Human Genes Group 9

Question 1

ZNF439

Answer 1

Zinc finger protein 439 Q8NDP4 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 2

TSPAN11

Answer 2

Tetraspanin-11 (Tspan-11) A1L157 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 3

YTHDC2

Answer 3

3’-5’ RNA helicase YTHDC2 (EC 3.4.13) (YTH domain-containing protein 2) (hYTHDC2) Q9H6S0 FUNCTION: 3’-5’ RNA helicase that plays a key role in the male and female germline by promoting transition from mitotic to meiotic divisions in stem cells (, ). Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing RNAs, a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs that plays a role in the efficiency of RNA processing and stability (, ). Essential for ensuring a successful progression of the meiotic program in the germline by regulating the level of m6A-containing RNAs (By similarity). Acts by binding and promoting degradation of m6A-containing mRNAs: the 3’-5’ RNA helicase activity is required for this process and RNA degradation may be mediated by XRN1 exoribonuclease . Required for both spermatogenesis and oogenesis (By similarity).

Question 4

WNT1

Answer 4

Proto-oncogene Wnt-1 (Proto-oncogene Int-1 homolog) P04628 FUNCTION: Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors (Probable). Acts in the canonical Wnt signaling pathway by promoting beta-catenin-dependent transcriptional activation (, , , ). In some developmental processes, is also a ligand for the coreceptor RYK, thus triggering Wnt signaling (By similarity). Plays an essential role in the development of the embryonic brain and central nervous system (CNS) (By similarity). Has a role in osteoblast function, bone development and bone homeostasis (, ).

Question 5

ZNF561

Answer 5

Zinc finger protein 561 Q8N587 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 6

ZNF568

Answer 6

Zinc finger protein 568 Q3ZCX4 FUNCTION: Has transcriptional repression activity, partially through the recruitment of the corepressor TRIM28 but has also repression activity independently of this interaction. Essential during embryonic development, where it acts as direct repressor of a placental-specific transcript of IGF2 in early development and regulates convergent extension movements required for axis elongation and tissue morphogenesis in all germ layers. Also important for normal morphogenesis of extraembryonic tissues including the yolk sac, extraembryonic mesoderm and placenta. May enhance proliferation or maintenance of neural stem cells.

Question 7

WNT3A

Answer 7

Protein Wnt-3a P56704 FUNCTION: Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors (Probable). Functions in the canonical Wnt signaling pathway that results in activation of transcription factors of the TCF/LEF family (, , , ). Required for normal embryonic mesoderm development and formation of caudal somites. Required for normal morphogenesis of the developing neural tube (By similarity). Mediates self-renewal of the stem cells at the bottom on intestinal crypts (in vitro) .

Question 8

WNT5A

Answer 8

Protein Wnt-5a P41221 FUNCTION: Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Can activate or inhibit canonical Wnt signaling, depending on receptor context. In the presence of FZD4, activates beta-catenin signaling. In the presence of ROR2, inhibits the canonical Wnt pathway by promoting beta-catenin degradation through a GSK3-independent pathway which involves down-regulation of beta-catenin-induced reporter gene expression (By similarity). Suppression of the canonical pathway allows chondrogenesis to occur and inhibits tumor formation. Stimulates cell migration. Decreases proliferation, migration, invasiveness and clonogenicity of carcinoma cells and may act as a tumor suppressor . Mediates motility of melanoma cells . Required during embryogenesis for extension of the primary anterior-posterior axis and for outgrowth of limbs and the genital tubercle. Inhibits type II collagen expression in chondrocytes (By similarity).

Question 9

GGCX

Answer 9

Vitamin K-dependent gamma-carboxylase (EC 4.1.90) (Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase) (Peptidyl-glutamate 4-carboxylase) (Vitamin K gamma glutamyl carboxylase) P38435 FUNCTION: Mediates the vitamin K-dependent carboxylation of glutamate residues to calcium-binding gamma-carboxyglutamate (Gla) residues with the concomitant conversion of the reduced hydroquinone form of vitamin K to vitamin K epoxide.

Question 10

TJP2

Answer 10

Tight junction protein ZO-2 (Tight junction protein 2) (Zona occludens protein 2) (Zonula occludens protein 2) Q9UDY2 FUNCTION: Plays a role in tight junctions and adherens junctions. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell junction, adherens junction. Cell membrane .

Question 11

ZRANB2

Answer 11

Zinc finger Ran-binding domain-containing protein 2 (Zinc finger protein 265) (Zinc finger, splicing) O95218 FUNCTION: Splice factor required for alternative splicing of TRA2B/SFRS10 transcripts. May interfere with constitutive 5’-splice site selection.

Question 12

VCX2

Answer 12

Variable charge X-linked protein 2 (Variable charge protein on X with two repeats) (VCX-2r) (Variably charged protein X-B) (VCX-B) Q9H322 FUNCTION: May mediate a process in spermatogenesis or may play a role in sex ratio distortion.

Question 13

BPY2; BPY2B; BPY2C

Answer 13

Testis-specific basic protein Y 2 (Basic charge, Y-linked 2) (Variably charged protein Y 2) O14599

Question 14

ERVK-10

Answer 14

Endogenous retrovirus group K member 10 Pro protein (HERV-K10 Pro protein) (HERV-K107 Pro protein) (HERV-K_5q33.3 provirus ancestral Pro protein) (EC 3.23.50) (Protease) (Proteinase) (PR) P10265 FUNCTION: Retroviral proteases have roles in processing of the primary translation products and the maturation of the viral particle. Endogenous Pro proteins may have kept, lost or modified their original function during evolution. This endogenous protein has retained most of the characteristics of retroviral proteases.

Question 15

MYO3A

Answer 15

Myosin-IIIa (EC 2.11.1) Q8NEV4 FUNCTION: Probable actin-based motor with a protein kinase activity. Probably plays a role in vision and hearing . Required for normal cochlear hair bundle development and hearing. Plays an important role in the early steps of cochlear hair bundle morphogenesis. Influences the number and lengths of stereocilia to be produced and limits the growth of microvilli within the forming auditory hair bundles thereby contributing to the architecture of the hair bundle, including its staircase pattern. Involved in the elongation of actin in stereocilia tips by transporting the actin regulatory factor ESPN to the plus ends of actin filaments (By similarity).

Question 16

ABCC10

Answer 16

Multidrug resistance-associated protein 7 (ATP-binding cassette sub-family C member 10) Q5T3U5 FUNCTION: ATP-dependent transporter probably involved in cellular detoxification through lipophilic anion extrusion.

Question 17

MRNIP

Answer 17

MRN complex-interacting protein (MRN-interacting protein) Q6NTE8 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the cellular response to DNA damage and the maintenance of genome stability through its association with the MRN damage-sensing complex . Promotes chromatin loading and activity of the MRN complex to facilitate subsequent ATM-mediated DNA damage response signaling and DNA repair . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 18

NAA11

Answer 18

N-alpha-acetyltransferase 11 (EC 2.1.255) (N-terminal acetyltransferase complex ARD1 subunit homolog B) (hARD2) (NatA catalytic subunit Naa11) Q9BSU3 FUNCTION: Displays alpha (N-terminal) acetyltransferase activity. Proposed alternative catalytic subunit of the N-terminal acetyltransferase A (NatA) complex.

Question 19

POMZP3

Answer 19

POM121 and ZP3 fusion protein (POM-ZP3) Q6PJE2

Question 20

SLC4A1AP

Answer 20

Kanadaptin (Human lung cancer oncogene 3 protein) (HLC-3) (Kidney anion exchanger adapter protein) (Solute carrier family 4 anion exchanger member 1 adapter protein) Q9BWU0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus . Note=Mainly nuclear. Small amounts are found in the cytoplasm.

Question 21

HNRNPA0

Answer 21

Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein A0 (hnRNP A0) Q13151 FUNCTION: mRNA-binding component of ribonucleosomes. Specifically binds AU-rich element (ARE)-containing mRNAs. Involved in post-transcriptional regulation of cytokines mRNAs.

Question 22

POLR3E

Answer 22

DNA-directed RNA polymerase III subunit RPC5 (RNA polymerase III subunit C5) (DNA-directed RNA polymerase III 80 kDa polypeptide) Q9NVU0 FUNCTION: DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Specific peripheric component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. Essential for efficient transcription from both the type 2 VAI and type 3 U6 RNA polymerase III promoters. Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts, such as Epstein-Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs) induce type I interferon and NF- Kappa-B through the RIG-I pathway (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Question 23

RPE

Answer 23

Ribulose-phosphate 3-epimerase (EC 5.3.1) (Ribulose-5-phosphate-3-epimerase) Q96AT9 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the reversible epimerization of D-ribulose 5-phosphate to D-xylulose 5-phosphate.

Question 24

RAPGEF4

Answer 24

Rap guanine nucleotide exchange factor 4 (Exchange factor directly activated by cAMP 2) (Exchange protein directly activated by cAMP 2) (EPAC 2) (cAMP-regulated guanine nucleotide exchange factor II) (cAMP-GEFII) Q8WZA2 FUNCTION: Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAP1A, RAP1B and RAP2A small GTPases that is activated by binding cAMP. Seems not to activate RAB3A. Involved in cAMP-dependent, PKA-independent exocytosis through interaction with RIMS2 (By similarity).

Question 25

MRPL28

Answer 25

39S ribosomal protein L28, mitochondrial (L28mt) (MRP-L28) (Melanoma antigen p15) (Melanoma-associated antigen recognized by T-lymphocytes) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein bL28m) Q13084 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Question 26

RNASE2

Answer 26

Non-secretory ribonuclease (EC 4.1.18) (Eosinophil-derived neurotoxin) (RNase UpI-2) (Ribonuclease 2) (RNase 2) (Ribonuclease US) P10153 FUNCTION: This is a non-secretory ribonuclease. It is a pyrimidine specific nuclease with a slight preference for U. Cytotoxin and helminthotoxin. Selectively chemotactic for dendritic cells. Possesses a wide variety of biological activities. Cytoplasmic granule. Note=Matrix of eosinophil's large specific granule.

Question 27

RIPOR2

Answer 27

Rho family-interacting cell polarization regulator 2 Q9Y4F9 FUNCTION: Acts as an inhibitor of the small GTPase RHOA and plays several roles in the regulation of myoblast and hair cell differentiation, lymphocyte T proliferation and neutrophil polarization (, , , , , ). Inhibits chemokine-induced T lymphocyte responses, such as cell adhesion, polarization and migration . Involved also in the regulation of neutrophil polarization, chemotaxis and adhesion (By similarity). Required for normal development of inner and outer hair cell stereocilia within the cochlea of the inner ear (By similarity). Plays a role for maintaining the structural organization of the basal domain of stereocilia (By similarity). Involved in mechanosensory hair cell function (By similarity). Required for normal hearing .

Question 28

RABEP2

Answer 28

Rab GTPase-binding effector protein 2 (Rabaptin-5beta) Q9H5N1 FUNCTION: Plays a role in membrane trafficking and in homotypic early endosome fusion . Participates in arteriogenesis by regulating vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2/VEGFR2 cell surface expression and endosomal trafficking . By interacting with SDCCAG8, localizes to centrosomes and plays a critical role in ciliogenesis .

Question 29

RRM2B

Answer 29

Ribonucleoside-diphosphate reductase subunit M2 B (EC 1.17.1) (TP53-inducible ribonucleotide reductase M2 B) (p53-inducible ribonucleotide reductase small subunit 2-like protein) (p53R2) Q7LG56 FUNCTION: Plays a pivotal role in cell survival by repairing damaged DNA in a p53/TP53-dependent manner. Supplies deoxyribonucleotides for DNA repair in cells arrested at G1 or G2. Contains an iron-tyrosyl free radical center required for catalysis. Forms an active ribonucleotide reductase (RNR) complex with RRM1 which is expressed both in resting and proliferating cells in response to DNA damage. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus. Note=Translocates from cytoplasm to nucleus in response to DNA damage.

Question 30

PTCD3

Answer 30

Pentatricopeptide repeat domain-containing protein 3, mitochondrial (28S ribosomal protein S39, mitochondrial) (MRP-S39) (Mitochondrial small ribosomal subunit protein mS39) (Transformation-related gene 15 protein) (TRG-15) Q96EY7 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial RNA-binding protein that has a role in mitochondrial translation.

Question 31

REXO4

Answer 31

RNA exonuclease 4 (EC 3.-.-) (Exonuclease XPMC2) (Prevents mitotic catastrophe 2 protein homolog) (hPMC2) Q9GZR2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus, nucleolus .

Question 32

PTER

Answer 32

Phosphotriesterase-related protein (EC 3.-.-) (Parathion hydrolase-related protein) (hPHRP) Q96BW5

Question 33

PTF1A

Answer 33

Pancreas transcription factor 1 subunit alpha (Class A basic helix-loop-helix protein 29) (bHLHa29) (Pancreas-specific transcription factor 1a) (bHLH transcription factor p48) (p48 DNA-binding subunit of transcription factor PTF1) (PTF1-p48) Q7RTS3 FUNCTION: Transcription factor implicated in the cell fate determination in various organs. Binds to the E-box consensus sequence 5'-CANNTG-3'. Plays a role in early and late pancreas development and differentiation. Important for determining whether cells allocated to the pancreatic buds continue towards pancreatic organogenesis or revert back to duodenal fates. May be involved in the maintenance of exocrine pancreas-specific gene expression including ELA1 and amylase. Required for the formation of pancreatic acinar and ductal cells. Plays an important role in cerebellar development. Directly regulated by FOXN4 and RORC during retinal development, FOXN4-PTF1A pathway plays a central role in directing the differentiation of retinal progenitors towards horizontal and amacrine fates.

Question 34

RCBTB1

Answer 34

RCC1 and BTB domain-containing protein 1 (Chronic lymphocytic leukemia deletion region gene 7 protein) (CLL deletion region gene 7 protein) (Regulator of chromosome condensation and BTB domain-containing protein 1) Q8NDN9 FUNCTION: May be involved in cell cycle regulation by chromatin remodeling.

Question 35

RAET1E

Answer 35

Retinoic acid early transcript 1E (Lymphocyte effector toxicity activation ligand) (NKG2D ligand 4) (N2DL-4) (NKG2DL4) (RAE-1-like transcript 4) (UL16-binding protein 4) Q8TD07 FUNCTION: Binds and activates the KLRK1/NKG2D receptor, mediating natural killer cell cytotoxicity. ; Single-pass type I membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 4]: Secreted.

Question 36

PUM3

Answer 36

Pumilio homolog 3 (HBV X-transactivated gene 5 protein) (HBV XAg-transactivated protein 5) (Minor histocompatibility antigen HA-8) (HLA-HA8) Q15397 FUNCTION: Inhibits the poly(ADP-ribosyl)ation activity of PARP1 and the degradation of PARP1 by CASP3 following genotoxic stress . Binds to double-stranded RNA or DNA without sequence specificity . Involved in development of the eye and of primordial germ cells (By similarity).

Question 37

PTS

Answer 37

6-pyruvoyl tetrahydrobiopterin synthase (PTP synthase) (PTPS) (EC 4.3.12) Q03393 FUNCTION: Involved in the biosynthesis of tetrahydrobiopterin, an essential cofactor of aromatic amino acid hydroxylases. Catalyzes the transformation of 7,8-dihydroneopterin triphosphate into 6-pyruvoyl tetrahydropterin.

Question 38

SERPINB6

Answer 38

Serpin B6 (Cytoplasmic antiproteinase) (CAP) (Peptidase inhibitor 6) (PI-6) (Placental thrombin inhibitor) P35237 FUNCTION: May be involved in the regulation of serine proteinases present in the brain or extravasated from the blood (By similarity). Inhibitor of cathepsin G, kallikrein-8 and thrombin. May play an important role in the inner ear in the protection against leakage of lysosomal content during stress and loss of this protection results in cell death and sensorineural hearing loss.

Question 39

ST3GAL4

Answer 39

CMP-N-acetylneuraminate-beta-galactosamide-alpha-2,3-sialyltransferase 4 (Alpha 2,3-ST 4) (Beta-galactoside alpha-2,3-sialyltransferase 4) (EC 2.99.2) (EC 2.99.4) (Alpha 2,3-sialyltransferase IV) (Gal-NAc6S) (Gal-beta-1,4-GalNAc-alpha-2,3-sialyltransferase) (SAT-3) (ST-4) (ST3Gal IV) (ST3GalIV) (ST3GalA.2) (STZ) (Sialyltransferase 4C) (SIAT4-C) Q11206 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the formation of the NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal-beta-1,4-GlcNAc-, and NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal-beta-1,3-GlcNAc- sequences found in terminal carbohydrate groups of glycoproteins and glycolipids. It may be involved in the biosynthesis of the sialyl Lewis X determinant. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus, Golgi stack membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein. Secreted. Note=Membrane-bound form in trans cisternae of Golgi. Secreted into the body fluid.

Question 40

TAF7

Answer 40

Transcription initiation factor TFIID subunit 7 (RNA polymerase II TBP-associated factor subunit F) (Transcription initiation factor TFIID 55 kDa subunit) (TAF(II)55) (TAFII-55) (TAFII55) Q15545 FUNCTION: Functions as a component of the DNA-binding general transcription factor complex TFIID, a multimeric protein complex that plays a central role in mediating promoter responses to various activators and repressors. Present in both of the previously described TFIID species which either lack or contain TAFII30 (TFIID alpha and TFIID beta respectively).

Question 41

SBNO2

Answer 41

Protein strawberry notch homolog 2 Q9Y2G9 FUNCTION: Acts as a transcriptional coregulator, that can have both coactivator and corepressor functions. Inhibits the DCSTAMP-repressive activity of TAL1, hence enhancing the access of the transcription factor MITF to the DC-STAMP promoter in osteoclast. Plays a role in bone homeostasis; required as a positive regulator in TNFSF11//RANKL-mediated osteoclast fusion via a DCSTAMP-dependent pathway. May also be required in the regulation of osteoblast differentiation (By similarity). Involved in the transcriptional corepression of NF-kappaB in macrophages . Plays a role as a regulator in the proinflammatory cascade .

Question 42

SLC5A8

Answer 42

Sodium-coupled monocarboxylate transporter 1 (Apical iodide transporter) (Electrogenic sodium monocarboxylate cotransporter) (Sodium iodide-related cotransporter) (Solute carrier family 5 member 8) Q8N695 FUNCTION: Acts as an electrogenic sodium (Na(+)) and chloride (Cl-)-dependent sodium-coupled solute transporter, including transport of monocarboxylates (short-chain fatty acids including L-lactate, D-lactate, pyruvate, acetate, propionate, valerate and butyrate), lactate, mocarboxylate drugs (nicotinate, benzoate, salicylate and 5-aminosalicylate) and ketone bodies (beta-D-hydroxybutyrate, acetoacetate and alpha-ketoisocaproate), with a Na(+):substrate stoichiometry of between 4:1 and 2:1. Catalyzes passive carrier mediated diffusion of iodide. Mediates iodide transport from the thyrocyte into the colloid lumen through the apical membrane. May be responsible for the absorption of D-lactate and monocarboxylate drugs from the intestinal tract. Acts as a tumor suppressor, suppressing colony formation in colon cancer, prostate cancer and glioma cell lines. May play a critical role in the entry of L-lactate and ketone bodies into neurons by a process driven by an electrochemical Na(+) gradient and hence contribute to the maintenance of the energy status and function of neurons.

Question 43

S100A14

Answer 43

Protein S100-A14 (S100 calcium-binding protein A14) (S114) Q9HCY8 FUNCTION: Modulates P53/TP53 protein levels, and thereby plays a role in the regulation of cell survival and apoptosis. Depending on the context, it can promote cell proliferation or apoptosis. Plays a role in the regulation of cell migration by modulating the levels of MMP2, a matrix protease that is under transcriptional control of P53/TP53. Does not bind calcium.

Question 44

TCF21

Answer 44

Transcription factor 21 (TCF-21) (Capsulin) (Class A basic helix-loop-helix protein 23) (bHLHa23) (Epicardin) (Podocyte-expressed 1) (Pod-1) O43680 FUNCTION: Involved in epithelial-mesenchymal interactions in kidney and lung morphogenesis that include epithelial differentiation and branching morphogenesis. May play a role in the specification or differentiation of one or more subsets of epicardial cell types. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Question 45

TCEAL5

Answer 45

Transcription elongation factor A protein-like 5 (TCEA-like protein 5) (Transcription elongation factor S-II protein-like 5) Q5H9L2 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 46

TNN

Answer 46

Tenascin-N (TN-N) (Tenascin-W) (TN-W) Q9UQP3 FUNCTION: Extracellular matrix protein that seems to be a ligand for ITGA8:ITGB1, ITGAV:ITGB1 and ITGA4:ITGB1 (By similarity) . Involved in neurite outgrowth and cell migration in hippocampal explants (By similarity). During endochondral bone formation, inhibits proliferation and differentiation of proteoblasts mediated by canonical WNT signaling (By similarity). In tumors, stimulates angiogenesis by elongation, migration and sprouting of endothelial cells . Expressed in most mammary tumors, may facilitate tumorigenesis by supporting the migratory behavior of breast cancer cells .

Question 47

TENM1

Answer 47

Teneurin-1 (Ten-1) (Protein Odd Oz/ten-m homolog 1) (Tenascin-M1) (Ten-m1) (Teneurin transmembrane protein 1) [Cleaved into: Ten-1 intracellular domain (IDten-1) (Ten-1 ICD); Teneurin C-terminal-associated peptide (TCPA-1) (Ten-1 extracellular domain) (Ten-1 ECD)] Q9UKZ4 FUNCTION: Involved in neural development, regulating the establishment of proper connectivity within the nervous system. May function as a cellular signal transducer (By similarity).

Question 48

TMEM14C

Answer 48

Transmembrane protein 14C Q9P0S9 FUNCTION: Required for normal heme biosynthesis.

Question 49

UBE2F

Answer 49

NEDD8-conjugating enzyme UBE2F (EC 2.2.32) (NEDD8 carrier protein UBE2F) (NEDD8 protein ligase UBE2F) (NEDD8-conjugating enzyme 2) (RING-type E3 NEDD8 transferase UBE2F) (Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 F) Q969M7 FUNCTION: Accepts the ubiquitin-like protein NEDD8 from the UBA3-NAE1 E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. The specific interaction with the E3 ubiquitin ligase RBX2, but not RBX1, suggests that the RBX2-UBE2F complex neddylates specific target proteins, such as CUL5.

Question 50

ZNF286A

Answer 50

Zinc finger protein 286A Q9HBT8 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 51

UGP2

Answer 51

UTP--glucose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (EC 2.7.9) (UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase) (UDPGP) (UGPase) Q16851 FUNCTION: Plays a central role as a glucosyl donor in cellular metabolic pathways. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Question 52

VWC2L

Answer 52

von Willebrand factor C domain-containing protein 2-like (Brorin-like) B2RUY7 FUNCTION: May play a role in neurogenesis. May play a role in bone differentiation and matrix mineralization.

Question 53

PRSS3

Answer 53

Trypsin-3 (EC 3.21.4) (Brain trypsinogen) (Mesotrypsin) (Mesotrypsinogen) (Serine protease 3) (Serine protease 4) (Trypsin III) (Trypsin IV) P35030 FUNCTION: Digestive protease that cleaves proteins preferentially after an Arg residue and has proteolytic activity toward Kunitz-type trypsin inhibitors.

Question 54

ZNF789

Answer 54

Zinc finger protein 789 Q5FWF6 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 55

TSPEAR-AS2

Answer 55

Putative uncharacterized protein TSPEAR-AS2 (TSPEAR antisense RNA 2) (TSPEAR antisense gene protein 2) P59090

Question 56

ZNF740

Answer 56

Zinc finger protein 740 (OriLyt TD-element-binding protein 7) Q8NDX6 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 57

ZNF397

Answer 57

Zinc finger protein 397 (Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 15) (Zinc finger protein 47) Q8NF99 FUNCTION: Isoform 3 acts as a DNA-dependent transcriptional repressor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Nucleus.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 3]: Nucleus. Cytoplasm.

Question 58

ZNF492

Answer 58

Zinc finger protein 492 (Zinc finger protein 115) Q9P255 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 59

ZNF471

Answer 59

Zinc finger protein 471 (EZFIT-related protein 1) Q9BX82 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 60

ZNF736

Answer 60

Zinc finger protein 736 B4DX44 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 61

ZNF844

Answer 61

Zinc finger protein 844 Q08AG5 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 62

ZNF80

Answer 62

Zinc finger protein 80 (ZNFpT17) P51504 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 63

SLC30A9

Answer 63

Zinc transporter 9 (ZnT-9) (Human embryonic lung protein) (HuEL) (Solute carrier family 30 member 9) Q6PML9 FUNCTION: Acts as a zinc transporter involved in intracellular zinc homeostasis . Functions as a secondary coactivator for nuclear receptors by cooperating with p160 coactivators subtypes. Plays a role in transcriptional activation of Wnt-responsive genes (By similarity).

Question 64

ZNF570

Answer 64

Zinc finger protein 570 Q96NI8 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 65

TSPAN4

Answer 65

Tetraspanin-4 (Tspan-4) (Novel antigen 2) (NAG-2) (Transmembrane 4 superfamily member 7) O14817 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Question 66

WNT10A

Answer 66

Protein Wnt-10a Q9GZT5 FUNCTION: Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors (Probable). Functions in the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway (By similarity). Plays a role in normal ectoderm development (, ). Required for normal tooth development (, , ). Required for normal postnatal development and maintenance of tongue papillae and sweat ducts . Required for normal proliferation of basal cells in tongue filiform papillae, plantar epithelium and sweat ducts. Required for normal expression of keratins in tongue papillae (By similarity). Required for normal expression of KRT9 in foot plant epithelium . Required for normal hair follicle function .

Question 67

VAMP2

Answer 67

Vesicle-associated membrane protein 2 (VAMP-2) (Synaptobrevin-2) P63027 FUNCTION: Involved in the targeting and/or fusion of transport vesicles to their target membrane. Modulates the gating characteristics of the delayed rectifier voltage-dependent potassium channel KCNB1.

Question 68

VAMP4

Answer 68

Vesicle-associated membrane protein 4 (VAMP-4) O75379 FUNCTION: Involved in the pathway that functions to remove an inhibitor (probably synaptotagmin-4) of calcium-triggered exocytosis during the maturation of secretory granules. May be a marker for this sorting pathway that is critical for remodeling the secretory response of granule. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus, trans-Golgi network membrane . Note=Associated with trans Golgi network (TGN) and newly formed immature secretory granules (ISG). Not found on the mature secretory organelles.

Question 69

VDAC1

Answer 69

Voltage-dependent anion-selective channel protein 1 (VDAC-1) (hVDAC1) (Outer mitochondrial membrane protein porin 1) (Plasmalemmal porin) (Porin 31HL) (Porin 31HM) P21796 FUNCTION: Forms a channel through the mitochondrial outer membrane and also the plasma membrane. The channel at the outer mitochondrial membrane allows diffusion of small hydrophilic molecules; in the plasma membrane it is involved in cell volume regulation and apoptosis. It adopts an open conformation at low or zero membrane potential and a closed conformation at potentials above 30-40 mV. The open state has a weak anion selectivity whereas the closed state is cation-selective (, , , ). May participate in the formation of the permeability transition pore complex (PTPC) responsible for the release of mitochondrial products that triggers apoptosis (, ).

Question 70

VPREB3

Answer 70

Pre-B lymphocyte protein 3 (N27C7-2) (Protein VPreB3) Q9UKI3 FUNCTION: Associates with the Ig-mu chain to form a molecular complex that is expressed on the surface of pre-B-cells.

Question 71

VPS51

Answer 71

Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 51 homolog (Another new gene 2 protein) (Protein fat-free homolog) Q9UID3 FUNCTION: Acts as component of the GARP complex that is involved in retrograde transport from early and late endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN). The GARP complex is required for the maintenance of protein retrieval from endosomes to the TGN, acid hydrolase sorting, lysosome function, endosomal cholesterol traffic and autophagy. VPS51 participates in retrograde transport of acid hydrolase receptors, likely by promoting tethering and SNARE-dependent fusion of endosome-derived carriers to the TGN . Acts as component of the EARP complex that is involved in endocytic recycling. The EARP complex associates with Rab4-positive endosomes and promotes recycling of internalized transferrin receptor (TFRC) to the plasma membrane .

Question 72

VSX1

Answer 72

Visual system homeobox 1 (Homeodomain protein RINX) (Retinal inner nuclear layer homeobox protein) (Transcription factor VSX1) Q9NZR4 FUNCTION: Binds to the 37-bp core of the locus control region (LCR) of the red/green visual pigment gene cluster . May regulate the activity of the LCR and the cone opsin genes at earlier stages of development . Dispensable in early retinal development (By similarity).

Question 73

PLEK2

Answer 73

Pleckstrin-2 Q9NYT0 FUNCTION: May help orchestrate cytoskeletal arrangement. Contribute to lamellipodia formation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell projection, lamellipodium membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton.

Question 74

RGS4

Answer 74

Regulator of G-protein signaling 4 (RGP4) (RGS4) P49798 FUNCTION: Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Activity on G(z)-alpha is inhibited by phosphorylation of the G-protein. Activity on G(z)-alpha and G(i)-alpha-1 is inhibited by palmitoylation of the G-protein.

Question 75

GPR65

Answer 75

Psychosine receptor (G-protein coupled receptor 65) (T-cell death-associated gene 8 protein) Q8IYL9 FUNCTION: Receptor for the glycosphingolipid psychosine (PSY) and several related glycosphingolipids . Plays a role in immune response by maintaining lysosome function and supporting phagocytosis-mediated intracellular bacteria clearance . May have a role in activation-induced cell death or differentiation of T-cells (By similarity).

Question 76

QPCT

Answer 76

Glutaminyl-peptide cyclotransferase (EC 2.2.5) (Glutaminyl cyclase) (QC) (sQC) (Glutaminyl-tRNA cyclotransferase) (Glutamyl cyclase) (EC) Q16769 FUNCTION: Responsible for the biosynthesis of pyroglutamyl peptides. Has a bias against acidic and tryptophan residues adjacent to the N-terminal glutaminyl residue and a lack of importance of chain length after the second residue. Also catalyzes N-terminal pyroglutamate formation. In vitro, catalyzes pyroglutamate formation of N-terminally truncated form of APP amyloid-beta peptides [Glu-3]-amyloid-beta. May be involved in the N-terminal pyroglutamate formation of several amyloid-related plaque-forming peptides.

Question 77

RETREG3

Answer 77

Reticulophagy regulator 3 Q86VR2 FUNCTION: Mediates NRF1-enhanced neurite outgrowth.

Question 78

ST3GAL2

Answer 78

CMP-N-acetylneuraminate-beta-galactosamide-alpha-2,3-sialyltransferase 2 (Alpha 2,3-ST 2) (Beta-galactoside alpha-2,3-sialyltransferase 2) (EC 2.99.4) (Gal-NAc6S) (Gal-beta-1,3-GalNAc-alpha-2,3-sialyltransferase) (ST3Gal II) (ST3GalII) (ST3GalA.2) (Sialyltransferase 4B) (SIAT4-B) Q16842 FUNCTION: Responsible for the synthesis of the sequence NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal-beta-1,3-GalNAc- found in terminal carbohydrate groups of certain glycoproteins, oligosaccharides and glycolipids. SIAT4A and SIAT4B sialylate the same acceptor substrates but exhibit different Km values.

Question 79

SNRPF

Answer 79

Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein F (snRNP-F) (Sm protein F) (Sm-F) (SmF) P62306 FUNCTION: Plays role in pre-mRNA splicing as core component of the SMN-Sm complex that mediates spliceosomal snRNP assembly and as component of the spliceosomal U1, U2, U4 and U5 small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome (, , , , , , , , ). Component of both the pre-catalytic spliceosome B complex and activated spliceosome C complexes (, , , ). Is also a component of the minor U12 spliceosome . As part of the U7 snRNP it is involved in histone 3'-end processing .

Question 80

SBSN

Answer 80

Suprabasin Q6UWP8 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Question 81

TAGLN2

Answer 81

Transgelin-2 (Epididymis tissue protein Li 7e) (SM22-alpha homolog) P37802

Question 82

ST6GALNAC3

Answer 82

Alpha-N-acetylgalactosaminide alpha-2,6-sialyltransferase 3 (EC 2.99.7) (GalNAc alpha-2,6-sialyltransferase III) (ST6GalNAc III) (ST6GalNAcIII) (STY) (Sialyltransferase 7C) (SIAT7-C) Q8NDV1 FUNCTION: Involved in the biosynthesis of ganglioside GD1A from GM1B. Transfers CMP-NeuAc with an alpha-2,6-linkage to GalNAc residue on NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal-beta-1,3-GalNAc of glycoproteins and glycolipids. ST6GalNAcIII prefers glycolipids to glycoproteins (By similarity).

Question 83

SSUH2

Answer 83

Protein SSUH2 homolog (Protein ssu-2 homolog) Q9Y2M2 FUNCTION: Plays a role in odontogenesis.

Question 84

STAC2

Answer 84

SH3 and cysteine-rich domain-containing protein 2 (24b2/STAC2) (Src homology 3 and cysteine-rich domain-containing protein 2) Q6ZMT1 FUNCTION: Plays a redundant role in promoting the expression of calcium channel CACNA1S at the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to increased channel activity. Slows down the inactivation rate of the calcium channel CACNA1C.

Question 85

SCAF8

Answer 85

SR-related and CTD-associated factor 8 (CDC5L complex-associated protein 7) (RNA-binding motif protein 16) Q9UPN6 FUNCTION: Anti-terminator protein required to prevent early mRNA termination during transcription . Together with SCAF4, acts by suppressing the use of early, alternative poly(A) sites, thereby preventing the accumulation of non-functional truncated proteins . Mechanistically, associates with the phosphorylated C-terminal heptapeptide repeat domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit (POLR2A), and subsequently binds nascent RNA upstream of early polyadenylation sites to prevent premature mRNA transcript cleavage and polyadenylation . Independently of SCAF4, also acts as a positive regulator of transcript elongation .

Question 86

STAT5B

Answer 86

Signal transducer and activator of transcription 5B P51692 FUNCTION: Carries out a dual function: signal transduction and activation of transcription. Mediates cellular responses to the cytokine KITLG/SCF and other growth factors. Binds to the GAS element and activates PRL-induced transcription. Positively regulates hematopoietic/erythroid differentiation.

Question 87

AARS

Answer 87

Alanine--tRNA ligase, cytoplasmic (EC 6.1.7) (Alanyl-tRNA synthetase) (AlaRS) (Renal carcinoma antigen NY-REN-42) P49588 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the attachment of alanine to tRNA(Ala) in a two-step reaction: alanine is first activated by ATP to form Ala-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Ala) (, , ). Also edits incorrectly charged tRNA(Ala) via its editing domain (, , ).

Question 88

SLC22A23

Answer 88

Solute carrier family 22 member 23 A1A5C7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 89

VARS

Answer 89

Valine--tRNA ligase (EC 6.1.9) (Protein G7a) (Valyl-tRNA synthetase) (ValRS) P26640

Question 90

SLC26A6

Answer 90

Solute carrier family 26 member 6 (Anion exchange transporter) (Pendrin-like protein 1) (Pendrin-L1) Q9BXS9 FUNCTION: Apical membrane anion-exchanger with wide epithelial distribution that plays a role as a component of the pH buffering system for maintaining acid-base homeostasis. Acts as a versatile DIDS-sensitive inorganic and organic anion transporter that mediates the uptake of monovalent anions like chloride, bicarbonate, formate and hydroxyl ion and divalent anions like sulfate and oxalate. Function in multiple exchange modes involving pairs of these anions, which include chloride-bicarbonate, chloride-oxalate, oxalate-formate, oxalate-sulfate and chloride-formate exchange. Apical membrane chloride-bicarbonate exchanger that mediates luminal chloride absorption and bicarbonate secretion by the small intestinal brush border membrane and contributes to intracellular pH regulation in the duodenal upper villous epithelium during proton-coupled peptide absorption, possibly by providing a bicarbonate import pathway. Mediates also intestinal chloride absorption and oxalate secretion, thereby preventing hyperoxaluria and calcium oxalate urolithiasis. Transepithelial oxalate secretion, chloride-formate, chloride-oxalate and chloride-bicarbonate transport activities in the duodenum are inhibited by PKC activation in a calcium-independent manner. The apical membrane chloride-bicarbonate exchanger provides also a major route for fluid and bicarbonate secretion into the proximal tubules of the kidney as well as into the proximal part of the interlobular pancreatic ductal tree, where it mediates electrogenic chloride-bicarbonate exchange with a chloride-bicarbonate stoichiometry of 1:2, and hence will dilute and alkalinize protein-rich acinar secretion. Mediates also the transcellular sulfate absorption and oxalate secretion across the apical membrane in the duodenum and the formate ion efflux at the apical brush border of cells in the proximal tubules of kidney. Plays a role in sperm capacitation by increasing intracellular pH.; FUNCTION: [Isoform 4]: Apical membrane chloride-bicarbonate exchanger. Its association with carbonic anhydrase CA2 forms a bicarbonate transport metabolon; hence maximizes the local concentration of bicarbonate at the transporter site. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Apical cell membrane .; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 4]: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Apical cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Basolateral cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Note=Localizes to the apical and basolateral surfaces of tubular wall cells in kidney and in the brush border of pancreatic duct cells.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 5]: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 6]: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Question 91

ST20-AS1

Answer 91

Putative uncharacterized protein ST20-AS1 (ST20 antisense RNA 1) (ST20 antisense gene protein 1) Q8NBB2

Question 92

SMIM21

Answer 92

Small integral membrane protein 21 Q3B7S5 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 93

RTCA

Answer 93

RNA 3'-terminal phosphate cyclase (RNA cyclase) (RNA-3'-phosphate cyclase) (EC 6.1.4) (RNA terminal phosphate cyclase domain-containing protein 1) (RTC domain-containing protein 1) O00442 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the conversion of 3'-phosphate to a 2',3'-cyclic phosphodiester at the end of RNA. The mechanism of action of the enzyme occurs in 3 steps: (A) adenylation of the enzyme by ATP; (B) transfer of adenylate to an RNA-N3'P to produce RNA-N3'PP5'A; (C) and attack of the adjacent 2'-hydroxyl on the 3'-phosphorus in the diester linkage to produce the cyclic end product. The biological role of this enzyme is unknown but it is likely to function in some aspects of cellular RNA processing. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus, nucleoplasm.

Question 94

TBC1D19

Answer 94

TBC1 domain family member 19 Q8N5T2 FUNCTION: May act as a GTPase-activating protein for Rab family protein(s).

Question 95

TP53TG3; TP53TG3B; TP53TG3C; TP53TG3D; TP53TG3E; TP53TG3F

Answer 95

TP53-target gene 3 protein (TP53-inducible gene 3 protein) Q9ULZ0 FUNCTION: May play a significant role in p53/TP53-mediating signaling pathway.

Question 96

TBC1D7

Answer 96

TBC1 domain family member 7 (Cell migration-inducing protein 23) Q9P0N9 FUNCTION: Component of the TSC-TBC complex, that contains TBC1D7 in addition to the TSC1-TSC2 complex and consists of the functional complex possessing GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity toward RHEB in response to alterations in specific cellular growth conditions. The small GTPase RHEB is a direct activator of the protein kinase activity of mTORC1 and the TSC-TBC complex acts as a negative regulator of mTORC1 signaling cascade by acting as a GAP for RHEB. Participates in the proper sensing of growth factors and glucose, but not amino acids, by mTORC1. It is unclear whether TBC1D7 acts as a GTPase-activating protein and additional studies are required to answer this question. Note=Localizes in the cytoplasmic vesicles of the endomembrane in association with TSC1-TSC2 complex.

Question 97

TRPC7

Answer 97

Short transient receptor potential channel 7 (TrpC7) (Transient receptor protein 7) (TRP-7) (hTRP7) Q9HCX4 FUNCTION: Thought to form a receptor-activated non-selective calcium permeant cation channel. Probably is operated by a phosphatidylinositol second messenger system activated by receptor tyrosine kinases or G-protein coupled receptors. Activated by diacylglycerol (DAG) (By similarity). May also be activated by intracellular calcium store depletion.

Question 98

TBX4

Answer 98

T-box transcription factor TBX4 (T-box protein 4) P57082 FUNCTION: Involved in the transcriptional regulation of genes required for mesoderm differentiation. Probably plays a role in limb pattern formation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 99

TIMM21

Answer 99

Mitochondrial import inner membrane translocase subunit Tim21 (TIM21-like protein, mitochondrial) Q9BVV7 FUNCTION: Participates in the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins across the mitochondrial inner membrane. Also required for assembly of mitochondrial respiratory chain complex I and complex IV as component of the MITRAC (mitochondrial translation regulation assembly intermediate of cytochrome c oxidase complex) complex. Probably shuttles between the presequence translocase and respiratory-chain assembly intermediates in a process that promotes incorporation of early nuclear-encoded subunits into these complexes.

Question 100

TCEAL8

Answer 100

Transcription elongation factor A protein-like 8 (TCEA-like protein 8) (Transcription elongation factor S-II protein-like 8) Q8IYN2 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 101

TCN2

Answer 101

Transcobalamin-2 (TC-2) (Transcobalamin II) (TC II) (TCII) P20062 FUNCTION: Primary vitamin B12-binding and transport protein. Delivers cobalamin to cells.

Question 102

TCP11

Answer 102

T-complex protein 11 homolog Q8WWU5 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the process of sperm capacitation and acrosome reactions. Probable receptor for the putative fertilization-promoting peptide (FPP) at the sperm membrane that may modulate the activity of the adenylyl cyclase cAMP pathway.

Question 103

TJAP1

Answer 103

Tight junction-associated protein 1 (Protein incorporated later into tight junctions) (Tight junction protein 4) Q5JTD0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus .

Question 104

TRBJ1-3

Answer 104

T cell receptor beta joining 1-3 A0A0J9YWP8 FUNCTION: J region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) beta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 105

TDH

Answer 105

Inactive L-threonine 3-dehydrogenase, mitochondrial (Short chain dehydrogenase/reductase family 14E member 1 pseudogene) Q8IZJ6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Question 106

TLCD3B

Answer 106

Ceramide synthase (EC 2.1.-) (Protein FAM57B) (TLC domain-containing protein 3B) Q71RH2 FUNCTION: Involved in ceramide synthesis.

Question 107

ZNF280C

Answer 107

Zinc finger protein 280C (Suppressor of hairy wing homolog 3) (Zinc finger protein 633) Q8ND82 FUNCTION: May function as a transcription factor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 108

TLDC2

Answer 108

TLD domain-containing protein 2 (TBC/LysM-associated domain-containing protein 2) A0PJX2

Question 109

RPS4X

Answer 109

40S ribosomal protein S4, X isoform (SCR10) (Single copy abundant mRNA protein) (Small ribosomal subunit protein eS4) P62701 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm . Note=Localized in cytoplasmic mRNP granules containing untranslated mRNAs.

Question 110

TRAV20

Answer 110

T cell receptor alpha variable 20 A0A0B4J274 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 111

TRAV12-3

Answer 111

T cell receptor alpha variable 12-3 A0A0B4J271 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 112

TRAV16

Answer 112

T cell receptor alpha variable 16 A0A0A6YYK6 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 113

TRAV38-1

Answer 113

T cell receptor alpha variable 38-1 A0A0B4J264 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 114

TRAV8-6

Answer 114

T cell receptor alpha variable 8-6 A0A0B4J262 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 115

NME9

Answer 115

Thioredoxin domain-containing protein 6 (Thioredoxin-like protein 2) (Txl-2) Q86XW9 FUNCTION: May be a regulator of microtubule physiology. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Question 116

USP51

Answer 116

Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 51 (EC 3.19.12) (Deubiquitinating enzyme 51) (Ubiquitin thioesterase 51) (Ubiquitin-specific-processing protease 51) Q70EK9 FUNCTION: Specifically deubiquitinates 'Lys-14' (H2AK13Ub) and 'Lys-16'(H2AK15Ub) of histone H2A regulating the DNA damage response at double-strand breaks (DSBs) . USP51 is recruited to chromatin after DNA damage and regulates the dynamic assembly/disassembly of TP53BP1 and BRCA1. Exhibits also activity for 'Lys-27' or 'Lys-63'-linked di-ubiquitin .

Question 117

ZBTB21

Answer 117

Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 21 (Zinc finger protein 295) Q9ULJ3 FUNCTION: Acts as a transcription repressor. Note=Colocalizes with ZBTB14 in nucleus in HEK293 cells.

Question 118

TYROBP

Answer 118

TYRO protein tyrosine kinase-binding protein (DNAX-activation protein 12) (Killer-activating receptor-associated protein) (KAR-associated protein) O43914 FUNCTION: Adapter protein which non-covalently associates with activating receptors found on the surface of a variety of immune cells to mediate signaling and cell activation following ligand binding by the receptors (, , ). TYROBP is tyrosine-phosphorylated in the ITAM domain following ligand binding by the associated receptors which leads to activation of additional tyrosine kinases and subsequent cell activation . Also has an inhibitory role in some cells . Non-covalently associates with activating receptors of the CD300 family to mediate cell activation (, , ; ). Also mediates cell activation through association with activating receptors of the CD200R family (By similarity). Required for neutrophil activation mediated by integrin (By similarity). Required for the activation of myeloid cells mediated by the CLEC5A/MDL1 receptor . Associates with natural killer (NK) cell receptors such as KIR2DS2 and the KLRD1/KLRC2 heterodimer to mediate NK cell activation (, , ). Also enhances trafficking and cell surface expression of NK cell receptors KIR2DS1, KIR2DS2 and KIR2DS4 and ensures their stability at the cell surface . Associates with SIRPB1 to mediate activation of myeloid cells such as monocytes and dendritic cells . Associates with TREM1 to mediate activation of neutrophils and monocytes . Associates with TREM2 on monocyte-derived dendritic cells to mediate up-regulation of chemokine receptor CCR7 and dendritic cell maturation and survival . Association with TREM2 mediates cytokine-induced formation of multinucleated giant cells which are formed by the fusion of macrophages . Stabilizes the TREM2 C-terminal fragment (TREM2-CTF) produced by TREM2 ectodomain shedding which suppresses the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines . In microglia, required with TREM2 for phagocytosis of apoptotic neurons (By similarity). Required with ITGAM/CD11B in microglia to control production of microglial superoxide ions which promote the neuronal apoptosis that occurs during brain development (By similarity). Promotes proinflammatory responses in microglia following nerve injury which accelerates degeneration of injured neurons (By similarity). Positively regulates the expression of the IRAK3/IRAK-M kinase and IL10 production by liver dendritic cells and inhibits their T cell allostimulatory ability (By similarity). Negatively regulates B cell proliferation . Required for CSF1-mediated osteoclast cytoskeletal organization (By similarity). Positively regulates multinucleation during osteoclast development (By similarity).

Question 119

ZBTB47

Answer 119

Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 47 (Zinc finger protein 651) Q9UFB7 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 120

ZFP14

Answer 120

Zinc finger protein 14 homolog (Zfp-14) (Zinc finger protein 531) Q9HCL3 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 121

ZFAT

Answer 121

Zinc finger protein ZFAT (Zinc finger gene in AITD susceptibility region) (Zinc finger protein 406) Q9P243 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. Overexpression causes down-regulation of a number of genes involved in the immune response. Some genes are also up-regulated (By similarity).

Question 122

UIMC1

Answer 122

BRCA1-A complex subunit RAP80 (Receptor-associated protein 80) (Retinoid X receptor-interacting protein 110) (Ubiquitin interaction motif-containing protein 1) Q96RL1 FUNCTION: Ubiquitin-binding protein . Specifically recognizes and binds 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin (, Ref.37). Plays a central role in the BRCA1-A complex by specifically binding 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitinated histones H2A and H2AX at DNA lesions sites, leading to target the BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer to sites of DNA damage at double-strand breaks (DSBs). The BRCA1-A complex also possesses deubiquitinase activity that specifically removes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin on histones H2A and H2AX. Also weakly binds monoubiquitin but with much less affinity than 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin. May interact with monoubiquitinated histones H2A and H2B; the relevance of such results is however unclear in vivo. Does not bind Lys-48'-linked ubiquitin. May indirectly act as a transcriptional repressor by inhibiting the interaction of NR6A1 with the corepressor NCOR1. Note=Localizes at sites of DNA damage at double-strand breaks (DSBs).

Question 123

UHMK1

Answer 123

Serine/threonine-protein kinase Kist (EC 2.11.1) (Kinase interacting with stathmin) (PAM COOH-terminal interactor protein 2) (P-CIP2) (U2AF homology motif kinase 1) Q8TAS1 FUNCTION: Upon serum stimulation, phosphorylates CDKN1B/p27Kip1, thus controlling CDKN1B subcellular location and cell cycle progression in G1 phase. May be involved in trafficking and/or processing of RNA (By similarity).

Question 124

WDR1

Answer 124

WD repeat-containing protein 1 (Actin-interacting protein 1) (AIP1) (NORI-1) O75083 FUNCTION: Induces disassembly of actin filaments in conjunction with ADF/cofilin family proteins . Enhances cofilin-mediated actin severing (By similarity). Involved in cytokinesis. Involved in chemotactic cell migration by restricting lamellipodial membrane protrusions . Involved in myocardium sarcomere organization. Required for cardiomyocyte growth and maintenance (By similarity). Involved in megakaryocyte maturation and platelet shedding. Required for the establishment of planar cell polarity (PCP) during follicular epithelium development and for cell shape changes during PCP; the function seems to implicate cooperation with CFL1 and/or DSTN/ADF. Involved in the generation/maintenance of cortical tension (By similarity). Involved in assembly and maintenance of epithelial apical cell junctions and plays a role in the organization of the perijunctional actomyosin belt .

Question 125

WDR19

Answer 125

WD repeat-containing protein 19 (Intraflagellar transport 144 homolog) Q8NEZ3 FUNCTION: As component of the IFT complex A (IFT-A), a complex required for retrograde ciliary transport and entry into cilia of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), it is involved in cilia function and/or assembly . Essential for functional IFT-A assembly and ciliary entry of GPCRs . Associates with the BBSome complex to mediate ciliary transport (By similarity).

Question 126

WDR47

Answer 126

WD repeat-containing protein 47 (Neuronal enriched MAP-interacting protein) (Nemitin) O94967 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton .

Question 127

ULK3

Answer 127

Serine/threonine-protein kinase ULK3 (EC 2.11.1) (Unc-51-like kinase 3) Q6PHR2 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine protein kinase that acts as a regulator of Sonic hedgehog (SHH) signaling and autophagy. Acts as a negative regulator of SHH signaling in the absence of SHH ligand: interacts with SUFU, thereby inactivating the protein kinase activity and preventing phosphorylation of GLI proteins (GLI1, GLI2 and/or GLI3). Positively regulates SHH signaling in the presence of SHH: dissociates from SUFU, autophosphorylates and mediates phosphorylation of GLI2, activating it and promoting its nuclear translocation. Phosphorylates in vitro GLI2, as well as GLI1 and GLI3, although less efficiently. Also acts as a regulator of autophagy: following cellular senescence, able to induce autophagy. Note=Localizes to pre-autophagosomal structure during cellular senescence.

Question 128

WFDC10A

Answer 128

WAP four-disulfide core domain protein 10A (Putative protease inhibitor WAP10A) Q9H1F0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Question 129

ZNF730

Answer 129

Putative zinc finger protein 730 Q6ZMV8 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 130

ZNF845

Answer 130

Zinc finger protein 845 Q96IR2 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 131

TSGA10

Answer 131

Testis-specific gene 10 protein (Testis development protein NYD-SP7) Q9BZW7 FUNCTION: Plays a role in spermatogenesis . When overexpressed, prevents nuclear localization of HIF1A (By similarity).

Question 132

ZNF483

Answer 132

Zinc finger protein 483 (Zinc finger protein with KRAB and SCAN domains 16) Q8TF39 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 133

ZNF732

Answer 133

Zinc finger protein 732 B4DXR9 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 134

ZNF496

Answer 134

Zinc finger protein 496 (Zinc finger protein with KRAB and SCAN domains 17) Q96IT1 FUNCTION: DNA-binding transcription factor that can both act as an activator and a repressor.

Question 135

ZNF830

Answer 135

Zinc finger protein 830 (Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 16) Q96NB3 FUNCTION: May play a role in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome . Acts as an important regulator of the cell cycle that participates in the maintenance of genome integrity. During cell cycle progression in embryonic fibroblast, prevents replication fork collapse, double-strand break formation and cell cycle checkpoint activation. Controls mitotic cell cycle progression and cell survival in rapidly proliferating intestinal epithelium and embryonic stem cells. During the embryo preimplantation, controls different aspects of M phase. During early oocyte growth, plays a role in oocyte survival by preventing chromosomal breaks formation, activation of TP63 and reduction of transcription (By similarity).

Question 136

SLC18A1

Answer 136

Chromaffin granule amine transporter (Solute carrier family 18 member 1) (Vesicular amine transporter 1) (VAT1) P54219 FUNCTION: Involved in the transport of biogenic monoamines, such as serotonin, from the cytoplasm into the secretory vesicles of neuroendocrine and endocrine cells.

Question 137

TTPA

Answer 137

Alpha-tocopherol transfer protein (Alpha-TTP) P49638 FUNCTION: Binds alpha-tocopherol, enhances its transfer between separate membranes, and stimulates its release from liver cells . Binds both phosphatidylinol 3,4-bisphosphate and phosphatidylinol 4,5-bisphosphate; the resulting conformation change is important for the release of the bound alpha-tocopherol (By similarity).

Question 138

TTTY12

Answer 138

Putative transcript Y 12 protein Q9BZ98

Question 139

NEURL1

Answer 139

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase NEURL1 (EC 2.2.27) (Neuralized-like protein 1A) (h-neu) (h-neuralized 1) (RING finger protein 67) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase NEURL1) O76050 FUNCTION: Plays a role in hippocampal-dependent synaptic plasticity, learning and memory. Involved in the formation of spines and functional synaptic contacts by modulating the translational activity of the cytoplasmic polyadenylation element-binding protein CPEB3. Promotes ubiquitination of CPEB3, and hence induces CPEB3-dependent mRNA translation activation of glutamate receptor GRIA1 and GRIA2. Can function as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase to activate monoubiquitination of JAG1 (in vitro), thereby regulating the Notch pathway. Acts as a tumor suppressor; inhibits malignant cell transformation of medulloblastoma (MB) cells by inhibiting the Notch signaling pathway.

Question 140

MTERF3

Answer 140

Transcription termination factor 3, mitochondrial (Mitochondrial transcription termination factor 3) (mTERF3) (mTERF domain-containing protein 1, mitochondrial) Q96E29 FUNCTION: Binds promoter DNA and regulates initiation of transcription . Required for normal mitochondrial transcription and translation, and for normal assembly of mitochondrial respiratory complexes. Required for normal mitochondrial function (By similarity). Maintains 16S rRNA levels and functions in mitochondrial ribosome assembly by regulating the biogenesis of the 39S ribosomal subunit (By similarity).

Question 141

MTFR1

Answer 141

Mitochondrial fission regulator 1 (Chondrocyte protein with a poly-proline region) Q15390 FUNCTION: May play a role in mitochondrial aerobic respiration. May also regulate mitochondrial organization and fission (By similarity).

Question 142

NME2P1

Answer 142

Putative nucleoside diphosphate kinase (NDK) (NDP kinase) (EC 2.4.6) O60361 FUNCTION: Major role in the synthesis of nucleoside triphosphates other than ATP. The ATP gamma phosphate is transferred to the NDP beta phosphate via a ping-pong mechanism, using a phosphorylated active-site intermediate (By similarity).

Question 143

PLAGL1

Answer 143

Zinc finger protein PLAGL1 (Lost on transformation 1) (LOT-1) (Pleiomorphic adenoma-like protein 1) (Tumor suppressor ZAC) Q9UM63 FUNCTION: Acts as a transcriptional activator . Involved in the transcriptional regulation of type 1 receptor for pituitary adenylate cyclase-activating polypeptide.

Question 144

PNOC

Answer 144

Prepronociceptin [Cleaved into: Nocistatin; Nociceptin (Orphanin FQ) (PPNOC); Orphanin FQ2] Q13519 FUNCTION: [Nociceptin]: Ligand of the opioid receptor-like receptor OPRL1. It may act as a transmitter in the brain by modulating nociceptive and locomotor behavior. May be involved in neuronal differentiation and development. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Question 145

TMEM123

Answer 145

Porimin (Keratinocytes-associated transmembrane protein 3) (KCT-3) (Pro-oncosis receptor inducing membrane injury) (Transmembrane protein 123) Q8N131 FUNCTION: Implicated in oncotic cell death, characterized by cell swelling, organelle swelling, vacuolization and increased membrane permeability.

Question 146

MRE11

Answer 146

Double-strand break repair protein MRE11 (EC 3.-.-) (Double-strand break repair protein MRE11A) (Meiotic recombination 11 homolog 1) (MRE11 homolog 1) (Meiotic recombination 11 homolog A) (MRE11 homolog A) P49959 FUNCTION: Component of the MRN complex, which plays a central role in double-strand break (DSB) repair, DNA recombination, maintenance of telomere integrity and meiosis (, , , , ). The complex possesses single-strand endonuclease activity and double-strand-specific 3'-5' exonuclease activity, which are provided by MRE11 (, , , , ). RAD50 may be required to bind DNA ends and hold them in close proximity (, , , , ). This could facilitate searches for short or long regions of sequence homology in the recombining DNA templates, and may also stimulate the activity of DNA ligases and/or restrict the nuclease activity of MRE11 to prevent nucleolytic degradation past a given point (, , , , , ). The complex may also be required for DNA damage signaling via activation of the ATM kinase . In telomeres the MRN complex may modulate t-loop formation .

Question 147

SPTBN5

Answer 147

Spectrin beta chain, non-erythrocytic 5 (Beta-V spectrin) Q9NRC6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton. Note=Detected prominently in the outer segments of photoreceptor rods and cones and in the basolateral membrane and cytosol of gastric epithelial cells.

Question 148

SUPT16H

Answer 148

FACT complex subunit SPT16 (Chromatin-specific transcription elongation factor 140 kDa subunit) (FACT 140 kDa subunit) (FACTp140) (Facilitates chromatin transcription complex subunit SPT16) (hSPT16) Q9Y5B9 FUNCTION: Component of the FACT complex, a general chromatin factor that acts to reorganize nucleosomes. The FACT complex is involved in multiple processes that require DNA as a template such as mRNA elongation, DNA replication and DNA repair. During transcription elongation the FACT complex acts as a histone chaperone that both destabilizes and restores nucleosomal structure. It facilitates the passage of RNA polymerase II and transcription by promoting the dissociation of one histone H2A-H2B dimer from the nucleosome, then subsequently promotes the reestablishment of the nucleosome following the passage of RNA polymerase II. The FACT complex is probably also involved in phosphorylation of 'Ser-392' of p53/TP53 via its association with CK2 (casein kinase II). Note=Colocalizes with RNA polymerase II on chromatin. Recruited to actively transcribed loci.

Question 149

SAP30L

Answer 149

Histone deacetylase complex subunit SAP30L (HCV non-structural protein 4A-transactivated protein 2) (Sin3 corepressor complex subunit SAP30L) (Sin3-associated protein p30-like) Q9HAJ7 FUNCTION: [Isoform 1]: Functions as transcription repressor, probably via its interaction with histone deacetylase complexes (, ). Involved in the functional recruitment of the class 1 Sin3-histone deacetylase complex (HDAC) to the nucleolus . Binds DNA, apparently without sequence-specificity, and bends bound double-stranded DNA . Binds phosphoinositol phosphates (phosphoinositol 3-phosphate, phosphoinositol 4-phosphate and phosphoinositol 5-phosphate) via the same basic sequence motif that mediates DNA binding and nuclear import (, ).

Question 150

SPACA7

Answer 150

Sperm acrosome-associated protein 7 Q96KW9 FUNCTION: Involved in fertilization. Seems not to play a direct role in sperm-egg binding or gamete fusion.

Question 151

TNFSF12

Answer 151

Tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 12 (APO3 ligand) (TNF-related weak inducer of apoptosis) (TWEAK) [Cleaved into: Tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 12, membrane form; Tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 12, secreted form] O43508 FUNCTION: Binds to FN14 and possibly also to TNRFSF12/APO3. Weak inducer of apoptosis in some cell types. Mediates NF-kappa-B activation. Promotes angiogenesis and the proliferation of endothelial cells. Also involved in induction of inflammatory cytokines. Promotes IL8 secretion.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 12, secreted form]: Secreted.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform TWE-PRIL]: Cell membrane; Single-pass membrane protein.

Question 152

SRBD1

Answer 152

S1 RNA-binding domain-containing protein 1 Q8N5C6

Question 153

SETMAR

Answer 153

Histone-lysine N-methyltransferase SETMAR (SET domain and mariner transposase fusion protein) (Metnase) [Includes: Histone-lysine N-methyltransferase (EC 2.1.-); Transposon Hsmar1 transposase (EC 3.-.-)] Q53H47 FUNCTION: Protein derived from the fusion of a methylase with the transposase of an Hsmar1 transposon that plays a role in DNA double-strand break repair, stalled replication fork restart and DNA integration. DNA-binding protein, it is indirectly recruited to sites of DNA damage through protein-protein interactions. Has also kept a sequence-specific DNA-binding activity recognizing the 19-mer core of the 5'-terminal inverted repeats (TIRs) of the Hsmar1 element and displays a DNA nicking and end joining activity (, , , , , , , ). In parallel, has a histone methyltransferase activity and methylates 'Lys-4' and 'Lys-36' of histone H3. Specifically mediates dimethylation of H3 'Lys-36' at sites of DNA double-strand break and may recruit proteins required for efficient DSB repair through non-homologous end-joining (, , ). Also regulates replication fork processing, promoting replication fork restart and regulating DNA decatenation through stimulation of the topoisomerase activity of TOP2A (, ).

Question 154

SPAAR

Answer 154

Small regulatory polypeptide of amino acid response A0A1B0GVQ0 FUNCTION: [Isoform 2]: Negative regulator of amino acid sensing and mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels and amino acids . Negatively regulates mTORC1 activation by inhibiting recruitment of mTORC1 to lysosomes upon stimulation with amino acids: acts by promoting the formation of a tightly bound supercomplex composed of the lysosomal V-ATPase, Ragulator and Rag GTPases, preventing recruitment of mTORC1 . Acts as a regulator of muscle regeneration following injury by regulating mTORC1 activation (By similarity).

Question 155

LTB

Answer 155

Lymphotoxin-beta (LT-beta) (Tumor necrosis factor C) (TNF-C) (Tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 3) Q06643 FUNCTION: Cytokine that binds to LTBR/TNFRSF3. May play a specific role in immune response regulation. Provides the membrane anchor for the attachment of the heterotrimeric complex to the cell surface. Isoform 2 is probably non-functional. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 156

SLC28A2

Answer 156

Sodium/nucleoside cotransporter 2 (Concentrative nucleoside transporter 2) (CNT 2) (hCNT2) (Na(+)/nucleoside cotransporter 2) (Sodium-coupled nucleoside transporter 2) (Sodium/purine nucleoside co-transporter) (SPNT) (Solute carrier family 28 member 2) O43868 FUNCTION: Sodium-dependent and purine-selective transporter. Exhibits the transport characteristics of the nucleoside transport system cif or N1 subtype (N1/cif) (selective for purine nucleosides and uridine). Plays a critical role in specific uptake and salvage of purine nucleosides in kidney and other tissues. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Question 157

SPATA31D3

Answer 157

Spermatogenesis-associated protein 31D3 (Protein FAM75D3) P0C874 FUNCTION: May play a role in spermatogenesis.

Question 158

TNNC1

Answer 158

Troponin C, slow skeletal and cardiac muscles (TN-C) P63316 FUNCTION: Troponin is the central regulatory protein of striated muscle contraction. Tn consists of three components: Tn-I which is the inhibitor of actomyosin ATPase, Tn-T which contains the binding site for tropomyosin and Tn-C. The binding of calcium to Tn-C abolishes the inhibitory action of Tn on actin filaments.

Question 159

SF3B6

Answer 159

Splicing factor 3B subunit 6 (Pre-mRNA branch site protein p14) (SF3b 14 kDa subunit) (SF3B14a) (Spliceosome-associated protein, 14-kDa) (Splicing factor 3b, subunit 6, 14kDa) Q9Y3B4 FUNCTION: Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3B complex . SF3B complex is required for 'A' complex assembly formed by the stable binding of U2 snRNP to the branchpoint sequence (BPS) in pre-mRNA . Directly contacts the pre-mRNA branch site adenosine for the first catalytic step of splicing . Enters the spliceosome and associates with the pre-mRNA branch site as part of the 17S U2 or, in the case of the minor spliceosome, as part of the 18S U11/U12 snRNP complex, and thus may facilitate the interaction of these snRNP with the branch sites of U2 and U12 respectively .

Question 160

SIK1B

Answer 160

Probable serine/threonine-protein kinase SIK1B (EC 2.11.1) (Salt-inducible kinase 1B) A0A0B4J2F2 FUNCTION: Probable serine/threonine-protein kinase.

Question 161

SLC35F5

Answer 161

Solute carrier family 35 member F5 (Hepatitis C virus NS5A-transactivated protein 3) (HCV NS5A-transactivated protein 3) Q8WV83 FUNCTION: Putative solute transporter.

Question 162

SRGN

Answer 162

Serglycin (Hematopoietic proteoglycan core protein) (Platelet proteoglycan core protein) (P.PG) (Secretory granule proteoglycan core protein) P10124 FUNCTION: Plays a role in formation of mast cell secretory granules and mediates storage of various compounds in secretory vesicles. Required for storage of some proteases in both connective tissue and mucosal mast cells and for storage of granzyme B in T-lymphocytes. Plays a role in localizing neutrophil elastase in azurophil granules of neutrophils. Mediates processing of MMP2. Plays a role in cytotoxic cell granule-mediated apoptosis by forming a complex with granzyme B which is delivered to cells by perforin to induce apoptosis. Regulates the secretion of TNF-alpha and may also regulate protease secretion. Inhibits bone mineralization.

Question 163

SLC35G1

Answer 163

Solute carrier family 35 member G1 (Partner of STIM1) (Transmembrane protein 20) Q2M3R5 FUNCTION: May play a role in intracellular calcium sensing and homeostasis. May act as a negative regulator of plasma membrane calcium-transporting ATPases preventing calcium efflux from the cell. Note=Translocates from the endoplasmic reticulum to the cell membrane in response to a depletion of intracellular calcium and is detected at punctae corresponding to junctions between the endoplasmic reticulum and the cell membrane.

Question 164

SMIM28

Answer 164

Small integral membrane protein 28 A0A1B0GU29 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 165

SRGAP1

Answer 165

SLIT-ROBO Rho GTPase-activating protein 1 (srGAP1) (Rho GTPase-activating protein 13) Q7Z6B7 FUNCTION: GTPase-activating protein for RhoA and Cdc42 small GTPases. Together with CDC42 seems to be involved in the pathway mediating the repulsive signaling of Robo and Slit proteins in neuronal migration. SLIT2, probably through interaction with ROBO1, increases the interaction of SRGAP1 with ROBO1 and inactivates CDC42.

Question 166

SMIM10L1

Answer 166

Small integral membrane protein 10-like protein 1 P0DMW3

Question 167

SLC46A3

Answer 167

Solute carrier family 46 member 3 Q7Z3Q1 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 168

SRPK3

Answer 168

SRSF protein kinase 3 (EC 2.11.1) (Muscle-specific serine kinase 1) (MSSK-1) (Serine/arginine-rich protein-specific kinase 3) (SR-protein-specific kinase 3) (Serine/threonine-protein kinase 23) Q9UPE1 FUNCTION: Serine/arginine-rich protein-specific kinase which specifically phosphorylates its substrates at serine residues located in regions rich in arginine/serine dipeptides, known as RS domains. Phosphorylates the SR splicing factor SRSF1 and the lamin-B receptor (LBR) in vitro. Required for normal muscle development (By similarity).

Question 169

SRSF8

Answer 169

Serine/arginine-rich splicing factor 8 (Pre-mRNA-splicing factor SRP46) (Splicing factor SRp46) (Splicing factor, arginine/serine-rich 2B) Q9BRL6 FUNCTION: Involved in pre-mRNA alternative splicing.

Question 170

SLC6A19

Answer 170

Sodium-dependent neutral amino acid transporter B(0)AT1 (Solute carrier family 6 member 19) (System B(0) neutral amino acid transporter AT1) Q695T7 FUNCTION: Transporter that mediates resorption of neutral amino acids across the apical membrane of renal and intestinal epithelial cells (, , , ). This uptake is sodium-dependent and chloride-independent (, ). Requires CLTRN in kidney or ACE2 in intestine for cell surface expression and amino acid transporter activity (, ).

Question 171

RWDD1

Answer 171

RWD domain-containing protein 1 (DRG family-regulatory protein 2) Q9H446 FUNCTION: Protects DRG2 from proteolytic degradation.

Question 172

S100A1

Answer 172

Protein S100-A1 (S-100 protein alpha chain) (S-100 protein subunit alpha) (S100 calcium-binding protein A1) P23297 FUNCTION: Probably acts as a Ca(2+) signal transducer . In response to an increase in intracellular Ca(2+) levels, binds calcium which triggers a conformational change . This conformational change allows interaction of S1001A with specific target proteins, such as TPR-containing proteins, and the modulation of their activity .

Question 173

S100G

Answer 173

Protein S100-G (Calbindin-D9k) (S100 calcium-binding protein G) (Vitamin D-dependent calcium-binding protein, intestinal) (CABP) P29377

Question 174

SHISA5

Answer 174

Protein shisa-5 (Putative NF-kappa-B-activating protein 120) (Scotin) Q8N114 FUNCTION: Can induce apoptosis in a caspase-dependent manner and plays a role in p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis.

Question 175

SULT1B1

Answer 175

Sulfotransferase family cytosolic 1B member 1 (ST1B1) (Sulfotransferase 1B1) (EC 2.2.-) (Sulfotransferase 1B2) (ST1B2) (Thyroid hormone sulfotransferase) O43704 FUNCTION: Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of many hormones, neurotransmitters, drugs and xenobiotic compounds. Sulfonation increases the water solubility of most compounds, and therefore their renal excretion, but it can also result in bioactivation to form active metabolites. Sulfates dopamine, small phenols such as 1-naphthol and p-nitrophenol and thyroid hormones, including 3,3'-diiodothyronine, triidothyronine, reverse triiodothyronine and thyroxine.

Question 176

SLC12A2

Answer 176

Solute carrier family 12 member 2 (Basolateral Na-K-Cl symporter) (Bumetanide-sensitive sodium-(potassium)-chloride cotransporter 2) P55011 FUNCTION: Electrically silent transporter system. Mediates sodium and chloride reabsorption. Plays a vital role in the regulation of ionic balance and cell volume. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Question 177

SULT1A3

Answer 177

Sulfotransferase 1A3 (ST1A3) (EC 2.2.1) (Aryl sulfotransferase 1A3/1A4) (Catecholamine-sulfating phenol sulfotransferase) (HAST3) (M-PST) (Monoamine-sulfating phenol sulfotransferase) (Placental estrogen sulfotransferase) (Sulfotransferase 1A3/1A4) (Sulfotransferase, monoamine-preferring) (Thermolabile phenol sulfotransferase) (TL-PST) P0DMM9 FUNCTION: Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of phenolic monoamines (neurotransmitters such as dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin) and phenolic and catechol drugs. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm.

Question 178

TDRD12

Answer 178

Putative ATP-dependent RNA helicase TDRD12 (EC 3.4.13) (ES cell-associated transcript 8 protein) (Tudor domain-containing protein 12) Q587J7 FUNCTION: Probable ATP-binding RNA helicase required during spermatogenesis to repress transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Involved in the secondary piRNAs metabolic process. Acts via the PET complex, a multiprotein complex required during the secondary piRNAs metabolic process for the PIWIL2 slicing-triggered loading of PIWIL4 piRNAs.

Question 179

TDRP

Answer 179

Testis development-related protein (Protein INM01) Q86YL5 FUNCTION: Contributes to normal sperm motility, but not essential for male fertility.

Question 180

TMEM117

Answer 180

Transmembrane protein 117 Q9H0C3 FUNCTION: Involved in endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress-induced cell death pathway.

Question 181

TMEM190

Answer 181

Transmembrane protein 190 Q8WZ59 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 182

TMEM130

Answer 182

Transmembrane protein 130 Q8N3G9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus membrane .

Question 183

TNC

Answer 183

Tenascin (TN) (Cytotactin) (GMEM) (GP 150-225) (Glioma-associated-extracellular matrix antigen) (Hexabrachion) (JI) (Myotendinous antigen) (Neuronectin) (Tenascin-C) (TN-C) P24821 FUNCTION: Extracellular matrix protein implicated in guidance of migrating neurons as well as axons during development, synaptic plasticity as well as neuronal regeneration. Promotes neurite outgrowth from cortical neurons grown on a monolayer of astrocytes. Ligand for integrins alpha-8/beta-1, alpha-9/beta-1, alpha-V/beta-3 and alpha-V/beta-6. In tumors, stimulates angiogenesis by elongation, migration and sprouting of endothelial cells . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix.

Question 184

TERB2

Answer 184

Telomere repeats-binding bouquet formation protein 2 Q8NHR7 FUNCTION: Meiosis-specific telomere-associated protein involved in meiotic telomere attachment to the nucleus inner membrane, a crucial step for homologous pairing and synapsis. Component of the MAJIN-TERB1-TERB2 complex, which promotes telomere cap exchange by mediating attachment of telomeric DNA to the inner nuclear membrane and replacement of the protective cap of telomeric chromosomes: in early meiosis, the MAJIN-TERB1-TERB2 complex associates with telomeric DNA and the shelterin/telosome complex. During prophase, the complex matures and promotes release of the shelterin/telosome complex from telomeric DNA.

Question 185

VCP

Answer 185

Transitional endoplasmic reticulum ATPase (TER ATPase) (EC 3.4.6) (15S Mg(2+)-ATPase p97 subunit) (Valosin-containing protein) (VCP) P55072 FUNCTION: Necessary for the fragmentation of Golgi stacks during mitosis and for their reassembly after mitosis. Involved in the formation of the transitional endoplasmic reticulum (tER). The transfer of membranes from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus occurs via 50-70 nm transition vesicles which derive from part-rough, part-smooth transitional elements of the endoplasmic reticulum (tER). Vesicle budding from the tER is an ATP-dependent process. The ternary complex containing UFD1, VCP and NPLOC4 binds ubiquitinated proteins and is necessary for the export of misfolded proteins from the ER to the cytoplasm, where they are degraded by the proteasome. The NPLOC4-UFD1-VCP complex regulates spindle disassembly at the end of mitosis and is necessary for the formation of a closed nuclear envelope. Regulates E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity of RNF19A. Component of the VCP/p97-AMFR/gp78 complex that participates in the final step of the sterol-mediated ubiquitination and endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of HMGCR. Involved in endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced pre-emptive quality control, a mechanism that selectively attenuates the translocation of newly synthesized proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum and reroutes them to the cytosol for proteasomal degradation . Plays a role in the regulation of stress granules (SGs) clearance process upon arsenite-induced response . Also involved in DNA damage response: recruited to double-strand breaks (DSBs) sites in a RNF8- and RNF168-dependent manner and promotes the recruitment of TP53BP1 at DNA damage sites (, ). Recruited to stalled replication forks by SPRTN: may act by mediating extraction of DNA polymerase eta (POLH) to prevent excessive translesion DNA synthesis and limit the incidence of mutations induced by DNA damage (, ). Required for cytoplasmic retrotranslocation of stressed/damaged mitochondrial outer-membrane proteins and their subsequent proteasomal degradation (, ). Essential for the maturation of ubiquitin-containing autophagosomes and the clearance of ubiquitinated protein by autophagy (, ). Acts as a negative regulator of type I interferon production by interacting with DDX58/RIG-I: interaction takes place when DDX58/RIG-I is ubiquitinated via 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin on its CARD domains, leading to recruit RNF125 and promote ubiquitination and degradation of DDX58/RIG-I . May play a role in the ubiquitin-dependent sorting of membrane proteins to lysosomes where they undergo degradation . May more particularly play a role in caveolins sorting in cells (, ). By controlling the steady-state expression of the IGF1R receptor, indirectly regulates the insulin-like growth factor receptor signaling pathway .

Question 186

TMEM196

Answer 186

Transmembrane protein 196 Q5HYL7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 187

TEPP

Answer 187

Testis, prostate and placenta-expressed protein Q6URK8 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Question 188

XPA

Answer 188

DNA repair protein complementing XP-A cells (Xeroderma pigmentosum group A-complementing protein) P23025 FUNCTION: Involved in DNA excision repair. Initiates repair by binding to damaged sites with various affinities, depending on the photoproduct and the transcriptional state of the region. Required for UV-induced CHEK1 phosphorylation and the recruitment of CEP164 to cyclobutane pyrimidine dimmers (CPD), sites of DNA damage after UV irradiation.

Question 189

LINC00643

Answer 189

Putative UPF0730 protein encoded by LINC00643 (Long intergenic non-protein coding RNA 643) Q86TS7

Question 190

XPO7

Answer 190

Exportin-7 (Exp7) (Ran-binding protein 16) Q9UIA9 FUNCTION: Mediates the nuclear export of proteins (cargos) with broad substrate specificity. In the nucleus binds cooperatively to its cargo and to the GTPase Ran in its active GTP-bound form. Docking of this trimeric complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated through binding to nucleoporins. Upon transit of a nuclear export complex into the cytoplasm, disassembling of the complex and hydrolysis of Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP (induced by RANBP1 and RANGAP1, respectively) cause release of the cargo from the export receptor. XPO7 then return to the nuclear compartment and mediate another round of transport. The directionality of nuclear export is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus.

Question 191

XPNPEP2

Answer 191

Xaa-Pro aminopeptidase 2 (EC 3.11.9) (Aminoacylproline aminopeptidase) (Membrane-bound aminopeptidase P) (Membrane-bound APP) (Membrane-bound AmP) (mAmP) (X-Pro aminopeptidase 2) O43895 FUNCTION: Membrane-bound metalloprotease which catalyzes the removal of a penultimate prolyl residue from the N-termini of peptides, such as Arg-Pro-Pro. May play a role in the metabolism of the vasodilator bradykinin.

Question 192

UBE2Q2

Answer 192

Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 Q2 (EC 2.2.23) (E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme Q2) (Ubiquitin carrier protein Q2) (Ubiquitin-protein ligase Q2) Q8WVN8 FUNCTION: Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination.

Question 193

XRCC3

Answer 193

DNA repair protein XRCC3 (X-ray repair cross-complementing protein 3) O43542 FUNCTION: Involved in the homologous recombination repair (HRR) pathway of double-stranded DNA, thought to repair chromosomal fragmentation, translocations and deletions. Part of the RAD21 paralog protein complex CX3 which acts in the BRCA1-BRCA2-dependent HR pathway. Upon DNA damage, CX3 acts downstream of RAD51 recruitment; the complex binds predominantly to the intersection of the four duplex arms of the Holliday junction (HJ) and to junctions of replication forks. Involved in HJ resolution and thus in processing HR intermediates late in the DNA repair process; the function may be linked to the CX3 complex and seems to involve GEN1 during mitotic cell cycle progression. Part of a PALB2-scaffolded HR complex containing BRCA2 and RAD51C and which is thought to play a role in DNA repair by HR. Plays a role in regulating mitochondrial DNA copy number under conditions of oxidative stress in the presence of RAD51 and RAD51C. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Cytoplasm. Cytoplasm, perinuclear region. Mitochondrion. Note=Accumulates in discrete nuclear foci prior to DNA damage, and these foci persist throughout the time course of DNA repair.

Question 194

TUT4

Answer 194

Terminal uridylyltransferase 4 (TUTase 4) (EC 2.7.52) (Zinc finger CCHC domain-containing protein 11) Q5TAX3 FUNCTION: Uridylyltransferase that mediates the terminal uridylation of mRNAs with short (less than 25 nucleotides) poly(A) tails, hence facilitating global mRNA decay (, ). Essential for both oocyte maturation and fertility. Through 3' terminal uridylation of mRNA, sculpts, with TUT7, the maternal transcriptome by eliminating transcripts during oocyte growth (By similarity). Involved in microRNA (miRNA)-induced gene silencing through uridylation of deadenylated miRNA targets. Also functions as an integral regulator of microRNA biogenesis using 3 different uridylation mechanisms . Acts as a suppressor of miRNA biogenesis by mediating the terminal uridylation of some miRNA precursors, including that of let-7 (pre-let-7), miR107, miR-143 and miR-200c. Uridylated miRNAs are not processed by Dicer and undergo degradation. Degradation of pre-let-7 contributes to the maintenance of embryonic stem (ES) cell pluripotency (By similarity). Also catalyzes the 3' uridylation of miR-26A, a miRNA that targets IL6 transcript. This abrogates the silencing of IL6 transcript, hence promoting cytokine expression . In the absence of LIN28A, TUT7 and TUT4 monouridylate group II pre-miRNAs, which includes most of pre-let7 members, that shapes an optimal 3' end overhang for efficient processing . Adds oligo-U tails to truncated pre-miRNAS with a 5' overhang which may promote rapid degradation of non-functional pre-miRNA species . May also suppress Toll-like receptor-induced NF-kappa-B activation via binding to T2BP . Does not play a role in replication-dependent histone mRNA degradation . Due to functional redundancy between TUT4 and TUT7, the identification of the specific role of each of these proteins is difficult (, , , , ) (By similarity). TUT4 and TUT7 restrict retrotransposition of long interspersed element-1 (LINE-1) in cooperation with MOV10 counteracting the RNA chaperonne activity of L1RE1. TUT7 uridylates LINE-1 mRNAs in the cytoplasm which inhibits initiation of reverse transcription once in the nucleus, whereas uridylation by TUT4 destabilizes mRNAs in cytoplasmic ribonucleoprotein granules .

Question 195

TRAV24

Answer 195

T cell receptor alpha variable 24 A0A0B4J272 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 196

TRBV28

Answer 196

T cell receptor beta variable 28 A0A5B6 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) beta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 197

TRAV9-2

Answer 197

T cell receptor alpha variable 9-2 A0A087WT02 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 198

TRBV10-2

Answer 198

T cell receptor beta variable 10-2 A0A0K0K1G8 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) beta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 199

TEX264

Answer 199

Testis-expressed protein 264 (Putative secreted protein Zsig11) Q9Y6I9 FUNCTION: Major reticulophagy (also called ER-phagy) receptor that acts independently of other candidate reticulophagy receptors to remodel subdomains of the endoplasmic reticulum into autophagosomes upon nutrient stress, which then fuse with lysosomes for endoplasmic reticulum turnover (, ). The ATG8-containing isolation membrane (IM) cradles a tubular segment of TEX264-positive ER near a three-way junction, allowing the formation of a synapse of 2 juxtaposed membranes with trans interaction between the TEX264 and ATG8 proteins . Expansion of the IM would extend the capture of ER, possibly through a 'zipper-like' process involving continued trans TEX264-ATG8 interactions, until poorly understood mechanisms lead to the fission of relevant membranes and, ultimately, autophagosomal membrane closure .

Question 200

ZNF385A

Answer 200

Zinc finger protein 385A (Hematopoietic zinc finger protein) (Retinal zinc finger protein) Q96PM9 FUNCTION: RNA-binding protein that affects the localization and the translation of a subset of mRNA. May play a role in adipogenesis through binding to the 3'-UTR of CEBPA mRNA and regulation of its translation. Targets ITPR1 mRNA to dendrites in Purkinje cells, and may regulate its activity-dependent translation. With ELAVL1, binds the 3'-UTR of p53/TP53 mRNAs to control their nuclear export induced by CDKN2A. Hence, may regulate p53/TP53 expression and mediate in part the CDKN2A anti-proliferative activity. May also bind CCNB1 mRNA. Alternatively, may also regulate p53/TP53 activity through direct protein-protein interaction. Interacts with p53/TP53 and promotes cell-cycle arrest over apoptosis enhancing preferentially the DNA binding and transactivation of p53/TP53 on cell-cycle arrest target genes over proapoptotic target genes. May also regulate the ubiquitination and stability of CDKN1A promoting DNA damage-induced cell cycle arrest. Also plays a role in megakaryocytes differentiation.

Question 201

ZNF324

Answer 201

Zinc finger protein 324A (Zinc finger protein ZF5128) O75467 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. May be involved in regulation of cell proliferation.

Question 202

TXNL4A

Answer 202

Thioredoxin-like protein 4A (DIM1 protein homolog) (Spliceosomal U5 snRNP-specific 15 kDa protein) (Thioredoxin-like U5 snRNP protein U5-15kD) P83876 FUNCTION: Plays role in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the U5 snRNP and U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP complexes that are involved in spliceosome assembly, and as component of the precatalytic spliceosome (spliceosome B complex).

Question 203

ZBTB25

Answer 203

Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 25 (Zinc finger protein 46) (Zinc finger protein KUP) P24278 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Question 204

ZBTB9

Answer 204

Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 9 Q96C00 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 205

ZBTB5

Answer 205

Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 5 O15062 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 206

ZBTB8B

Answer 206

Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 8B Q8NAP8 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 207

ZC3H11B

Answer 207

Zinc finger CCCH domain-containing protein 11B A0A1B0GTU1 FUNCTION: May play a role in mRNA transport.

Question 208

ZC2HC1A

Answer 208

Zinc finger C2HC domain-containing protein 1A Q96GY0

Question 209

ZC3H13

Answer 209

Zinc finger CCCH domain-containing protein 13 Q5T200 FUNCTION: Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing . Acts as a key regulator of m6A methylation by promoting m6A methylation of mRNAs at the 3'-UTR (By similarity). Controls embryonic stem cells (ESCs) pluripotency via its role in m6A methylation (By similarity). In the WMM complex, anchors component of the MACOM subcomplex in the nucleus (By similarity). Also required for bridging WTAP to the RNA-binding component RBM15 (RBM15 or RBM15B) (By similarity).

Question 210

ZC3H10

Answer 210

Zinc finger CCCH domain-containing protein 10 Q96K80 FUNCTION: Specific regulator of miRNA biogenesis. Binds, via the C3H1-type zinc finger domains, to the binding motif 5'-GCAGCGC-3' on microRNA pri-MIR143 and negatively regulates the processing to mature microRNA.

Question 211

ZC3H3

Answer 211

Zinc finger CCCH domain-containing protein 3 (Smad-interacting CPSF-like factor) Q8IXZ2 FUNCTION: Required for the export of polyadenylated mRNAs from the nucleus . Enhances ACVR1B-induced SMAD-dependent transcription. Binds to single-stranded DNA but not to double-stranded DNA in vitro. Involved in RNA cleavage (By similarity).

Question 212

UGT1A3

Answer 212

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase 1-3 (UDPGT 1-3) (UGT1*3) (UGT1-03) (UGT1.3) (EC 2.1.17) (UDP-glucuronosyltransferase 1-C) (UGT-1C) (UGT1C) (UDP-glucuronosyltransferase 1A3) P35503 FUNCTION: UDPGT is of major importance in the conjugation and subsequent elimination of potentially toxic xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Isoform 2 lacks transferase activity but acts as a negative regulator of isoform 1.

Question 213

UGT1A1

Answer 213

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase 1-1 (UDPGT 1-1) (UGT1*1) (UGT1-01) (UGT1.1) (EC 2.1.17) (Bilirubin-specific UDPGT isozyme 1) (hUG-BR1) (UDP-glucuronosyltransferase 1-A) (UGT-1A) (UGT1A) (UDP-glucuronosyltransferase 1A1) P22309 FUNCTION: UDPGT is of major importance in the conjugation and subsequent elimination of potentially toxic xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. This isoform glucuronidates bilirubin IX-alpha to form both the IX-alpha-C8 and IX-alpha-C12 monoconjugates and diconjugate. Is also able to catalyze the glucuronidation of 17beta-estradiol, 17alpha-ethinylestradiol, 1-hydroxypyrene, 4-methylumbelliferone, 1-naphthol, paranitrophenol, scopoletin, and umbelliferone. Isoform 2 lacks transferase activity but acts as a negative regulator of isoform 1.

Question 214

ZDHHC16

Answer 214

Palmitoyltransferase ZDHHC16 (EC 2.1.225) (Abl-philin 2) (Zinc finger DHHC domain-containing protein 16) (DHHC-16) Q969W1 FUNCTION: Palmitoyl acyltransferase that mediates palmitoylation of proteins such as PLN and ZDHHC6 . Required during embryonic heart development and cardiac function, possibly by mediating palmitoylation of PLN, thereby affecting PLN phosphorylation and homooligomerization (By similarity). Also required for eye development (By similarity). Palmitoylates ZDHHC6, affecting the quaternary assembly of ZDHHC6, its localization, stability and function . May play a role in DNA damage response (By similarity). May be involved in apoptosis regulation (By similarity). Involved in the proliferation of neural stem cells by regulating the FGF/ERK pathway (By similarity).

Question 215

ZDHHC19

Answer 215

Palmitoyltransferase ZDHHC19 (EC 2.1.225) (Zinc finger DHHC domain-containing protein 19) (DHHC-19) Q8WVZ1 FUNCTION: Palmitoyltransferase that mediates palmitoylation of STAT3 and RRAS (, ). Palmitoylation of STAT3 induces the homodimerization and transcriptional activation of STAT3, thereby, promoting inflammation and cancer . Palmitoylation of RRAS is linked to cell viability . May be involved in S-stearoylation of STAT3 (Probable).

Question 216

ZDHHC9

Answer 216

Palmitoyltransferase ZDHHC9 (EC 2.1.225) (Zinc finger DHHC domain-containing protein 9) (DHHC-9) (DHHC9) (Zinc finger protein 379) (Zinc finger protein 380) Q9Y397 FUNCTION: The ZDHHC9-GOLGA7 complex is a palmitoyltransferase specific for HRAS and NRAS.

Question 217

ZDHHC8

Answer 217

Probable palmitoyltransferase ZDHHC8 (EC 2.1.225) (Zinc finger DHHC domain-containing protein 8) (DHHC-8) (Zinc finger protein 378) Q9ULC8 FUNCTION: Palmitoyltransferase involved in glutamatergic transmission. Mediates palmitoylation of ABCA1.

Question 218

ZFP91

Answer 218

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase ZFP91 (EC 2.2.27) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase ZFP91) (Zinc finger protein 757) (Zinc finger protein 91 homolog) (Zfp-91) Q96JP5 FUNCTION: Atypical E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of MAP3K14/NIK, leading to stabilize and activate MAP3K14/NIK. It thereby acts as an activator of the non-canonical NF-kappa-B2/NFKB2 pathway. May also play an important role in cell proliferation and/or anti-apoptosis.

Question 219

HIVEP3

Answer 219

Transcription factor HIVEP3 (Human immunodeficiency virus type I enhancer-binding protein 3) (Kappa-B and V(D)J recombination signal sequences-binding protein) (Kappa-binding protein 1) (KBP-1) (Zinc finger protein ZAS3) Q5T1R4 FUNCTION: Plays a role of transcription factor; binds to recognition signal sequences (Rss heptamer) for somatic recombination of immunoglobulin and T-cell receptor gene segments; Binds also to the kappa-B motif of gene such as S100A4, involved in cell progression and differentiation. Kappa-B motif is a gene regulatory element found in promoters and enhancers of genes involved in immunity, inflammation, and growth and that responds to viral antigens, mitogens, and cytokines. Involvement of HIVEP3 in cell growth is strengthened by the fact that its down-regulation promotes cell cycle progression with ultimate formation of multinucleated giant cells. Strongly inhibits TNF-alpha-induced NF-kappa-B activation; Interferes with nuclear factor NF-kappa-B by several mechanisms: as transcription factor, by competing for Kappa-B motif and by repressing transcription in the nucleus; through a non transcriptional process, by inhibiting nuclear translocation of RELA by association with TRAF2, an adapter molecule in the tumor necrosis factor signaling, which blocks the formation of IKK complex. Interaction with TRAF proteins inhibits both NF-Kappa-B-mediated and c-Jun N-terminal kinase/JNK-mediated responses that include apoptosis and proinflammatory cytokine gene expression. Positively regulates the expression of IL2 in T-cell. Essential regulator of adult bone formation.

Question 220

ZNF850

Answer 220

Zinc finger protein 850 A8MQ14 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 221

ZNF773

Answer 221

Zinc finger protein 773 (Zinc finger protein 419B) Q6PK81 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 222

ZNF33B

Answer 222

Zinc finger protein 33B (Zinc finger protein 11B) (Zinc finger protein KOX2) Q06732 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 223

ZNRF2

Answer 223

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase ZNRF2 (EC 2.2.27) (Protein Ells2) (RING finger protein 202) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase ZNRF2) (Zinc/RING finger protein 2) Q8NHG8 FUNCTION: May play a role in the establishment and maintenance of neuronal transmission and plasticity via its ubiquitin ligase activity. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates.

Question 224

ZNF554

Answer 224

Zinc finger protein 554 Q86TJ5 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 225

ZNF611

Answer 225

Zinc finger protein 611 Q8N823 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 226

ZNF98

Answer 226

Zinc finger protein 98 (Zinc finger protein 739) (Zinc finger protein F7175) A6NK75 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 227

ZNF639

Answer 227

Zinc finger protein 639 (Zinc finger protein ANC_2H01) (Zinc finger protein ZASC1) Q9UID6 FUNCTION: Binds DNA and may function as a transcriptional repressor.

Question 228

TTC24

Answer 228

Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 24 (TPR repeat protein 24) A2A3L6

Question 229

TTLL10

Answer 229

Inactive polyglycylase TTLL10 (Tubulin--tyrosine ligase-like protein 10) Q6ZVT0 FUNCTION: Inactive polyglycylase.

Question 230

WRN

Answer 230

Werner syndrome ATP-dependent helicase (EC 3.4.12) (DNA helicase, RecQ-like type 3) (RecQ3) (Exonuclease WRN) (EC 3.-.-) (RecQ protein-like 2) Q14191 FUNCTION: Multifunctional enzyme that has both magnesium and ATP-dependent DNA-helicase activity and 3'->5' exonuclease activity towards double-stranded DNA with a 5'-overhang. Has no nuclease activity towards single-stranded DNA or blunt-ended double-stranded DNA. Binds preferentially to DNA substrates containing alternate secondary structures, such as replication forks and Holliday junctions. May play an important role in the dissociation of joint DNA molecules that can arise as products of homologous recombination, at stalled replication forks or during DNA repair. Alleviates stalling of DNA polymerases at the site of DNA lesions. Important for genomic integrity. Plays a role in the formation of DNA replication focal centers; stably associates with foci elements generating binding sites for RP-A (By similarity). Plays a role in double-strand break repair after gamma-irradiation.

Question 231

VPS28

Answer 231

Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 28 homolog (H-Vps28) (ESCRT-I complex subunit VPS28) Q9UK41 FUNCTION: Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process.

Question 232

VPS54

Answer 232

Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 54 (Hepatocellular carcinoma protein 8) (Tumor antigen HOM-HCC-8) (Tumor antigen SLP-8p) Q9P1Q0 FUNCTION: Acts as component of the GARP complex that is involved in retrograde transport from early and late endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN). The GARP complex is required for the maintenance of the cycling of mannose 6-phosphate receptors between the TGN and endosomes, this cycling is necessary for proper lysosomal sorting of acid hydrolases such as CTSD . Within the GARP complex, required to tether the complex to the TGN. Not involved in endocytic recycling .

Question 233

VSTM5

Answer 233

V-set and transmembrane domain-containing protein 5 A8MXK1 FUNCTION: Cell adhesion-like membrane protein of the central nervous system (CNS) which modulates both the position and complexity of central neurons by altering their membrane morphology and dynamics. Involved in the formation of neuronal dendrites and protrusions including dendritic filopodia. In synaptogenesis, regulates synapse formation by altering dendritic spine morphology and actin distribution. Promotes formation of unstable neuronal spines such as thin and branched types. Regulates neuronal morphogenesis and migration during cortical development in the brain.

Question 234

VTN

Answer 234

Vitronectin (VN) (S-protein) (Serum-spreading factor) (V75) [Cleaved into: Vitronectin V65 subunit; Vitronectin V10 subunit; Somatomedin-B] P04004 FUNCTION: Vitronectin is a cell adhesion and spreading factor found in serum and tissues. Vitronectin interact with glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans. Is recognized by certain members of the integrin family and serves as a cell-to-substrate adhesion molecule. Inhibitor of the membrane-damaging effect of the terminal cytolytic complement pathway.; FUNCTION: Somatomedin-B is a growth hormone-dependent serum factor with protease-inhibiting activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space.

Question 235

RPS19

Answer 235

40S ribosomal protein S19 (Small ribosomal subunit protein eS19) P39019 FUNCTION: Required for pre-rRNA processing and maturation of 40S ribosomal subunits. Note=Located more specifically in the nucleoli.

Question 236

RPS3

Answer 236

40S ribosomal protein S3 (EC 4.99.18) (Small ribosomal subunit protein uS3) P23396 FUNCTION: Involved in translation as a component of the 40S small ribosomal subunit . Has endonuclease activity and plays a role in repair of damaged DNA . Cleaves phosphodiester bonds of DNAs containing altered bases with broad specificity and cleaves supercoiled DNA more efficiently than relaxed DNA . Displays high binding affinity for 7,8-dihydro-8-oxoguanine (8-oxoG), a common DNA lesion caused by reactive oxygen species (ROS) . Has also been shown to bind with similar affinity to intact and damaged DNA . Stimulates the N-glycosylase activity of the base excision protein OGG1 . Enhances the uracil excision activity of UNG1 . Also stimulates the cleavage of the phosphodiester backbone by APEX1 . When located in the mitochondrion, reduces cellular ROS levels and mitochondrial DNA damage . Has also been shown to negatively regulate DNA repair in cells exposed to hydrogen peroxide . Plays a role in regulating transcription as part of the NF-kappa-B p65-p50 complex where it binds to the RELA/p65 subunit, enhances binding of the complex to DNA and promotes transcription of target genes . Represses its own translation by binding to its cognate mRNA . Binds to and protects TP53/p53 from MDM2-mediated ubiquitination . Involved in spindle formation and chromosome movement during mitosis by regulating microtubule polymerization . Involved in induction of apoptosis through its role in activation of CASP8 . Induces neuronal apoptosis by interacting with the E2F1 transcription factor and acting synergistically with it to up-regulate pro-apoptotic proteins BCL2L11/BIM and HRK/Dp5 . Interacts with TRADD following exposure to UV radiation and induces apoptosis by caspase-dependent JNK activation .

Question 237

ZIC5

Answer 237

Zinc finger protein ZIC 5 (Zinc finger protein of the cerebellum 5) Q96T25 FUNCTION: Essential for neural crest development, converting cells from an epidermal fate to a neural crest cell fate. Binds to DNA (By similarity).

Question 238

WDFY4

Answer 238

WD repeat- and FYVE domain-containing protein 4 Q6ZS81 FUNCTION: Plays a critical role in the regulation of cDC1-mediated cross-presentation of viral and tumor antigens in dendritic cells. Mechanistically, acts near the plasma membrane and interacts with endosomal membranes to promote endosomal-to-cytosol antigen trafficking. Plays also a role in B-cell survival through regulation of autophagy.

Question 239

ZNF503-AS2

Answer 239

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by ZNF503-AS2 (ZNF503 antisense RNA 2) A6NEH8

Question 240

ZNF443

Answer 240

Zinc finger protein 443 (Krueppel-type zinc finger protein ZK1) Q9Y2A4 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 241

ZNF717

Answer 241

Zinc finger protein 717 (Krueppel-like factor X17) Q9BY31 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 242

ZNF404

Answer 242

Zinc finger protein 404 Q494X3 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 243

ZNF23

Answer 243

Zinc finger protein 23 (Zinc finger protein 359) (Zinc finger protein 612) (Zinc finger protein KOX16) P17027 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. May have a role in embryonic development. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 244

ZNF48

Answer 244

Zinc finger protein 48 (Zinc finger protein 553) Q96MX3 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 245

ZNF620

Answer 245

Zinc finger protein 620 Q6ZNG0 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 246

WNK4

Answer 246

Serine/threonine-protein kinase WNK4 (EC 2.11.1) (Protein kinase lysine-deficient 4) (Protein kinase with no lysine 4) Q96J92 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine kinase which plays an important role in the regulation of electrolyte homeostasis, cell signaling, survival and proliferation. Acts as an activator and inhibitor of sodium-coupled chloride cotransporters and potassium-coupled chloride cotransporters respectively. Activates SCNN1A, SCNN1B, SCNN1D, SGK1, TRPV5 and TRPV6. Regulates the activity of the thiazide-sensitive Na-Cl cotransporter, SLC12A3, by phosphorylation which appears to prevent membrane trafficking of SLC12A3. Also inhibits the renal K(+) channel, KCNJ1, via a kinase-independent mechanism by which it induces clearance of the protein from the cell surface by clathrin-dependent endocytosis. WNK4 appears to act as a molecular switch that can vary the balance between NaCl reabsorption and K(+) secretion to maintain integrated homeostasis. Phosphorylates NEDD4L. Acts as a scaffold to inhibit SLC4A4 as well as CFTR activities and surface expression, recruits STK39 which mediates the inhibition (By similarity).

Question 247

ZNF559

Answer 247

Zinc finger protein 559 Q9BR84 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 248

TSPAN5

Answer 248

Tetraspanin-5 (Tspan-5) (Tetraspan NET-4) (Transmembrane 4 superfamily member 9) P62079 FUNCTION: Regulates ADAM10 maturation and trafficking to the cell surface. Promotes ADAM10-mediated cleavage of CD44.

Question 249

WIPI1

Answer 249

WD repeat domain phosphoinositide-interacting protein 1 (WIPI-1) (Atg18 protein homolog) (WD40 repeat protein interacting with phosphoinositides of 49 kDa) (WIPI 49 kDa) Q5MNZ9 FUNCTION: Component of the autophagy machinery that controls the major intracellular degradation process by which cytoplasmic materials are packaged into autophagosomes and delivered to lysosomes for degradation . Plays an important role in starvation- and calcium-mediated autophagy, as well as in mitophagy . Functions downstream of the ULK1 and PI3-kinases that produce phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P) on membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum once activated . Binds phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P), and maybe other phosphoinositides including PtdIns3,5P2 and PtdIns5P, and is recruited to phagophore assembly sites at the endoplasmic reticulum membranes . There, it assists WIPI2 in the recruitment of ATG12-ATG5-ATG16L1, a complex that directly controls the elongation of the nascent autophagosomal membrane . Involved in xenophagy of Staphylococcus aureus. Invading S.aureus cells become entrapped in autophagosome-like WIPI1 positive vesicles targeted for lysosomal degradation. Plays also a distinct role in controlling the transcription of melanogenic enzymes and melanosome maturation, a process that is distinct from starvation-induced autophagy. May also regulate the trafficking of proteins involved in the mannose-6-phosphate receptor (MPR) recycling pathway. ; Peripheral membrane protein. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton. Note=Trans elements of the Golgi and peripheral endosomes. Dynamically cycles through these compartments and is susceptible to conditions that modulate membrane flux. Enriched in clathrin-coated vesicles. Upon starvation-induced autophagy, accumulates at subcellular structures in the cytoplasm: enlarged vesicular and lasso-like structures, and large cup-shaped structures predominantly around the nucleus. Recruitment to autophagic membranes is controlled by MTMR14. Labile microtubules specifically recruit markers of autophagosome formation like WIPI1, whereas mature autophagosomes may bind to stable microtubules.

Question 250

ZNF7

Answer 250

Zinc finger protein 7 (Zinc finger protein HF.16) (Zinc finger protein KOX4) P17097 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 251

ZNF653

Answer 251

Zinc finger protein 653 (67 kDa zinc finger protein) (Zinc finger protein Zip67) Q96CK0 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor. May repress NR5A1, PPARG, NR1H3, NR4A2, ESR1 and NR3C1 transcriptional activity.

Question 252

WNT11

Answer 252

Protein Wnt-11 O96014 FUNCTION: Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Probable developmental protein. May be a signaling molecule which affects the development of discrete regions of tissues. Is likely to signal over only few cell diameters. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix.

Question 253

VSNL1

Answer 253

Visinin-like protein 1 (VILIP) (VLP-1) (Hippocalcin-like protein 3) (HLP3) P62760 FUNCTION: Regulates (in vitro) the inhibition of rhodopsin phosphorylation in a calcium-dependent manner.

Question 254

TTC33

Answer 254

Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 33 (TPR repeat protein 33) (Osmosis-responsive factor) Q6PID6

Question 255

ZSWIM6

Answer 255

Zinc finger SWIM domain-containing protein 6 Q9HCJ5 FUNCTION: involved in nervous system development, important for striatal morphology and motor regulation.

Question 256

ZXDC

Answer 256

Zinc finger protein ZXDC (ZXD-like zinc finger protein) Q2QGD7 FUNCTION: Cooperates with CIITA to promote transcription of MHC class I and MHC class II genes.

Question 257

VN1R1

Answer 257

Vomeronasal type-1 receptor 1 (G-protein coupled receptor GPCR24) (hGPCR24) (V1r-like receptor 1) (V3r-related gene protein) (Vomeronasal olfactory receptor chromosome 19 subtype I member 1) Q9GZP7 FUNCTION: Putative pheromone receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Question 258

RXRA

Answer 258

Retinoic acid receptor RXR-alpha (Nuclear receptor subfamily 2 group B member 1) (Retinoid X receptor alpha) P19793 FUNCTION: Receptor for retinoic acid that acts as a transcription factor (, ). Forms homo- or heterodimers with retinoic acid receptors (RARs) and binds to target response elements in response to their ligands, all-trans or 9-cis retinoic acid, to regulate gene expression in various biological processes (, , , , , , , ). The RAR/RXR heterodimers bind to the retinoic acid response elements (RARE) composed of tandem 5'-AGGTCA-3' sites known as DR1-DR5 to regulate transcription (, , , , ). The high affinity ligand for retinoid X receptors (RXRs) is 9-cis retinoic acid . In the absence of ligand, the RXR-RAR heterodimers associate with a multiprotein complex containing transcription corepressors that induce histone deacetylation, chromatin condensation and transcriptional suppression . On ligand binding, the corepressors dissociate from the receptors and coactivators are recruited leading to transcriptional activation (, ). Serves as a common heterodimeric partner for a number of nuclear receptors, such as RARA, RARB and PPARA (, , , ). The RXRA/RARB heterodimer can act as a transcriptional repressor or transcriptional activator, depending on the RARE DNA element context . The RXRA/PPARA heterodimer is required for PPARA transcriptional activity on fatty acid oxidation genes such as ACOX1 and the P450 system genes . Together with RARA, positively regulates microRNA-10a expression, thereby inhibiting the GATA6/VCAM1 signaling response to pulsatile shear stress in vascular endothelial cells . Acts as an enhancer of RARA binding to RARE DNA element . May facilitate the nuclear import of heterodimerization partners such as VDR and NR4A1 (, ). Promotes myelin debris phagocytosis and remyelination by macrophages . Plays a role in the attenuation of the innate immune system in response to viral infections, possibly by negatively regulating the transcription of antiviral genes such as type I IFN genes . Involved in the regulation of calcium signaling by repressing ITPR2 gene expression, thereby controlling cellular senescence .

Question 259

TRAPPC2B

Answer 259

Trafficking protein particle complex subunit 2B (MBP-1-interacting protein 2A) (MIP-2A) P0DI82 FUNCTION: Prevents transcriptional repression and induction of cell death by ENO1. May play a role in vesicular transport from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi.

Question 260

TAF1

Answer 260

Transcription initiation factor TFIID subunit 1 (EC 2.1.48) (EC 2.11.1) (Cell cycle gene 1 protein) (TBP-associated factor 250 kDa) (p250) (Transcription initiation factor TFIID 250 kDa subunit) (TAF(II)250) (TAFII-250) (TAFII250) P21675 FUNCTION: Largest component and core scaffold of the TFIID basal transcription factor complex (, ). Contains novel N- and C-terminal Ser/Thr kinase domains which can autophosphorylate or transphosphorylate other transcription factors. Phosphorylates TP53 on 'Thr-55' which leads to MDM2-mediated degradation of TP53. Phosphorylates GTF2A1 and GTF2F1 on Ser residues. Possesses DNA-binding activity . Essential for progression of the G1 phase of the cell cycle (, , , , , , ). Exhibits histone acetyltransferase activity towards histones H3 and H4 .

Question 261

TCF23

Answer 261

Transcription factor 23 (TCF-23) (Class A basic helix-loop-helix protein 24) (bHLHa24) Q7RTU1 FUNCTION: Inhibits E-box-mediated binding and transactivation of bHLH factors. Inhibitory effect is similar to that of ID proteins. Inhibits the formation of TCF3 and MYOD1 homodimers and heterodimers. Lacks DNA binding activity. Seems to play a role in the inhibition of myogenesis (By similarity).

Question 262

TPT1P8

Answer 262

Putative translationally-controlled tumor protein-like protein TPT1P8 (Putative apoptosis inhibitor FKSG2) Q9HAU6

Question 263

TRAJ42

Answer 263

T cell receptor alpha joining 42 A0A075B6Y9 FUNCTION: J region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn, ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 264

UBE2H

Answer 264

Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 H (EC 2.2.23) ((E3-independent) E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme H) (EC 2.2.24) (E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme H) (UbcH2) (Ubiquitin carrier protein H) (Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2-20K) (Ubiquitin-protein ligase H) P62256 FUNCTION: Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins (, , ). E2 ubiquitin conjugating enzyme that transfers ubiquitin to MAEA, a core component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex . In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11'- and 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination . Capable, in vitro, to ubiquitinate histone H2A .

Question 265

YKT6

Answer 265

Synaptobrevin homolog YKT6 (EC 2.1.-) O15498 FUNCTION: Vesicular soluble NSF attachment protein receptor (v-SNARE) mediating vesicle docking and fusion to a specific acceptor cellular compartment. Functions in endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi transport; as part of a SNARE complex composed of GOSR1, GOSR2 and STX5. Functions in early/recycling endosome to TGN transport; as part of a SNARE complex composed of BET1L, GOSR1 and STX5. Has a S-palmitoyl transferase activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytosol. Cytoplasmic vesicle membrane; Lipid-anchor; Cytoplasmic side. Golgi apparatus membrane; Lipid-anchor; Cytoplasmic side. Note=Probably cycles through vesicles between Golgi and endosomes.

Question 266

TRAV39

Answer 266

T cell receptor alpha variable 39 A0A0B4J263 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 267

PLAUR

Answer 267

Urokinase plasminogen activator surface receptor (U-PAR) (uPAR) (Monocyte activation antigen Mo3) (CD antigen CD87) Q03405 FUNCTION: Acts as a receptor for urokinase plasminogen activator. Plays a role in localizing and promoting plasmin formation. Mediates the proteolysis-independent signal transduction activation effects of U-PA. It is subject to negative-feedback regulation by U-PA which cleaves it into an inactive form. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Question 268

TRAV9-1

Answer 268

T cell receptor alpha variable 9-1 A0A075B6T8 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 269

TRAV3

Answer 269

T cell receptor alpha variable 3 A0A0B4J244 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 270

UPK3B

Answer 270

Uroplakin-3b (UP3b) (Uroplakin IIIb) (UPIIIb) (p35) Q9BT76 FUNCTION: Component of the asymmetric unit membrane (AUM); a highly specialized biomembrane elaborated by terminally differentiated urothelial cells. May play an important role in AUM-cytoskeleton interaction in terminally differentiated urothelial cells. It also contributes to the formation of urothelial glycocalyx which may play an important role in preventing bacterial adherence (By similarity).

Question 271

TRBV6-9

Answer 271

T cell receptor beta variable 6-9 A0A0J9YX75 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) beta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 272

TRBV5-5

Answer 272

T cell receptor beta variable 5-5 A0A597 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) beta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 273

TTBK2

Answer 273

Tau-tubulin kinase 2 (EC 2.11.1) Q6IQ55 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine kinase that acts as a key regulator of ciliogenesis: controls the initiation of ciliogenesis by binding to the distal end of the basal body and promoting the removal of CCP110, which caps the mother centriole, leading to the recruitment of IFT proteins, which build the ciliary axoneme. Has some substrate preference for proteins that are already phosphorylated on a Tyr residue at the +2 position relative to the phosphorylation site. Able to phosphorylate tau on serines in vitro.

Question 274

TRBV7-4

Answer 274

T cell receptor beta variable 7-4 A0A1B0GX95 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) beta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 275

TRBV7-9

Answer 275

T cell receptor beta variable 7-9 P04435 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) beta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 276

TRBV10-3

Answer 276

T cell receptor beta variable 10-3 A0A0K0K1G6 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) beta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Question 277

ZNF876P

Answer 277

Putative zinc finger protein 876 Q49A33 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 278

ZNF585B

Answer 278

Zinc finger protein 585B (zinc finger protein 41-like protein) Q52M93 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 279

SLC25A1

Answer 279

Tricarboxylate transport protein, mitochondrial (Citrate transport protein) (CTP) (Solute carrier family 25 member 1) (Tricarboxylate carrier protein) P53007 FUNCTION: Citrate transporter that mediates the exchange of mitochondrial citrate for cytosolic malate (, ). Also able to mediate the exchange of citrate for isocitrate, phosphoenolpyruvate, cis- but not trans-aconitate and to a lesser extend maleate and succinate . Important for the bioenergetics of hepatic cells as it provides a carbon source for fatty acid and sterol biosyntheses, and NAD(+) for the glycolytic pathway. Required for proper neuromuscular junction formation (Probable).

Question 280

ZAR1L

Answer 280

ZAR1-like protein A6NP61

Question 281

ZBTB43

Answer 281

Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 43 (Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 22B) (Zinc finger protein 297B) (ZnF-x) O43298 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 282

ZBTB38

Answer 282

Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 38 Q8NAP3 FUNCTION: Transcriptional regulator with bimodal DNA-binding specificity. Binds with a higher affinity to methylated CpG dinucleotides in the consensus sequence 5'-CGCG-3' but can also bind to E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3'). Can also bind specifically to a single methyl-CpG pair. Represses transcription in a methyl-CpG-dependent manner . Plays an important role in regulating DNA replication and common fragile sites (CFS) stability in a RBBP6- and MCM10-dependent manner; represses expression of MCM10 which plays an important role in DNA-replication . Acts as a transcriptional activator. May be involved in the differentiation and/or survival of late postmitotic neurons (By similarity).

Question 283

ZCCHC10

Answer 283

Zinc finger CCHC domain-containing protein 10 Q8TBK6

Question 284

ZCCHC8

Answer 284

Zinc finger CCHC domain-containing protein 8 (TRAMP-like complex RNA-binding factor ZCCHC8) Q6NZY4 FUNCTION: Scaffolding subunit of the trimeric nuclear exosome targeting (NEXT) complex. NEXT functions as an RNA exosome cofactor that directs a subset of non-coding short-lived RNAs for exosomal degradation. NEXT is involved in surveillance and turnover of aberrant transcripts and non-coding RNAs . May be involved in pre-mRNA splicing (Probable).

Question 285

UEVLD

Answer 285

Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 variant 3 (UEV-3) (EV and lactate/malate dehydrogenase domain-containing protein) Q8IX04 FUNCTION: Possible negative regulator of polyubiquitination.

Question 286

ZDHHC7

Answer 286

Palmitoyltransferase ZDHHC7 (EC 2.1.225) (Zinc finger DHHC domain-containing protein 7) (DHHC-7) Q9NXF8 FUNCTION: Palmitoyltransferase with broad specificity (, ). Palmitoylates JAM3 . Palmitoylates SNAP25 and DLG4/PSD95 (By similarity). Palmitoylates sex steroid hormone receptors, including ESR1, PGR and AR, thereby regulating their targeting to the plasma membrane and their function in rapid intracellular signaling upon binding of sex hormones . May play a role in follicle stimulation hormone (FSH) activation of testicular Sertoli cells (By similarity).

Question 287

HIVEP2

Answer 287

Transcription factor HIVEP2 (Human immunodeficiency virus type I enhancer-binding protein 2) (HIV-EP2) (MHC-binding protein 2) (MBP-2) P31629 FUNCTION: This protein specifically binds to the DNA sequence 5'-GGGACTTTCC-3' which is found in the enhancer elements of numerous viral promoters such as those of SV40, CMV, or HIV1. In addition, related sequences are found in the enhancer elements of a number of cellular promoters, including those of the class I MHC, interleukin-2 receptor, somatostatin receptor II, and interferon-beta genes. It may act in T-cell activation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Question 288

ZFAND1

Answer 288

AN1-type zinc finger protein 1 (Zinc finger AN1-type-containing protein 1) Q8TCF1 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the regulation of cytoplasmic stress granules (SGs) turnover. SGs are dynamic and transient cytoplasmic ribonucleoprotein assemblies important for cellular protein homeostasis when protein production is suspended after acute exogenous stress . Associates with SGs and is involved in the efficient and specific arsenite-induced clearance process of SGs through the recruitment of the ubiquitin-selective ATPase VCP and the 26S proteasome . This process requires both complexes for efficient degradation of damaged ubiquitinated SG proteins during recovery from arsenite stress, and hence avoiding aberrant cytoplasmic SGs degradation via autophagy .

Question 289

ZFP41

Answer 289

Zinc finger protein 41 homolog (Zfp-41) Q8N8Y5 FUNCTION: A putative DNA-binding regulatory protein associated with meiosis in spermatogenesis.

Question 290

VEGFB

Answer 290

Vascular endothelial growth factor B (VEGF-B) (VEGF-related factor) (VRF) P49765 FUNCTION: Growth factor for endothelial cells. VEGF-B167 binds heparin and neuropilin-1 whereas the binding to neuropilin-1 of VEGF-B186 is regulated by proteolysis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted. Note=Secreted but remains associated to cells or to the extracellular matrix unless released by heparin.

Question 291

WDHD1

Answer 291

WD repeat and HMG-box DNA-binding protein 1 (Acidic nucleoplasmic DNA-binding protein 1) (And-1) O75717 FUNCTION: Acts as a replication initiation factor that brings together the MCM2-7 helicase and the DNA polymerase alpha/primase complex in order to initiate DNA replication.

Question 292

WBP2

Answer 292

WW domain-binding protein 2 (WBP-2) Q969T9 FUNCTION: Acts as transcriptional coactivator of estrogen and progesterone receptors (ESR1 and PGR) upon hormone activation . In presence of estrogen, binds to ESR1-responsive promoters . Required for YAP1 coactivation function on PGR activity . Synergizes with WBP2 in enhancing PGR activity . Modulates expression of post-synaptic scaffolding proteins via regulation of ESR1, ESR2 and PGR (By similarity).

Question 293

TPSG1

Answer 293

Tryptase gamma (EC 3.21.-) (Serine protease 31) (Transmembrane tryptase) [Cleaved into: Tryptase gamma light chain; Tryptase gamma heavy chain] Q9NRR2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 294

WDR55

Answer 294

WD repeat-containing protein 55 Q9H6Y2 FUNCTION: Nucleolar protein that acts as a modulator of rRNA synthesis. Plays a central role during organogenesis (By similarity).

Question 295

ZNF217

Answer 295

Zinc finger protein 217 O75362 FUNCTION: Binds to the promoters of target genes and functions as repressor. Promotes cell proliferation and antagonizes cell death. Promotes phosphorylation of AKT1 at 'Ser-473'.

Question 296

ZNF200

Answer 296

Zinc finger protein 200 P98182 FUNCTION: Could have a role in spermatogenesis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 297

ZNF174

Answer 297

Zinc finger protein 174 (AW-1) (Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 8) Q15697 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Question 298

ZNF283

Answer 298

Zinc finger protein 283 (Zinc finger protein HZF19) Q8N7M2 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 299

ZNF248

Answer 299

Zinc finger protein 248 Q8NDW4 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 300

UNC93B1

Answer 300

Protein unc-93 homolog B1 (Unc-93B1) (hUNC93B1) Q9H1C4 FUNCTION: Plays an important role in innate and adaptive immunity by regulating nucleotide-sensing Toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling. Required for the transport of a subset of TLRs (including TLR3, TLR7 and TLR9) from the endoplasmic reticulum to endolysosomes where they can engage pathogen nucleotides and activate signaling cascades. May play a role in autoreactive B-cells removal.

Question 301

ZNF689

Answer 301

Zinc finger protein 689 Q96CS4 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 302

TSGA13

Answer 302

Testis-specific gene 13 protein Q96PP4

Question 303

ZNF726

Answer 303

Zinc finger protein 726 A6NNF4 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 304

ZNF414

Answer 304

Zinc finger protein 414 Q96IQ9 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 305

ZNF420

Answer 305

Zinc finger protein 420 Q8TAQ5 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 306

SORBS3

Answer 306

Vinexin (SH3-containing adapter molecule 1) (SCAM-1) (Sorbin and SH3 domain-containing protein 3) O60504 FUNCTION: Vinexin alpha isoform promotes up-regulation of actin stress fiber formation. Vinexin beta isoform plays a role in cell spreading and enhances the activation of JNK/SAPK in response to EGF stimulation by using its third SH3 domain. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform Alpha]: Cell junction .

Question 307

ZNF692

Answer 307

Zinc finger protein 692 Q9BU19 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 308

WHAMM

Answer 308

WASP homolog-associated protein with actin, membranes and microtubules (WAS protein homology region 2 domain-containing protein 1) (WH2 domain-containing protein 1) Q8TF30 FUNCTION: Acts as a nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) that stimulates Arp2/3-mediated actin polymerization both at the Golgi apparatus and along tubular membranes. Its activity in membrane tubulation requires F-actin and interaction with microtubules. Proposed to use coordinated actin-nucleating and microtubule-binding activities of distinct WHAMM molecules to drive membrane tubule elongation; when MT-bound can recruit and remodel membrane vesicles but is prevented to activate the Arp2/3 complex. Involved as a regulator of Golgi positioning and morphology. Participates in vesicle transport between the reticulum endoplasmic and the Golgi complex. Required for RhoD-dependent actin reorganization such as in cell adhesion and cell migration.

Question 309

ZNF747

Answer 309

KRAB domain-containing protein ZNF747 Q9BV97

Question 310

ZNF485

Answer 310

Zinc finger protein 485 Q8NCK3 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 311

ZNF572

Answer 311

Zinc finger protein 572 Q7Z3I7 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Question 312

ZNRF4

Answer 312

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase ZNRF4 (EC 2.2.27) (Nixin) (RING finger protein 204) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase ZNRF4) (Zinc/RING finger protein 4) Q8WWF5 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which specifically induces ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of CANX within the endoplasmic reticulum . Could have a role in spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Question 313

ZNRD2

Answer 313

Protein ZNRD2 (Autoantigen p27) (Sjoegren syndrome/scleroderma autoantigen 1) (Zinc ribbon domain-containing protein 2) O60232 FUNCTION: Might play a role in mitosis. Antigenic molecule. Could be a centromere-associated protein. May induce anti-centromere antibodies.

Question 314

ZNF582

Answer 314

Zinc finger protein 582 Q96NG8 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 315

PPIP5K2

Answer 315

Inositol hexakisphosphate and diphosphoinositol-pentakisphosphate kinase 2 (EC 2.4.21) (EC 2.4.24) (Diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate kinase 2) (Histidine acid phosphatase domain-containing protein 1) (InsP6 and PP-IP5 kinase 2) (VIP1 homolog 2) (hsVIP2) O43314 FUNCTION: Bifunctional inositol kinase that acts in concert with the IP6K kinases IP6K1, IP6K2 and IP6K3 to synthesize the diphosphate group-containing inositol pyrophosphates diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate, PP-InsP5, and bis-diphosphoinositol tetrakisphosphate, (PP)2-InsP4 (, , , ). PP-InsP5 and (PP)2-InsP4, also respectively called InsP7 and InsP8, regulate a variety of cellular processes, including apoptosis, vesicle trafficking, cytoskeletal dynamics, exocytosis, insulin signaling and neutrophil activation (, , , ). Phosphorylates inositol hexakisphosphate (InsP6) at positions 1 or 3 to produce PP-InsP5 which is in turn phosphorylated by IP6Ks to produce (PP)2-InsP4 (, ). Alternatively, phosphorylates at position 1 or 3 PP-InsP5, produced by IP6Ks from InsP6, to produce (PP)2-InsP4 (, ). Required for normal hearing .

Question 316

ZNF624

Answer 316

Zinc finger protein 624 Q9P2J8 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 317

TSPY4

Answer 317

Testis-specific Y-encoded protein 4 P0CV99

Question 318

WWC2

Answer 318

Protein WWC2 (BH-3-only member B) (WW domain-containing protein 2) Q6AWC2

Question 319

ZSCAN20

Answer 319

Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 20 (Zinc finger protein 31) (Zinc finger protein 360) (Zinc finger protein KOX29) P17040 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 320

VPS35L

Answer 320

VPS35 endosomal protein sorting factor-like (Esophageal cancer-associated protein) Q7Z3J2 FUNCTION: Acts as component of the retriever complex. The retriever complex is a heterotrimeric complex related to retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC) and essential for retromer-independent retrieval and recycling of numerous cargos such as integrin alpha-5/beta-1 (ITGA5:ITGB1) . The recruitment of the retriever complex to the endosomal membrane involves CCC and WASH complexes . In the endosomes, drives the retrieval and recycling of NxxY-motif-containing cargo proteins by coupling to SNX17, a cargo essential for the homeostatic maintenance of numerous cell surface proteins associated with processes that include cell migration, cell adhesion, nutrient supply and cell signaling . Involved in copper-dependent ATP7A trafficking between the trans-Golgi network and vesicles in the cell periphery; the function is proposed to depend on its association with the CCC complex and cooperation with the WASH complex on early endosomes. Seems not to be required for CCC complex stability .

Question 321

PKMYT1

Answer 321

Membrane-associated tyrosine- and threonine-specific cdc2-inhibitory kinase (EC 2.11.1) (Myt1 kinase) Q99640 FUNCTION: Acts as a negative regulator of entry into mitosis (G2 to M transition) by phosphorylation of the CDK1 kinase specifically when CDK1 is complexed to cyclins. Mediates phosphorylation of CDK1 predominantly on 'Thr-14'. Also involved in Golgi fragmentation. May be involved in phosphorylation of CDK1 on 'Tyr-15' to a lesser degree, however tyrosine kinase activity is unclear and may be indirect. May be a downstream target of Notch signaling pathway during eye development.

Question 322

PMS2

Answer 322

Mismatch repair endonuclease PMS2 (EC 3.-.-) (DNA mismatch repair protein PMS2) (PMS1 protein homolog 2) P54278 FUNCTION: Component of the post-replicative DNA mismatch repair system (MMR). Heterodimerizes with MLH1 to form MutL alpha. DNA repair is initiated by MutS alpha (MSH2-MSH6) or MutS beta (MSH2-MSH3) binding to a dsDNA mismatch, then MutL alpha is recruited to the heteroduplex. Assembly of the MutL-MutS-heteroduplex ternary complex in presence of RFC and PCNA is sufficient to activate endonuclease activity of PMS2. It introduces single-strand breaks near the mismatch and thus generates new entry points for the exonuclease EXO1 to degrade the strand containing the mismatch. DNA methylation would prevent cleavage and therefore assure that only the newly mutated DNA strand is going to be corrected. MutL alpha (MLH1-PMS2) interacts physically with the clamp loader subunits of DNA polymerase III, suggesting that it may play a role to recruit the DNA polymerase III to the site of the MMR. Also implicated in DNA damage signaling, a process which induces cell cycle arrest and can lead to apoptosis in case of major DNA damages.

Question 323

MOCS3

Answer 323

Adenylyltransferase and sulfurtransferase MOCS3 (Molybdenum cofactor synthesis protein 3) (Molybdopterin synthase sulfurylase) (MPT synthase sulfurylase) [Includes: Molybdopterin-synthase adenylyltransferase (EC 2.7.80) (Adenylyltransferase MOCS3) (Sulfur carrier protein MOCS2A adenylyltransferase); Molybdopterin-synthase sulfurtransferase (EC 2.1.11) (Sulfur carrier protein MOCS2A sulfurtransferase) (Sulfurtransferase MOCS3)] O95396 FUNCTION: Plays a central role in 2-thiolation of mcm(5)S(2)U at tRNA wobble positions of cytosolic tRNA(Lys), tRNA(Glu) and tRNA(Gln). Also essential during biosynthesis of the molybdenum cofactor. Acts by mediating the C-terminal thiocarboxylation of sulfur carriers URM1 and MOCS2A. Its N-terminus first activates URM1 and MOCS2A as acyl-adenylates (-COAMP), then the persulfide sulfur on the catalytic cysteine is transferred to URM1 and MOCS2A to form thiocarboxylation (-COSH) of their C-terminus. The reaction probably involves hydrogen sulfide that is generated from the persulfide intermediate and that acts as nucleophile towards URM1 and MOCS2A. Subsequently, a transient disulfide bond is formed. Does not use thiosulfate as sulfur donor; NFS1 probably acting as a sulfur donor for thiocarboxylation reactions.

Question 324

PNO1

Answer 324

RNA-binding protein PNO1 Q9NRX1 FUNCTION: Positively regulates dimethylation of two adjacent adenosines in the loop of a conserved hairpin near the 3'-end of 18S rRNA .

Question 325

PLAAT2

Answer 325

Phospholipase A and acyltransferase 2 (EC 2.1.-) (EC 3.1.32) (EC 3.1.4) (HRAS-like suppressor 2) Q9NWW9 FUNCTION: Exhibits both phospholipase A1/2 and acyltransferase activities (, , , ). Shows phospholipase A1 (PLA1) and A2 (PLA2) activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent release of fatty acids from the sn-1 or sn-2 position of glycerophospholipids (, , ). For most substrates, PLA1 activity is much higher than PLA2 activity . Shows O-acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the transfer of a fatty acyl group from glycerophospholipid to the hydroxyl group of lysophospholipid . Shows N-acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent transfer of a fatty acyl group at the sn-1 position of phosphatidylcholine (PC) and other glycerophospholipids to the primary amine of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE), forming N-acylphosphatidylethanolamine (NAPE), which serves as precursor for N-acylethanolamines (NAEs) (, , ). Catalyzes N-acylation of PE using both sn-1 and sn-2 palmitoyl groups of PC as acyl donor . Exhibits high phospholipase A1/2 activity and low N-acyltransferase activity .

Question 326

MTREX

Answer 326

Exosome RNA helicase MTR4 (EC 3.4.13) (ATP-dependent RNA helicase DOB1) (ATP-dependent RNA helicase SKIV2L2) (Superkiller viralicidic activity 2-like 2) (TRAMP-like complex helicase) P42285 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the ATP-dependent unwinding of RNA duplexes with a single-stranded 3' RNA extension (, , ). Central subunit of many protein complexes, namely TRAMP-like, nuclear exosome targeting (NEXT) and poly(A) tail exosome targeting (PAXT) (, , ). NEXT functions as an RNA exosome cofactor that directs a subset of non-coding short-lived RNAs for exosomal degradation. NEXT is involved in surveillance and turnover of aberrant transcripts and non-coding RNAs (, ). PAXT directs a subset of long and polyadenylated poly(A) RNAs for exosomal degradation. The RNA exosome is fundamental for the degradation of RNA in eukaryotic nuclei. Substrate targeting is facilitated by its cofactor ZCCHC8, which links to RNA-binding protein adapters . Associated with the RNA exosome complex and involved in the 3'-processing of the 7S pre-RNA to the mature 5.8S rRNA (, ). May be involved in pre-mRNA splicing. In the context of NEXT complex can also in vitro unwind DNA:RNA heteroduplexes with a 3' poly (A) RNA tracking strand . Can promote unwinding and degradation of structured RNA substrates when associated with the nuclear exosome and its cofactors. Can displace a DNA strand while translocating on RNA to ultimately degrade the RNA within a DNA/RNA heteroduplex .

Question 327

PLOD2

Answer 327

Procollagen-lysine,2-oxoglutarate 5-dioxygenase 2 (EC 1.14.11.4) (Lysyl hydroxylase 2) (LH2) O00469 FUNCTION: Forms hydroxylysine residues in -Xaa-Lys-Gly- sequences in collagens. These hydroxylysines serve as sites of attachment for carbohydrate units and are essential for the stability of the intermolecular collagen cross-links. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Rough endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Peripheral membrane protein; Lumenal side.

Question 328

PPP2CA

Answer 328

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A catalytic subunit alpha isoform (PP2A-alpha) (EC 3.3.16) (Replication protein C) (RP-C) P67775 FUNCTION: PP2A is the major phosphatase for microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs). PP2A can modulate the activity of phosphorylase B kinase casein kinase 2, mitogen-stimulated S6 kinase, and MAP-2 kinase. Cooperates with SGO2 to protect centromeric cohesin from separase-mediated cleavage in oocytes specifically during meiosis I (By similarity). Can dephosphorylate SV40 large T antigen and p53/TP53. Activates RAF1 by dephosphorylating it at 'Ser-259'.

Question 329

RHPN2P1

Answer 329

Putative rhophilin-2-like protein RHPN2P1 (Rhophilin-2 pseudogene 1) A8MT19

Question 330

RHOD

Answer 330

Rho-related GTP-binding protein RhoD (Rho-related protein HP1) (RhoHP1) O00212 FUNCTION: Involved in endosome dynamics. May coordinate membrane transport with the function of the cytoskeleton. Involved in the internalization and trafficking of activated tyrosine kinase receptors such as PDGFRB. Participates in the reorganization of actin cytoskeleton; the function seems to involve WHAMM and includes regulation of filopodia formation and actin filament bundling. Can modulate the effect of DAPK3 in reorganization of actin cytoskeleton and focal adhesion dissolution.

Question 331

POLR2J

Answer 331

DNA-directed RNA polymerase II subunit RPB11-a (RNA polymerase II subunit B11-a) (RPB11a) (DNA-directed RNA polymerase II subunit J-1) (RNA polymerase II 13.3 kDa subunit) P52435 FUNCTION: DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase II which synthesizes mRNA precursors and many functional non-coding RNAs. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. It is composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. RPB11 is part of the core element with the central large cleft (By similarity).

Question 332

RPN2

Answer 332

Dolichyl-diphosphooligosaccharide--protein glycosyltransferase subunit 2 (Dolichyl-diphosphooligosaccharide--protein glycosyltransferase 63 kDa subunit) (RIBIIR) (Ribophorin II) (RPN-II) (Ribophorin-2) P04844 FUNCTION: Subunit of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex that catalyzes the initial transfer of a defined glycan (Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) in eukaryotes) from the lipid carrier dolichol-pyrophosphate to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains, the first step in protein N-glycosylation. N-glycosylation occurs cotranslationally and the complex associates with the Sec61 complex at the channel-forming translocon complex that mediates protein translocation across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). All subunits are required for a maximal enzyme activity.

Question 333

MRPL3

Answer 333

39S ribosomal protein L3, mitochondrial (L3mt) (MRP-L3) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein uL3m) P09001 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Question 334

RPH3AL

Answer 334

Rab effector Noc2 (No C2 domains protein) (Rabphilin-3A-like protein) Q9UNE2 FUNCTION: Rab GTPase effector involved in the late steps of regulated exocytosis, both in endocrine and exocrine cells (By similarity). Acts as a potential RAB3B effector protein in epithelial cells. Note=Recruited to the vesicle membrane in a GTP- and RAB3B-dependent manner in epithelial cells.

Question 335

RAB4B

Answer 335

Ras-related protein Rab-4B P61018 FUNCTION: Protein transport. Probably involved in vesicular traffic (By similarity).

Question 336

RAB6D

Answer 336

Ras-related protein Rab-6D (Rab6-like protein WTH3DI) Q53S08

Question 337

RNASE8

Answer 337

Ribonuclease 8 (RNase 8) (EC 3.27.-) Q8TDE3 FUNCTION: Has a low ribonuclease activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Question 338

DROSHA

Answer 338

Ribonuclease 3 (EC 3.26.3) (Protein Drosha) (Ribonuclease III) (RNase III) (p241) Q9NRR4 FUNCTION: Ribonuclease III double-stranded (ds) RNA-specific endoribonuclease that is involved in the initial step of microRNA (miRNA) biogenesis. Component of the microprocessor complex that is required to process primary miRNA transcripts (pri-miRNAs) to release precursor miRNA (pre-miRNA) in the nucleus. Within the microprocessor complex, DROSHA cleaves the 3' and 5' strands of a stem-loop in pri-miRNAs (processing center 11 bp from the dsRNA-ssRNA junction) to release hairpin-shaped pre-miRNAs that are subsequently cut by the cytoplasmic DICER to generate mature miRNAs. Involved also in pre-rRNA processing. Cleaves double-strand RNA and does not cleave single-strand RNA. Involved in the formation of GW bodies.

Question 339

RAD18

Answer 339

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RAD18 (EC 2.2.27) (Postreplication repair protein RAD18) (hHR18) (hRAD18) (RING finger protein 73) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase RAD18) Q9NS91 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in postreplication repair of UV-damaged DNA. Postreplication repair functions in gap-filling of a daughter strand on replication of damaged DNA. Associates to the E2 ubiquitin conjugating enzyme UBE2B to form the UBE2B-RAD18 ubiquitin ligase complex involved in mono-ubiquitination of DNA-associated PCNA on 'Lys-164'. Has ssDNA binding activity.

Question 340

PTCRA

Answer 340

Pre T-cell antigen receptor alpha (pT-alpha) (pTa) (pT-alpha-TCR) Q6ISU1 FUNCTION: The pre-T-cell receptor complex (composed of PTCRA, TCRB and the CD3 complex) regulates early T-cell development.

Question 341

RPL26L1

Answer 341

60S ribosomal protein L26-like 1 (Large ribosomal subunit protein uL24-like 1) Q9UNX3

Question 342

REX1BD

Answer 342

Required for excision 1-B domain-containing protein Q96EN9

Question 343

RPL22L1

Answer 343

60S ribosomal protein L22-like 1 (Large ribosomal subunit protein eL22-like 1) Q6P5R6

Question 344

RBKS

Answer 344

Ribokinase (RK) (EC 2.1.15) Q9H477 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the phosphorylation of ribose at O-5 in a reaction requiring ATP and magnesium. The resulting D-ribose-5-phosphate can then be used either for sythesis of nucleotides, histidine, and tryptophan, or as a component of the pentose phosphate pathway.

Question 345

RAD52

Answer 345

DNA repair protein RAD52 homolog P43351 FUNCTION: Involved in double-stranded break repair. Plays a central role in genetic recombination and DNA repair by promoting the annealing of complementary single-stranded DNA and by stimulation of the RAD51 recombinase.

Question 346

RAD54L

Answer 346

DNA repair and recombination protein RAD54-like (EC 3.4.-) (RAD54 homolog) (hHR54) (hRAD54) Q92698 FUNCTION: Involved in DNA repair and mitotic recombination. Functions in the recombinational DNA repair (RAD52) pathway. Dissociates RAD51 from nucleoprotein filaments formed on dsDNA. Could be involved in the turnover of RAD51 protein-dsDNA filaments (By similarity). May play also an essential role in telomere length maintenance and telomere capping in mammalian cells.

Question 347

RPL13A

Answer 347

60S ribosomal protein L13a (23 kDa highly basic protein) (Large ribosomal subunit protein uL13) P40429 FUNCTION: Associated with ribosomes but is not required for canonical ribosome function and has extra-ribosomal functions. Component of the GAIT (gamma interferon-activated inhibitor of translation) complex which mediates interferon-gamma-induced transcript-selective translation inhibition in inflammation processes. Upon interferon-gamma activation and subsequent phosphorylation dissociates from the ribosome and assembles into the GAIT complex which binds to stem loop-containing GAIT elements in the 3'-UTR of diverse inflammatory mRNAs (such as ceruplasmin) and suppresses their translation. In the GAIT complex interacts with m7G cap-bound eIF4G at or near the eIF3-binding site and blocks the recruitment of the 43S ribosomal complex. Involved in methylation of rRNA.

Question 348

RBX1

Answer 348

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RBX1 (EC 2.2.27) (EC 2.2.32) (E3 ubiquitin-protein transferase RBX1) (Protein ZYP) (RING finger protein 75) (RING-box protein 1) (Rbx1) (Regulator of cullins 1) (ROC1) [Cleaved into: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RBX1, N-terminally processed (E3 ubiquitin-protein transferase RBX1, N-terminally processed)] P62877 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin ligase component of multiple cullin-RING-based E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase (CRLs) complexes which mediate the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins, including proteins involved in cell cycle progression, signal transduction, transcription and transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (, , , , , , , , , , ). CRLs complexes and ARIH1 collaborate in tandem to mediate ubiquitination of target proteins, ARIH1 mediating addition of the first ubiquitin on CRLs targets . The functional specificity of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes depends on the variable substrate recognition components. As a component of the CSA complex promotes the ubiquitination of ERCC6 resulting in proteasomal degradation. Recruits the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme CDC34 to the complex and brings it into close proximity to the substrate. Probably also stimulates CDC34 autoubiquitination. May be required for histone H3 and histone H4 ubiquitination in response to ultraviolet and for subsequent DNA repair. Promotes the neddylation of CUL1, CUL2, CUL4 and CUL4 via its interaction with UBE2M. Involved in the ubiquitination of KEAP1, ENC1 and KLHL41. In concert with ATF2 and CUL3, promotes degradation of KAT5 thereby attenuating its ability to acetylate and activate ATM.

Question 349

RBMY1D

Answer 349

RNA-binding motif protein, Y chromosome, family 1 member D P0C7P1 FUNCTION: RNA-binding protein which may be involved in spermatogenesis. Required for sperm development, possibly by participating in pre-mRNA splicing in the testis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Question 350

RNF7

Answer 350

RING-box protein 2 (Rbx2) (CKII beta-binding protein 1) (CKBBP1) (RING finger protein 7) (Regulator of cullins 2) (Sensitive to apoptosis gene protein) Q9UBF6 FUNCTION: Probable component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins involved in cell cycle progression, signal transduction and transcription . CRLs complexes and ARIH1 collaborate in tandem to mediate ubiquitination of target proteins, ARIH1 mediating addition of the first ubiquitin on CRLs targets (By similarity). Through the RING-type zinc finger, seems to recruit the E2 ubiquitination enzyme to the complex and brings it into close proximity to the substrate. Promotes the neddylation of CUL5 via its interaction with UBE2F. May play a role in protecting cells from apoptosis induced by redox agents.

Question 351

RBMY1F; RBMY1J

Answer 351

RNA-binding motif protein, Y chromosome, family 1 member F/J (Y chromosome RNA recognition motif 2) Q15415 FUNCTION: RNA-binding protein which may be involved in spermatogenesis. Required for sperm development, possibly by participating in pre-mRNA splicing in the testis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Question 352

RADX

Answer 352

RPA-related protein RADX (RPA-related and RAD51-antagonist, X-chromosome) Q6NSI4 FUNCTION: Single-stranded DNA-binding protein recruited to replication forks to maintain genome stability . Prevents fork collapse by antagonizing the accumulation of RAD51 at forks to ensure the proper balance of fork remodeling and protection without interfering with the capacity of cells to complete homologous recombination of double-strand breaks .

Question 353

CHM

Answer 353

Rab proteins geranylgeranyltransferase component A 1 (Choroideremia protein) (Rab escort protein 1) (REP-1) (TCD protein) P24386 FUNCTION: Substrate-binding subunit of the Rab geranylgeranyltransferase (GGTase) complex. Binds unprenylated Rab proteins and presents the substrate peptide to the catalytic component B composed of RABGGTA and RABGGTB, and remains bound to it after the geranylgeranyl transfer reaction. The component A is thought to be regenerated by transferring its prenylated Rab back to the donor membrane. Besides, a pre-formed complex consisting of CHM and the Rab GGTase dimer (RGGT or component B) can bind to and prenylate Rab proteins; this alternative pathway is proposed to be the predominant pathway for Rab protein geranylgeranylation.

Question 354

RCC2

Answer 354

Protein RCC2 (RCC1-like protein TD-60) (Telophase disk protein of 60 kDa) Q9P258 FUNCTION: Multifunctional protein that may effect its functions by regulating the activity of small GTPases, such as RAC1 and RALA (, , , ). Required for normal progress through the cell cycle, both during interphase and during mitosis (, , ). Required for the presence of normal levels of MAD2L1, AURKB and BIRC5 on inner centromeres during mitosis, and for normal attachment of kinetochores to mitotic spindles (, ). Required for normal organization of the microtubule cytoskeleton in interphase cells . Functions as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RALA . Interferes with the activation of RAC1 by guanine nucleotide exchange factors . Prevents accumulation of active, GTP-bound RAC1, and suppresses RAC1-mediated reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and formation of membrane protrusions (, ). Required for normal cellular responses to contacts with the extracellular matrix of adjacent cells, and for directional cell migration in response to a fibronectin gradient (in vitro) (, ).

Question 355

RANGAP1

Answer 355

Ran GTPase-activating protein 1 (RanGAP1) P46060 FUNCTION: GTPase activator for RAN (, , ). Converts cytoplasmic GTP-bound RAN to GDP-bound RAN, which is essential for RAN-mediated nuclear import and export (, ). Mediates dissociation of cargo from nuclear export complexes containing XPO1, RAN and RANBP2 after nuclear export .

Question 356

RHAG

Answer 356

Ammonium transporter Rh type A (Erythrocyte membrane glycoprotein Rh50) (Erythrocyte plasma membrane 50 kDa glycoprotein) (Rh50A) (Rhesus blood group family type A glycoprotein) (Rh family type A glycoprotein) (Rh type A glycoprotein) (Rhesus blood group-associated ammonia channel) (Rhesus blood group-associated glycoprotein) (CD antigen CD241) Q02094 FUNCTION: Associated with rhesus blood group antigen expression . May be part of an oligomeric complex which is likely to have a transport or channel function in the erythrocyte membrane (, ). Involved in ammonia transport across the erythrocyte membrane (, ). Seems to act in monovalent cation transport (, ). ; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Question 357

GPRC5A

Answer 357

Retinoic acid-induced protein 3 (G-protein coupled receptor family C group 5 member A) (Phorbol ester induced gene 1) (PEIG-1) (Retinoic acid-induced gene 1 protein) (RAIG-1) Q8NFJ5 FUNCTION: Orphan receptor. Could be involved in modulating differentiation and maintaining homeostasis of epithelial cells. This retinoic acid-inducible GPCR provide evidence for a possible interaction between retinoid and G-protein signaling pathways. Functions as a negative modulator of EGFR signaling (By similarity). May act as a lung tumor suppressor .

Question 358

RALA

Answer 358

Ras-related protein Ral-A P11233 FUNCTION: Multifunctional GTPase involved in a variety of cellular processes including gene expression, cell migration, cell proliferation, oncogenic transformation and membrane trafficking. Accomplishes its multiple functions by interacting with distinct downstream effectors. Acts as a GTP sensor for GTP-dependent exocytosis of dense core vesicles. The RALA-exocyst complex regulates integrin-dependent membrane raft exocytosis and growth signaling . Key regulator of LPAR1 signaling and competes with GRK2 for binding to LPAR1 thus affecting the signaling properties of the receptor. Required for anchorage-independent proliferation of transformed cells . During mitosis, supports the stabilization and elongation of the intracellular bridge between dividing cells. Cooperates with EXOC2 to recruit other components of the exocyst to the early midbody .

Question 359

RALYL

Answer 359

RNA-binding Raly-like protein (hRALYL) (Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein C-like 3) (hnRNP core protein C-like 3) Q86SE5

Question 360

RALY

Answer 360

RNA-binding protein Raly (Autoantigen p542) (Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein C-like 2) (hnRNP core protein C-like 2) (hnRNP associated with lethal yellow protein homolog) Q9UKM9 FUNCTION: RNA-binding protein that acts as a transcriptional cofactor for cholesterol biosynthetic genes in the liver. Binds the lipid-responsive non-coding RNA LeXis and is required for LeXis-mediated effect on cholesterogenesis (By similarity). May be a heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) .

Question 361

RCOR2

Answer 361

REST corepressor 2 Q8IZ40 FUNCTION: May act as a component of a corepressor complex that represses transcription.

Question 362

RRP7A

Answer 362

Ribosomal RNA-processing protein 7 homolog A (Gastric cancer antigen Zg14) Q9Y3A4

Question 363

RAMP2

Answer 363

Receptor activity-modifying protein 2 (Calcitonin-receptor-like receptor activity-modifying protein 2) (CRLR activity-modifying protein 2) O60895 FUNCTION: Transports the calcitonin gene-related peptide type 1 receptor (CALCRL) to the plasma membrane. Acts as a receptor for adrenomedullin (AM) together with CALCRL. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Question 364

RRP7BP

Answer 364

Putative ribosomal RNA-processing protein 7 homolog B (Putative gastric cancer antigen Zg14-like protein) Q9NSQ0

Question 365

RANBP9

Answer 365

Ran-binding protein 9 (RanBP9) (BPM-L) (BPM90) (Ran-binding protein M) (RanBPM) (RanBP7) Q96S59 FUNCTION: May act as scaffolding protein, and as adapter protein to couple membrane receptors to intracellular signaling pathways (Probable). Acts as a mediator of cell spreading and actin cytoskeleton rearrangement . Core component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1 . May be involved in signaling of ITGB2/LFA-1 and other integrins . Enhances HGF-MET signaling by recruiting Sos and activating the Ras pathway . Enhances dihydrotestosterone-induced transactivation activity of AR, as well as dexamethasone-induced transactivation activity of NR3C1, but not affect estrogen-induced transactivation (, ). Stabilizes TP73 isoform Alpha, probably by inhibiting its ubiquitination, and increases its proapoptotic activity . Inhibits the kinase activity of DYRK1A and DYRK1B. Inhibits FMR1 binding to RNA.

Question 366

RANBP1

Answer 366

Ran-specific GTPase-activating protein (Ran-binding protein 1) (RanBP1) P43487 FUNCTION: Plays a role in RAN-dependent nucleocytoplasmic transport. Alleviates the TNPO1-dependent inhibition of RAN GTPase activity and mediates the dissociation of RAN from proteins involved in transport into the nucleus (By similarity). Induces a conformation change in the complex formed by XPO1 and RAN that triggers the release of the nuclear export signal of cargo proteins . Promotes the disassembly of the complex formed by RAN and importin beta. Promotes dissociation of RAN from a complex with KPNA2 and CSE1L (By similarity). Required for normal mitotic spindle assembly and normal progress through mitosis via its effect on RAN . Does not increase the RAN GTPase activity by itself, but increases GTP hydrolysis mediated by RANGAP1 . Inhibits RCC1-dependent exchange of RAN-bound GDP by GTP (, ).

Question 367

PTK7

Answer 367

Inactive tyrosine-protein kinase 7 (Colon carcinoma kinase 4) (CCK-4) (Protein-tyrosine kinase 7) (Pseudo tyrosine kinase receptor 7) (Tyrosine-protein kinase-like 7) Q13308 FUNCTION: Inactive tyrosine kinase involved in Wnt signaling pathway. Component of both the non-canonical (also known as the Wnt/planar cell polarity signaling) and the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Functions in cell adhesion, cell migration, cell polarity, proliferation, actin cytoskeleton reorganization and apoptosis. Has a role in embryogenesis, epithelial tissue organization and angiogenesis. Note=Colocalizes with MMP14 at cell junctions. Also localizes at the leading edge of migrating cells.

Question 368

PXK

Answer 368

PX domain-containing protein kinase-like protein (Modulator of Na,K-ATPase) (MONaKA) Q7Z7A4 FUNCTION: Binds to and modulates brain Na,K-ATPase subunits ATP1B1 and ATP1B3 and may thereby participate in the regulation of electrical excitability and synaptic transmission. May not display kinase activity. Note=Also associates with the plasma membrane. Isoform 3 is present throughout the cell.

Question 369

RAB11FIP2

Answer 369

Rab11 family-interacting protein 2 (Rab11-FIP2) (NRip11) Q7L804 FUNCTION: A Rab11 effector binding preferentially phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdInsP3) and phosphatidic acid (PA) and acting in the regulation of the transport of vesicles from the endosomal recycling compartment (ERC) to the plasma membrane. Involved in insulin granule exocytosis. Also involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis and membrane trafficking of recycling endosomes, probably originating from clathrin-coated vesicles. Required in a complex with MYO5B and RAB11 for the transport of NPC1L1 to the plasma membrane. Also acts as a regulator of cell polarity. Plays an essential role in phagocytosis through a mechanism involving TICAM2, RAC1 and CDC42 Rho GTPases for controlling actin-dynamics. Cell membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Recycling endosome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Note=Translocates with RAB11A from the vesicles of the endocytic recycling compartment (ERC) to the plasma membrane.

Question 370

RFX6

Answer 370

DNA-binding protein RFX6 (Regulatory factor X 6) (Regulatory factor X domain-containing protein 1) Q8HWS3 FUNCTION: Transcription factor required to direct islet cell differentiation during endocrine pancreas development. Specifically required for the differentiation of 4 of the 5 islet cell types and for the production of insulin (, ). Not required for pancreatic PP (polypeptide-producing) cells differentiation. Acts downstream of NEUROG3 and regulates the transcription factors involved in beta-cell maturation and function, thereby restricting the expression of the beta-cell differentiation and specification genes, and thus the beta-cell fate choice. Activates transcription by forming a heterodimer with RFX3 and binding to the X-box in the promoter of target genes . Involved in glucose-stimulated insulin secretion by promoting insulin and L-type calcium channel gene transcription .

Question 371

RGS18

Answer 371

Regulator of G-protein signaling 18 (RGS18) Q9NS28 FUNCTION: Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Binds to G(i) alpha-1, G(i) alpha-2, G(i) alpha-3 and G(q) alpha.

Question 372

RASSF6

Answer 372

Ras association domain-containing protein 6 Q6ZTQ3 FUNCTION: Involved in the induction of apoptosis, through both caspase-dependent and caspase-independent pathways. May act as a Ras effector protein. May suppress the serum-induced basal levels of NF-kappa-B (By similarity).

Question 373

REST

Answer 373

RE1-silencing transcription factor (Neural-restrictive silencer factor) (X2 box repressor) Q13127 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor which binds neuron-restrictive silencer element (NRSE) and represses neuronal gene transcription in non-neuronal cells (, , , , , , ). Restricts the expression of neuronal genes by associating with two distinct corepressors, SIN3A and RCOR1, which in turn recruit histone deacetylase to the promoters of REST-regulated genes (, ). Mediates repression by recruiting the BHC complex at RE1/NRSE sites which acts by deacetylating and demethylating specific sites on histones, thereby acting as a chromatin modifier (By similarity). Transcriptional repression by REST-CDYL via the recruitment of histone methyltransferase EHMT2 may be important in transformation suppression . Represses the expression of SRRM4 in non-neural cells to prevent the activation of neural-specific splicing events and to prevent production of REST isoform 3 (By similarity). Repressor activity may be inhibited by forming heterodimers with isoform 3, thereby preventing binding to NRSE or binding to corepressors and leading to derepression of target genes . Also maintains repression of neuronal genes in neural stem cells, and allows transcription and differentiation into neurons by dissociation from RE1/NRSE sites of target genes (By similarity). Thereby is involved in maintaining the quiescent state of adult neural stem cells and preventing premature differentiation into mature neurons . Plays a role in the developmental switch in synaptic NMDA receptor composition during postnatal development, by repressing GRIN2B expression and thereby altering NMDA receptor properties from containing primarily GRIN2B to primarily GRIN2A subunits (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of osteoblast differentiation (By similarity). Key repressor of gene expression in hypoxia; represses genes in hypoxia by direct binding to an RE1/NRSE site on their promoter regions . May also function in stress resistance in the brain during aging; possibly by regulating expression of genes involved in cell death and in the stress response . Repressor of gene expression in the hippocampus after ischemia by directly binding to RE1/NRSE sites and recruiting SIN3A and RCOR1 to promoters of target genes, thereby promoting changes in chromatin modifications and ischemia-induced cell death (By similarity). After ischemia, might play a role in repression of miR-132 expression in hippocampal neurons, thereby leading to neuronal cell death (By similarity). Negatively regulates the expression of SRRM3 in breast cancer cell lines .

Question 374

RBP4

Answer 374

Retinol-binding protein 4 (Plasma retinol-binding protein) (PRBP) (RBP) [Cleaved into: Plasma retinol-binding protein(1-182); Plasma retinol-binding protein(1-181); Plasma retinol-binding protein(1-179); Plasma retinol-binding protein(1-176)] P02753 FUNCTION: Retinol-binding protein that mediates retinol transport in blood plasma . Delivers retinol from the liver stores to the peripheral tissues (Probable). Transfers the bound all-trans retinol to STRA6, that then facilitates retinol transport across the cell membrane .

Question 375

RBBP6

Answer 375

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RBBP6 (EC 2.2.27) (Proliferation potential-related protein) (Protein P2P-R) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase RBBP6) (Retinoblastoma-binding Q protein 1) (RBQ-1) (Retinoblastoma-binding protein 6) (p53-associated cellular protein of testis) Q7Z6E9 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which promotes ubiquitination of YBX1, leading to its degradation by the proteasome . May play a role as a scaffold protein to promote the assembly of the p53/TP53-MDM2 complex, resulting in increase of MDM2-mediated ubiquitination and degradation of p53/TP53; may function as negative regulator of p53/TP53, leading to both apoptosis and cell growth (By similarity). Regulates DNA-replication and the stability of chromosomal common fragile sites (CFSs) in a ZBTB38- and MCM10-dependent manner. Controls ZBTB38 protein stability and abundance via ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation, and ZBTB38 in turn negatively regulates the expression of MCM10 which plays an important role in DNA-replication . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus, nucleolus. Chromosome. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, microtubule organizing center, centrosome. Note=Colocalizes with mitotic chromosomes. Colocalizes with NEK6 in the centrosome.

Question 376

NME4

Answer 376

Nucleoside diphosphate kinase, mitochondrial (NDK) (NDP kinase, mitochondrial) (EC 2.4.6) (Nucleoside diphosphate kinase D) (NDPKD) (nm23-H4) O00746 FUNCTION: Major role in the synthesis of nucleoside triphosphates other than ATP. The ATP gamma phosphate is transferred to the NDP beta phosphate via a ping-pong mechanism, using a phosphorylated active-site intermediate. Through the catalyzed exchange of gamma-phosphate between di- and triphosphonucleosides participates in regulation of intracellular nucleotide homeostasis . Binds to anionic phospholipids, predominantly to cardiolipin; the binding inhibits its phosphotransfer activity (, ). Acts as mitochondria-specific NDK; its association with cardiolipin-containing mitochondrial inner membrane is coupled to respiration suggesting that ADP locally regenerated in the mitochondrion innermembrane space by its activity is directly taken up via ANT ADP/ATP translocase into the matrix space to stimulate respiratory ATP regeneration . Proposed to increase GTP-loading on dynamin-related GTPase OPA1 in mitochondria . In vitro can induce liposome cross-linking suggesting that it can cross-link inner and outer membranes to form contact sites, and promotes intermembrane migration of anionic phosphoplipids. Promotes the redistribution of cardiolipin between the mitochondrial inner membrane and outer membrane which is implicated in pro-apoptotic signaling (, , ).

Question 377

PLAG1

Answer 377

Zinc finger protein PLAG1 (Pleiomorphic adenoma gene 1 protein) Q6DJT9 FUNCTION: Transcription factor whose activation results in up-regulation of target genes, such as IGFII, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation: when overexpressed in cultured cells, higher proliferation rate and transformation are observed. Other target genes such as CRLF1, CRABP2, CRIP2, PIGF are strongly induced in cells with PLAG1 induction. Proto-oncogene whose ectopic expression can trigger the development of pleomorphic adenomas of the salivary gland and lipoblastomas. Overexpression is associated with up-regulation of IGFII, is frequently observed in hepatoblastoma, common primary liver tumor in childhood. Cooperates with CBFB-MYH11, a fusion gene important for myeloid leukemia. Note=Strong nucleolar localization when sumoylation is inhibited.

Question 378

ERVK-9

Answer 378

Endogenous retrovirus group K member 9 Rec protein (HERV-K(C6) Rec protein) (HERV-K109 Rec protein) (HERV-K_6q14.1 provirus Rec protein) P61573 FUNCTION: Retroviral replication requires the nuclear export and translation of unspliced, singly-spliced and multiply-spliced derivatives of the initial genomic transcript. Rec interacts with a highly structured RNA element (RcRE) present in the viral 3'LTR and recruits the cellular nuclear export machinery. This permits export to the cytoplasm of unspliced genomic or incompletely spliced subgenomic viral transcripts (By similarity).

Question 379

RECQL

Answer 379

ATP-dependent DNA helicase Q1 (EC 3.4.12) (DNA helicase, RecQ-like type 1) (RecQ1) (DNA-dependent ATPase Q1) (RecQ protein-like 1) P46063 FUNCTION: DNA helicase that may play a role in the repair of DNA that is damaged by ultraviolet light or other mutagens. Exhibits a magnesium-dependent ATP-dependent DNA-helicase activity that unwinds single- and double-stranded DNA in a 3'-5' direction.

Question 380

SGMS1

Answer 380

Phosphatidylcholine:ceramide cholinephosphotransferase 1 (EC 2.8.27) (Medulla oblongata-derived protein) (Protein Mob) (Sphingomyelin synthase 1) (Transmembrane protein 23) Q86VZ5 FUNCTION: Sphingomyelin synthases synthesize the sphingolipid, sphingomyelin, through transfer of the phosphatidyl head group, phosphatidylcholine, on to the primary hydroxyl of ceramide. The reaction is bidirectional depending on the respective levels of the sphingolipid and ceramide. Golgi apparatus SMS1 directly and specifically recognizes the choline head group on the substrate, requiring two fatty chains on the choline-P donor molecule in order to be recognized efficiently as a substrate. Major form in macrophages. Required for cell growth in certain cell types such as HeLa cells. Suppresses BAX-mediated apoptosis and also prevents cell death in response to stimuli such as hydrogen peroxide, osmotic stress, elevated temperature and exogenously supplied sphingolipids. May protect against cell death by reversing the stress-inducible increase in levels of proapoptotic ceramide.

Question 381

SFRP2

Answer 381

Secreted frizzled-related protein 2 (FRP-2) (sFRP-2) (Secreted apoptosis-related protein 1) (SARP-1) Q96HF1 FUNCTION: Soluble frizzled-related proteins (sFRPS) function as modulators of Wnt signaling through direct interaction with Wnts. They have a role in regulating cell growth and differentiation in specific cell types. SFRP2 may be important for eye retinal development and for myogenesis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Question 382

SLC45A2

Answer 382

Membrane-associated transporter protein (Melanoma antigen AIM1) (Protein AIM-1) (Solute carrier family 45 member 2) Q9UMX9 FUNCTION: Melanocyte differentiation antigen. May transport substances required for melanin biosynthesis (By similarity).

Question 383

SASS6

Answer 383

Spindle assembly abnormal protein 6 homolog (HsSAS-6) Q6UVJ0 FUNCTION: Central scaffolding component of the centrioles ensuring their 9-fold symmetry. Required for centrosome biogenesis and duplication: required both for mother-centriole-dependent centriole duplication and deuterosome-dependent centriole amplification in multiciliated cells. Overexpression results in excess foci-bearing centriolar markers. Required for the recruitment of STIL to the procentriole and for STIL-mediated centriole amplification .

Question 384

RYBP

Answer 384

RING1 and YY1-binding protein (Apoptin-associating protein 1) (APAP-1) (Death effector domain-associated factor) (DED-associated factor) (YY1 and E4TF1-associated factor 1) Q8N488 FUNCTION: Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1-like complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility . Component of a PRC1-like complex that mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119' on the X chromosome and is required for normal silencing of one copy of the X chromosome in XX females. May stimulate ubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119' by recruiting the complex to target sites (By similarity). Inhibits ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of TP53, and thereby plays a role in regulating transcription of TP53 target genes . May also regulate the ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of other proteins like FANK1 to regulate apoptosis (, ). May be implicated in the regulation of the transcription as a repressor of the transcriptional activity of E4TF1 . May bind to DNA (By similarity). May play a role in the repression of tumor growth and metastasis in breast cancer by down-regulating SRRM3 .

Question 385

SCGB2B2

Answer 385

Secretoglobin family 2B member 2 (Secretoglobin-like protein) Q4G0G5 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Question 386

SEC61G

Answer 386

Protein transport protein Sec61 subunit gamma P60059 FUNCTION: Component of SEC61 channel-forming translocon complex that mediates transport of signal peptide-containing precursor polypeptides across endoplasmic reticulum (ER).

Question 387

S1PR3

Answer 387

Sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor 3 (S1P receptor 3) (S1P3) (Endothelial differentiation G-protein coupled receptor 3) (Sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor Edg-3) (S1P receptor Edg-3) Q99500 FUNCTION: Receptor for the lysosphingolipid sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P). S1P is a bioactive lysophospholipid that elicits diverse physiological effect on most types of cells and tissues. When expressed in rat HTC4 hepatoma cells, is capable of mediating S1P-induced cell proliferation and suppression of apoptosis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Question 388

S100A7A

Answer 388

Protein S100-A7A (S100 calcium-binding protein A15) (S100 calcium-binding protein A7-like 1) (S100 calcium-binding protein A7A) Q86SG5 FUNCTION: May be involved in epidermal differentiation and inflammation and might therefore be important for the pathogenesis of psoriasis and other diseases. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Question 389

SMARCA2

Answer 389

Probable global transcription activator SNF2L2 (EC 3.4.-) (ATP-dependent helicase SMARCA2) (BRG1-associated factor 190B) (BAF190B) (Protein brahma homolog) (hBRM) (SNF2-alpha) (SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily A member 2) P51531 FUNCTION: Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Binds DNA non-specifically (, ). Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Question 390

SLC6A7

Answer 390

Sodium-dependent proline transporter (Solute carrier family 6 member 7) Q99884 FUNCTION: Terminates the action of proline by its high affinity sodium-dependent reuptake into presynaptic terminals. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Question 391

STAG3L3

Answer 391

STAG3-like protein 3 (Stromal antigen 3-like protein 3) P0CL85 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Question 392

SLC22A14

Answer 392

Solute carrier family 22 member 14 (Organic cation transporter-like 4) (ORCTL-4) Q9Y267 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 393

ST7

Answer 393

Suppressor of tumorigenicity 7 protein (Protein FAM4A1) (Protein HELG) Q9NRC1 FUNCTION: May act as a tumor suppressor.

Question 394

TMEM211

Answer 394

Transmembrane protein 211 Q6ICI0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 395

SMCR5

Answer 395

Smith-Magenis syndrome chromosomal region candidate gene 5 protein Q8TEV8

Question 396

SMG7

Answer 396

Protein SMG7 (EST1-like protein C) (SMG-7 homolog) (hSMG-7) Q92540 FUNCTION: Plays a role in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay. Recruits UPF1 to cytoplasmic mRNA decay bodies. Together with SMG5 is thought to provide a link to the mRNA degradation machinery involving exonucleolytic pathways, and to serve as an adapter for UPF1 to protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), thereby triggering UPF1 dephosphorylation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus. Note=Predominantly cytoplasmic, and nuclear. Shuttles between nucleus and cytoplasm.

Question 397

MAU2

Answer 397

MAU2 chromatid cohesion factor homolog (MAU-2) (Cohesin loading complex subunit SCC4 homolog) Q9Y6X3 FUNCTION: Plays an important role in the loading of the cohesin complex on to DNA. Forms a heterodimeric complex (also known as cohesin loading complex) with NIPBL/SCC2 which mediates the loading of the cohesin complex onto chromatin (, ). Plays a role in sister chromatid cohesion and normal progression through prometaphase (, ). Note=Binds to chromatin from the end of mitosis until prophase.

Question 398

SLC26A1

Answer 398

Sulfate anion transporter 1 (SAT-1) (Solute carrier family 26 member 1) Q9H2B4 FUNCTION: Mediates sulfate transport with high affinity . Mediates oxalate transport . Mediates bicarbonate transport (By similarity). Does not accept succinate as cosubstrate (By similarity).

Question 399

TMEM221

Answer 399

Transmembrane protein 221 A6NGB7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 400

SMIM3

Answer 400

Small integral membrane protein 3 (NGF-induced differentiation clone 67 protein) (Small membrane protein NID67) Q9BZL3 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 401

ABI3BP

Answer 401

Target of Nesh-SH3 (Tarsh) (ABI gene family member 3-binding protein) (Nesh-binding protein) (NeshBP) Q7Z7G0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Question 402

SMIM19

Answer 402

Small integral membrane protein 19 Q96E16 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 403

SLC27A6

Answer 403

Long-chain fatty acid transport protein 6 (FATP-6) (Fatty acid transport protein 6) (Fatty-acid-coenzyme A ligase, very long-chain 2) (Solute carrier family 27 member 6) (Very long-chain acyl-CoA synthetase homolog 1) (VLCSH1) (hVLCS-H1) Q9Y2P4 FUNCTION: Involved in translocation of long-chain fatty acids (LFCA) across the plasma membrane. Thought to function as the predominant fatty acid protein transporter in heart.

Question 404

SMOC1

Answer 404

SPARC-related modular calcium-binding protein 1 (Secreted modular calcium-binding protein 1) (SMOC-1) Q9H4F8 FUNCTION: Plays essential roles in both eye and limb development. Probable regulator of osteoblast differentiation. Note=In or around the basement membrane.

Question 405

TMEM243

Answer 405

Transmembrane protein 243 (MDR1- and mitochondrial taxol resistance-associated protein) (MM-TRAG) Q9BU79 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 406

TMEM246

Answer 406

Transmembrane protein 246 Q9BRR3 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 407

TET3

Answer 407

Methylcytosine dioxygenase TET3 (EC 1.14.11.n2) O43151 FUNCTION: Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in epigenetic chromatin reprogramming in the zygote following fertilization. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5-formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5-carboxylcytosine (5caC). Conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC probably constitutes the first step in cytosine demethylation (By similarity). Selectively binds to the promoter region of target genes and contributes to regulate the expression of numerous developmental genes . In zygotes, DNA demethylation occurs selectively in the paternal pronucleus before the first cell division, while the adjacent maternal pronucleus and certain paternally-imprinted loci are protected from this process. Participates in DNA demethylation in the paternal pronucleus by mediating conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC. Does not mediate DNA demethylation of maternal pronucleus because of the presence of DPPA3/PGC7 on maternal chromatin that prevents TET3-binding to chromatin (By similarity). In addition to its role in DNA demethylation, also involved in the recruitment of the O-GlcNAc transferase OGT to CpG-rich transcription start sites of active genes, thereby promoting histone H2B GlcNAcylation by OGT . Binds preferentially to DNA containing cytidine-phosphate-guanosine (CpG) dinucleotides over CpH (H=A, T, and C), hemimethylated-CpG and hemimethylated-hydroxymethyl-CpG .

Question 408

TMEM268

Answer 408

Transmembrane protein 268 Q5VZI3 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 409

CLEC3B

Answer 409

Tetranectin (TN) (C-type lectin domain family 3 member B) (Plasminogen kringle 4-binding protein) P05452 FUNCTION: Tetranectin binds to plasminogen and to isolated kringle 4. May be involved in the packaging of molecules destined for exocytosis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Question 410

TMEM270

Answer 410

Transmembrane protein 270 (Williams-Beuren syndrome chromosomal region 28 protein) Q6UE05 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Question 411

STEAP2

Answer 411

Metalloreductase STEAP2 (EC 1.16.-) (Prostate cancer-associated protein 1) (Protein up-regulated in metastatic prostate cancer) (PUMPCn) (Six-transmembrane epithelial antigen of prostate 2) (SixTransMembrane protein of prostate 1) Q8NFT2 FUNCTION: Metalloreductase that has the ability to reduce both Fe(3+) to Fe(2+) and Cu(2+) to Cu(1+). Uses NAD(+) as acceptor (By similarity).

Question 412

STEAP1

Answer 412

Metalloreductase STEAP1 (EC 1.16.-) (Six-transmembrane epithelial antigen of prostate 1) Q9UHE8 FUNCTION: Metalloreductase that has the ability to reduce both Fe(3+) to Fe(2+) and Cu(2+) to Cu(1+). Uses NAD(+) as acceptor.