c. Expresses wise, expedient, or prudent conduct or management
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

140
Q

An employee handbook is a(n):
a. Method of introducing newly hired personnel to the organization
b. Outline of the job functions specific to the role of new employee
c. Reference document, but does not include principles of general public
information
d. All of the above

A

a. Method of introducing newly hired personnel to the organization

141
Q

A new employee looking to review the organization’s mission would reference:

a. The policies and procedures manual
b. The HR Web site
c. Historical management directives
d. The employee handbook

A

d. The employee handbook

142
Q

Transmission is the sending of information, a communication, or the causing of
information to pass from one person to another.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

143
Q

Newsletters have value because:
a. Testimonials are repeated by patients to family members
b. Publications with personal testimonials of positive outcomes are effective
in developing public awareness
c. Loyal word of mouth communications are a valuable marketing tool
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

144
Q

In printed communication, the message should be:
a. Presented in a format appropriate to the content and intended audience
b. Clear and mostly complete
c. Structured to allow the author a wide latitude for answering questions
associated with the message
d. All of the above

A

a. Presented in a format appropriate to the content and intended audience

145
Q

In reviewing of a function for which a policy and procedure is to be developed,
an important question to ask is:
a. Has the issue been addressed in prior memos or directives?
b. Is there new legislation or regulatory mandates that need to be
addressed?
c. Is the function being done by the right staff in the proper manner?
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

146
Q

Conversations on a cell phone should be avoided:

a. When driving using an approved hands free device
b. When discussing confidential information in public
c. During work hours
d. Whenever possible

A

b. When discussing confidential information in public

147
Q

Using a “blind copy” or “bcc” in an email is recommended etiquette if:
a. You always want to keep someone in the loop regardless of the excess
in email traffic
b. Other recipients understand that someone has been included in the bcc
field
c. The bcc recipient is aware not to reply all when receiving the email
d. You want to see if the recipient actually read your email

A

c. The bcc recipient is aware not to reply all when receiving the email

148
Q

Using all capital letters in an email:

a. Is acceptable etiquette
b. Can be taken as passive
c. Will be ignored
d. Can be interpreted as shouting

A

d. Can be interpreted as shouting

149
Q

Many people can spend more time on email than actually conducting business.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

150
Q

Electronic folders on a shared network drive are not appropriate for:

a. Distribution of staff reports
b. A repository for human resources forms
c. Delivery of results to patients
d. Collaboration on task force project documents

A

c. Delivery of results to patients

151
Q

A company intranet is used to:

a. Distribute information to patients
b. Communicate with the community
c. Inform employees of useful information
d. Search for outside job applicants

A

c. Inform employees of useful information

152
Q 
Which of the following is not something a patient will find useful on your Web
site?
a. Details of specific exam preparations
b. Lack of adequate contact information
c. Directions and maps to your location
d. Answers to frequently asked questions
A

b. Lack of adequate contact information

153
Q

A facility’s Web site is not useful for:

a. Patients who have common questions
b. Physicians who need to view results
c. Members of the community who want to keep up to date with marketing activities
d. Distribution of departmental reports to directors

A

d. Distribution of departmental reports to directors

154
Q

What is the first step in setting up a Web site?

a. Adding promotion
b. Seeing what other facilities have done
c. Keeping the site simple, direct, and informative
d. Carefully reviewing the content

A

b. Seeing what other facilities have done

155
Q

Which of the following is not a criterion pertinent to evaluating a Web site
developer?
a. The programming language they use
b. The type of support available
c. How the firm will get you the best search engine ranking
d. The cost and charge structure

A

a. The programming language they use

156
Q

The first step in a marketing communication effort should begin with a:

a. Business plan
b. Capital plan
c. Budget plan
d. Communications plan

A

d. Communications plan

157
Q

Advertising is a paid placement of a message in a wide range of mass or
targeted media.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

158
Q

What can be an effective way to reach multiple target audiences at once, but
can be expensive in terms of staff time and money?
a. Press release
b. Special event
c. Seminar
d. Focus group

A

b. Special event

159
Q

The four elements in determining whether to advertise and in what media are:

a. Reach, frequency, appropriateness, influence
b. Frequency, appropriateness, influence, attitude
c. Reach, frequency, being memorable, appropriateness
d. Appropriateness, influence, attitude, execution

A

c. Reach, frequency, being memorable, appropriateness

Reach. number of people who will read, see, or hear
Frequency. advertising must be repeated many times.
Being memorable. an advertisement’s message must stand out as something worth remembering
Appropriateness. appropriate to the advertiser’s goal and the target audience

160
Q

Print, television, and radio are key characteristics of:

a. Media
b. Seminars
c. Workshops
d. Programs

A

a. Media

161
Q

The well thought out marketing plan will reduce what kind of mistakes?

a. Costly
b. Long-term
c. Short-term
d. Consultant

A

a. Costly

162
Q

A set of documents providing the media with the foundational information they need to know about an organization in order to write a story is called:

a. Op-ed
b. Press kit
c. Press release
d. Guest editorials

A

b. Press kit

Op-ed. letters to the editor and guest editorials

Press release. packaged article sent by a business or organization to a number
of local or regional media outlets.

163
Q

The communication plan element pertaining to how it will be achieved, by whom, and by when is called:

a. Evaluation tool
b. Objective
c. Implementation plan
d. Key message

A

c. Implementation plan

Objectives are clear, concise statements of how the goals will be achieved.
Key message are communications messages of success

164
Q

The primary advantage of advertising is the level of:

a. Expense
b. Expertise
c. Control
d. Collaboration

A

c. Control

165
Q

What involves evaluating opinion and attitudes, identifying ways to align the
business, and carrying out a program that achieves understanding?
a. Headlines
b. Public relations
c. Foundation relations
d. Public interest

A

b. Public relations

166
Q

Most of the meaning (93%) in face-to-face communication is derived from:

a. Spoken words
b. How words are said coupled with other sounds
c. Body language exclusively
d. Sources other than spoken words

A

d. Sources other than spoken words

7% words that are spoken,
38% how we say those words and any sounds we make,
55% nonverbal or body language

167
Q

Components of face-to-face communication are:

a. Voice, language, tempo
b. Body language, culture, physical and mental impairments
c. None of the above
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

168
Q

Body language is:

a. Body movements and gestures used with or in lieu of words
b. More prevalent in some societies
c. Sign language
d. Not used in some societies

A

a. Body movements and gestures used with or in lieu of words

169
Q

Empathetic listening is:
a. Listening because you have experienced the same thing as the speaker
b. Comes from Stephen Covey’s 7 Habits of Highly Effective People and is
used to listen with both heart and mind
c. Listening well enough to complete the speaker’s sentences
d. A “quick fix” for the speaker’s problem

A

b. Comes from Stephen Covey’s 7 Habits of Highly Effective People and is
used to listen with both heart and mind

170
Q

The “power position” to demonstrate hierarchy is sitting behind a desk.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

171
Q

Every meeting should have:

a. Food
b. Tables and chairs
c. An agenda, facilitator, start and end times
d. Goals

A

c. An agenda, facilitator, start and end times

172
Q

When presenting a booth for a health fair:

a. Remove PHI from all images presented
b. Involve a staff member with excellent customer service skills
c. Provide handouts in English and any other prevalent language
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

173
Q

The best presentation type for school-aged children is:

a. Lecture
b. Show and tell
c. Interactive
d. Writing on the board

A

c. Interactive

174
Q

On the phone listeners can tell:

a. If the speaker is making faces
b. If the speaker is smiling
c. If the speaker is multi-tasking
d. None of the above

A

b. If the speaker is smiling

175
Q

The best option for medical translation is:

a. An adult family member
b. A certified translator
c. Any relative
d. A staff member who knows the language

A

b. A certified translator

176
Q

A preconceived notion is:

a. Something one has believed since childhood
b. Stereotyping
c. A way of listening through a filter of judgment and past experiences
d. Prejudice

A

c. A way of listening through a filter of judgment and past experiences

177
Q

The room arrangement best suited for brainstorming is:

a. Classroom style with a scribe and facilitator
b. Conference table
c. Round tables with a scribe and facilitator
d. Square tables

A

c. Round tables with a scribe and facilitator

178
Q

When speaking, take into account the _________ of the listener:

a. Eye contact
b. Listening skills
c. Body position
d. Culture, dialect, and language difference

A

d. Culture, dialect, and language difference

179
Q

An imaging administrator’s role is to:

a. Be in charge of imaging
b. Be an ambassador for the department, a facilitator between employees, and a model of expected behaviors
c. Enhance communication between radiologists and staff
d. Work late hours

A

b. Be an ambassador for the department, a facilitator between employees, and a model of expected behaviors

180
Q

Radiologists and administrators should be:

a. Adversaries
b. Competitors
c. Partners
d. At odds

A

c. Partners

181
Q

When interviewing a candidate for employment, eye contact:

a. Is one indicator of how engaged the candidate is in the process
b. Tells if the candidate is really interested in the position
c. Is an indicator of intelligence
d. Indicates if a candidate will be good with patients

A

a. Is one indicator of how engaged the candidate is in the process

182
Q

One of our most complex interactions is:

a. Webinars
b. Teleconferences
c. Hiring
d. Face-to-face communication

A

d. Face-to-face communication

183
Q

When visiting a referring physician’s office:

a. Give your business card to the receptionist
b. Catch up on phone calls while waiting
c. Pay attention to the waiting room and reschedule if it is busy
d. Bring a food basket for the staff

A

c. Pay attention to the waiting room and reschedule if it is busy

184
Q

Synchronous communication:

a. Can be face-to-face or electronic
b. Must occur in the same room
c. Has to be conducted in the same time zone
d. Involves a clock

A

a. Can be face-to-face or electronic

185
Q

When planning an imaging department or radiology partner meeting:

a. Ask the medical staff office to plan it
b. Prepare an agenda with the chairperson, take minutes, and order food
c. Use a classroom style set up
d. None of the above

A

b. Prepare an agenda with the chairperson, take minutes, and order food

186
Q

The radiology administrator will never compare objective data to subjective data.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Objective data are data on charts and check sheets completed by staff members when they perform a procedure or complete a task.

Subjective data are information received from patient surveys and feedback from
suggestion boxes, such as perceived satisfaction or feelings.

187
Q

Why should a verbal interview be conducted?

a. To gather subjective information
b. To find anyone who is negative
c. To remove doubt
d. To plan the success party

A

a. To gather subjective information

188
Q

The implementation of an information systems project begins with:

a. Establishment of a framework
b. Choosing a scribe
c. Reviewing suppliers
d. Earning financial backing

A

a. Establishment of a framework

189
Q

When formulating a baseline analysis, what is a recommended step?

a. Analyze workflow
b. Diagram current state of operational systems
c. Diagram future state of operational systems
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

190
Q 
For a baseline analysis in the evaluation of an information system, what joint
starting point(s) must be addressed?
a. Network capability and infrastructure
b. Availability of capital funds
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
A

c. Both A and B

191
Q

What must be done after the workflow and operational systems analysis?

a. Develop a new workflow
b. Determine price
c. Submit architectural changes
d. Nothing

A

a. Develop a new workflow

After workflow and operational systems analyses and flowcharts have been made,
the next step in the development of a baseline analysis for technology changes is to
update the previous work with the new functions or new processes obtained from
the changes in technology. A new process workflow will be developed to outline the
new process and show how the new technology adds or deletes steps in the existing
process (Figure 12.3).

page 189

192
Q

What does IRR stand for?

a. Intellectual rate of return
b. Investigational return removal
c. Internal rate of return
d. Interesting record retrieval

A

c. Internal rate of return

The IRR is the discount rate of a capital expense, where the discounted cashflows equal the original expense of the investment. IRR analysis provides an answer in terms of percentage

193
Q

How is net present value (NPV) determined?

a. NPV = (cash flow x present value) - invested amount
b. NPV = investments + value
c. NPV = (cash on hand - investment) / value
d. NPV = value – investment

A

a. NPV = (cash flow x present value) - invested amount

NPV analysis identifies the value of the present-day investment dollars, using an
estimate for inflation and evaluation o f the dollar, in future net cashflows, The NPV analysis is commonly used for capital expenditures,

194
Q

How long should it take for a return on investment be realized?

a. 8 – 10 years
b. 3 – 5 years
c. 12 months or less
d. 1 – 2 years

A

b. 3 – 5 years

195
Q

What type of analysis must be completed pre-project?

a. PACS
b. RIS
c. TQR
d. SWOT

A

d. SWOT

196
Q

Which of the options below is a hurdle to broader adoption of healthcare IT?

a. Consolidated infrastructure
b. Standardization of data
c. Clinician and patient access to information
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

197
Q

Radiology does not need to plan their IT investments to provide broad inter-department and extra-institutional electronic data access to imaging information.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

198
Q

Radiology information systems (RIS) provide radiology departments:

a. Reporting to reconcile incomplete processes on a real-time basis
b. Ability to integrate seamlessly with the electronic medical record
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

199
Q

Speech recognition systems, where implemented, have not proven to be
successful in eliminating the transcription function.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

200
Q

What is the value of a speech recognition implementation?

a. Reductions in report turnaround time
b. Competitive advantage with referring clinicians
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B

201
Q

Imaging IT implementations force all the changes in clinician workflow needed to
improve operations.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

202
Q

Deriving the optimum value from IT investments is dependent upon which of the
following actions?
a. Signing up for an ASP, the vendor will do everything that’s needed
b. Add time and resources early in the project regardless of vendor approach
c. Use vendor resources for implementation to minimize the impact on staff
d. None of the above

A

b. Add time and resources early in the project regardless of vendor approach

203
Q

An imaging IT procurement should involve a project sponsor and a steering committee made up of:
a. Leadership, IT experts, key radiologist stakeholders, and user groups
b. Leadership, IT experts, customers of the solution, key radiologist
stakeholders, and The Joint Commission
c. Leadership, IT experts, customers of the solution, key radiologist
stakeholders, and user groups
d. None of the above

A

a. Leadership, IT experts, key radiologist stakeholders, and user groups

204
Q

RIS systems add value to the clinical and financial function of radiology departments by:

a. Flagging and reporting incomplete process queues
b. Automating the billing process
c. Managing equipment resource scheduling
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

205
Q 
What are the key project task teams that should be involved in successful imaging
IT implementation?
a. Project manager
b. Key users
c. Technical team
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

206
Q

What is important in developing the strategy and scope of an imaging IT project?

a. Develop a strategy to minimize data silos
b. Determine how it can impact long term goals
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

a. Develop a strategy to minimize data silos

207
Q

What is the best option for getting to know what vendors offer?

a. Read marketing brochures
b. Ask vendors to do a scripted demonstration of their products
c. Get a detailed price quote right away for everything they offer
d. None of the above

A

b. Ask vendors to do a scripted demonstration of their products

208
Q

It is a good idea when evaluating vendors to:

a. Conduct site visits
b. Analyze the financial and technical reviews together
c. Not focus on multi-year cost projections
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

209
Q

What types of information should be gathered during the finalist site visits?

a. Specific experiences with relevant features and functions of the system
b. How the system impacts radiologist workflow
c. System integration flexibility to clinical systems
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

210
Q

What are life cycle costs ?
a. (Capital investment required to keep the system current for X years)
+ (Maintenance and other operating costs of the system for X years)
b. (Technology required to keep the system current for X years)
+ (Maintenance and other operating costs of the system for X years)
c. (Capital investment required to keep the system current for X years)
+ (Staffing costs for X years)
d. None of the above

A

a. (Capital investment required to keep the system current for X years)
+ (Maintenance and other operating costs of the system for X years)

211
Q

The final system configuration and price quote should be prepared by the vendor:

a. As part of the vendor’s initial bid package
b. Whenever the organization can get the best price
c. As part of contract negotiations
d. Immediately after signing the contract

A

c. As part of contract negotiations

212
Q

When negotiating vendor contracts, organizations should:

a. Get the very best price
b. Address pricing terms and implementation support
c. Accept the vendor’s standard terms and conditions
d. Assume an adversarial position with the vendor

A

b. Address pricing terms and implementation support

page 212

213
Q

The implementation team is composed of the following:
a. The project manager, key user groups, vendor implementation team, IT
implementation team, and individuals from the planning working groups
b. The vendor’s implementation staff
c. The organization’s implementation staff
d. The project manager, key user groups, vendor implementation team, IT
implementation team

A

a. The project manager, key user groups, vendor implementation team, IT
implementation team, and individuals from the planning working groups

214
Q

The implementation project plan includes:

a. The tasks required for the vendor to train the users
b. Precursor tasks to evaluate current workflow and map changes needed
c. The tasks required by the organization to design testing protocols
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

215
Q

The long term operations and support of imaging IT systems includes:

a. An increasing separation from the vendor
b. Less involvement from IT staff
c. Routine back up and disaster recovery activities
d. All of the above

A

c. Routine back up and disaster recovery activities

216
Q

Implementation of policies and procedures to prevent, detect, contain, and
correct security violations is an example of a(n):
a. Administrative safeguard
b. Physical safeguard
c. Technical safeguard
d. None of the above

A

a. Administrative safeguard

217
Q

An example of a communication protocol is:

a. FAA
b. DICOM
c. BR549
d. All of the above

A

b. DICOM

218
Q

Removable tapes or optical media that is stored on a shelf and manually
retrieved is said to be what kind of storage?
a. Online
b. Fine line
c. Offline
d. All of the above

A

c. Offline

Offline storage is removable tape or optical
media that are stored on a shelf and manually retrieved

Online storage,commonly used for active files,puts data on magnetic hard drives,
which allows for access within milliseconds.

Nearline storage historically incorporated a tape or optical “jukebox,”

At present,t he preferred storage setup in many imaging facilities with PACS is
online for active files and nearline for disaster recovery backup files and protection
from online technological obsolescence. The nearline system is disk based,usin g
hard drives rather than a jukebox.

219
Q

The IHE connectathon helps vendors test new profiles for system interoperability.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

220
Q

In a system that is planned to be continuously functional for 1 year, 99%
reliability would be down more than how much annually?
a. 10 minutes
b. 10 hours
c. 87 hours
d. 1000 hours

A

c. 87 hours

24hours x 365 days = 8760 hours x .01 = 87%

221
Q

The cost of an unreliable system can be quantified by:

a. Estimating lost labor hours
b. Employee frustration
c. Patient safety
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

222
Q 
In IT, what is a series of points and nodes, interconnected by communication
Paths?
a. IVP
b. Network
c. Transducer
d. Risk management
8. All DICOM compatible devices
A

b. Network

223
Q

All DICOM compatible devices must provide a:

a. HSG
b. Inflatable BE tip
c. GPS
d. Conformance statement

A

d. Conformance statement

describes the functionality of the device, such as which compression technology and media are supported.

224
Q

The Security Rule includes sets of standards covering administrative safeguards, physical safeguards, and _______________ safeguards.

a. Technical
b. Dose index
c. Step up transformer
d. All the above

A

a. Technical

225
Q

HL7 focuses on the interface requirements of the:

a. Lab department only
b. Radiology department only
c. Entire healthcare organization
d. None of the above

A

c. Entire healthcare organization

226
Q

If film library operations are not organized, the following issues will result:

a. Loss of storage space (analog), too much disc space (electronic)
b. Upset senior administration (analog), upset physicians (electronic)
c. Lost film records (analog), lost “orphaned” images (electronic)
d. Loss of confidence (analog), improved relations (electronic)

A

c. Lost film records (analog), lost “orphaned” images (electronic)

227
Q

Release of information to those involved with a patient’s continued care is considered:

a. A need to know
b. A serious violation
c. Just being nosey
d. A flag and more information is needed

A

a. A need to know

228
Q

Violating HIPAA guidelines and regulations can result in:

a. A slap on the hand and a written warning
b. No serious issues or violations
c. A letter generated to senior administration
d. Fines and possible prison sentence

A

d. Fines and possible prison sentence

229
Q

When converting to a filmless, electronic environment:

a. You do not need image management as everything goes to long term storage
b. It is still necessary to manage image production
c. It is no longer necessary to manage film images
d. Film file personnel become very busy

A

b. It is still necessary to manage image production

230
Q

True redundancy in an electronic, filmless environment means:

a. Duplicating processes and protocols
b. Tracing the steps in film management
c. Replacing servers and archives in the case of failures
d. Having duplicate servers and duplicate archives

A

d. Having duplicate servers and duplicate archives

231
Q

Having redundancy provides:

a. Repeat processes
b. Added steps to the system
c. Increased openings for “hackers”
d. Disaster recovery

A

d. Disaster recovery

232
Q

Which of the following is not true in an electronic, filmless environment?
a. Lost images become a thing of the past
b. Lost images are still possible and must be managed by appropriately
assigned staff members
c. Lost images are easily found
d. Lost images never happen in PACS systems

A

a. Lost images become a thing of the past

233
Q

In an electronic, filmless environment, “hanging protocols” are developed by:

a. Staff technologists
b. Radiologists
c. Imaging director
d. PACS administrator

A

b. Radiologists

234
Q

In a film, analog environment it is essential that the movement of images for the interpretation becomes:

a. Happenstance
b. Diffuse
c. Efficient
d. Inefficient

A

c. Efficient

235
Q

The design of the film library viewing area should:

a. Enhance the referring physician’s workflow
b. Be beneficial to the radiologist
c. Should mimic the radiologist’s hanging protocol
d. Should frustrate and upset the referring physicians

A

a. Enhance the referring physician’s workflow

236
Q

An image becomes “orphaned” when:
a. No one wants to claim the image as being theirs
b. PACS loses the image and then destroys its file
c. The film is not interpreted by a radiologist
d. Images obtained after the image file has been opened for reading and
cannot be placed into that same examination file

A

d. Images obtained after the image file has been opened for reading and
cannot be placed into that same examination file

237
Q

In an electronic, filmless environment images are:

a. Indestructible
b. Not susceptible to damage of any kind
c. Still susceptible to damage by fire and water
d. Safe from disaster

A

c. Still susceptible to damage by fire and water

238
Q

Before loaning images or image file jackets to patients, staff members are required to obtain:

a. A photo for verification on later visits
b. A signed affidavit
c. The patient’s first born child
d. Two sources of identification

A

d. Two sources of identification

239
Q

What continues to be the core function of the film library in both analog and electronic configurations?

a. Losing and finding
b. Fetching and prefetching
c. Storing and losing
d. Running and hiding

A

b. Fetching and prefetching

240
Q

In an analog film environment, when people need to locate an image, they look to the:

a. Film library
b. Radiologist
c. Physician
d. Senior administrator

A

a. Film library

241
Q

The face to face interview is one of the most important tools in the selection of:

a. Prospective candidates
b. Ruling out those who tell jokes
c. The best medical equipment
d. Appropriate CT parts

A

a. Prospective candidates

242
Q

By efficiently and accurately providing access to images, staff members:

a. Participate in an excellent cultural environment
b. Find a way to frustrate local physicians
c. Run the risk of unhappy customers
d. Make an important contribution to quality patient care

A

d. Make an important contribution to quality patient care

243
Q

HIPAA guidelines mandate appropriate disposal of images, corresponding
reports, and patient information.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

244
Q

Relationships with vendors who deal with patient information must have:

a. A deal that is based on a handshake
b. Information shared by everyone
c. HIPAA vendor agreements
d. HIPAA partnership agreements

A

d. HIPAA partnership agreements

245
Q

An an electronic, filmless image management environment, distributing images is done by what multi-media formats?

a. Vinyl or film
b. CD or DVD
c. iPod or video tape
d. 8mm film or 8 track tape

A

b. CD or DVD

246
Q

Organization files do not have a direct impact on patient care.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

Unlike radiology images, organization files do not have a direct impact on patient care and most likely will not contribute to revenues. If floor space is limited, storage of these files will be a significant issue.

247
Q

How many records will never be looked at once they are filed?

a. 98%
b. 85%
c. 50%
d. 15%

A

b. 85%

248
Q

Records management involves the systematic control of the:

a. Creation, maintenance, and use of records
b. Maintenance, use, and disposition of records
c. Creation, maintenance, use, and disposition of records
d. None of the above

A

c. Creation, maintenance, use, and disposition of records

249
Q

What two things result when information is available when and where it is wanted?

a. Efficiency and productivity
b. Pay increases and promotions
c. Chaos and disruption
d. Increase in staffing and reduction in volume

A

a. Efficiency and productivity

250
Q

Effective records management offers the following benefits except:

a. Staff can deliver services consistently and equitably
b. The rights of employees, patients, and the organization are protected
c. Continuity is ensured in the event of a disaster
d. Consistently lost, misfiled, or misplaced records

A

a. Staff can deliver services consistently and equitably

251
Q

Most working files include what four items?

a. Name, date, time, and location
b. Action items, project items, reading items, and purge items
c. Label, envelope, signatures, and receipts
d. Heading, sub-heading, memos, and invoices

A

b. Action items, project items, reading items, and purge items

252
Q

Of the files that will be used after they are filed, what percentage of use occurs within the first year of filing?

a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 85%
d. 98%

A

d. 98%

85% of all records will never be looked at once they are filed. Of the remaining 15% that will be used, 98% of use occurs within the first year of filing

253
Q

What are vital records?

a. All essential records should a disaster occur
b. All personnel records should a disaster occur
c. Proofs of capital purchases should a disaster occur
d. Non-essential records of the business should a disaster occur

A

a. All essential records should a disaster occur

Vital records are records that are essential to the facility’s operation; should a natural or man-made disaster occur. They include incorporation documents, payroll records, insurance policies, inventory lists, supplier lists, and contracts.

254
Q

How long should budget records be kept before being disposed?

a. 3 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. Forever

A

b. 7 years

255
Q

What is the best known filing system?

a. Alphabetical
b. Numerical
c. Geographical
d. Chronological

A

a. Alphabetical

256
Q

The following criteria are used to base a retention schedule except:

a. Legal needs
b. Fiscal needs
c. Archive needs
d. Personal needs

A

d. Personal needs

257
Q

Clinical records include the following except:

a. Patient information
b. Radiology reports
c. Patient charges
d. Personnel files

A

d. Personnel files

258
Q

Nonclinical records include the following except:

a. Personnel files
b. Patient information
c. General business documents
d. Corporate office documents

A

b. Patient information

259
Q

What are the 2 basic types of paper files?

a. Temporary or working files and permanent or archival files
b. Original documents and copies
c. Matte and glossy
d. High volume paper and carbon paper

A

a. Temporary or working files and permanent or archival files

260
Q

The most commonly accepted approach to organize emails in electronic folders is:

a. Facility, administrator, project
b. Time, date, person
c. Person, project, department
d. Personal, business, and pleasure

A

c. Person, project, department

261
Q

Archival files are a permanent part of the organization.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

262
Q

Facilities with many records may want to invest in which of the following to improve tracking of files?

a. Multiple secretaries
b. Bar coding technology
c. Larger file cabinets
d. Library storage

A

b. Bar coding technology

263
Q

Without what type of schedule will files flow into all available space and make accessing records inefficient?

a. File schedule
b. Holiday schedule
c. Vacation schedule
d. Retention schedule

A

d. Retention schedule

264
Q

The 3 stages of records management are:

a. Alphabetize, legalize, enumeration
b. Typing of labels, editing files, printing and distribution
c. Orientation of files, maintenance and use, disposition
d. Creation and receipt of files, maintenance and use, disposition

A

d. Creation and receipt of files, maintenance and use, disposition

265
Q

According to experts, what percentage of all records in an office and what percentage in storage can and should be destroyed?

a. 60% (office), 40% (storage)
b. 50% (office), 50% (storage)
c. 30% (office), 40% (storage)
d. 70% (office), 30% (storage)

A

c. 30% (office), 40% (storage)

Storage is expensive and often consumes
potential revenue-producing space (that is, the film library). Furthermore, no purpose is served in keeping documents that are no longer useful for daily business
operations.

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