Human Genes Group 5 Flashcards

Question

ATP2A3

Answer 1

Sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase 3 (SERCA3) (SR Ca(2+)-ATPase 3) (EC 7.2.10) (Calcium pump 3) Q93084 FUNCTION: This magnesium-dependent enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the transport of calcium. Transports calcium ions from the cytosol into the sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum lumen. Contributes to calcium sequestration involved in muscular excitation/contraction.

Answer 2

Retinal cone rhodopsin-sensitive cGMP 3',5'-cyclic phosphodiesterase subunit gamma (GMP-PDE gamma) (EC 3.4.35) Q13956 FUNCTION: Participates in processes of transmission and amplification of the visual signal. cGMP-PDEs are the effector molecules in G-protein-mediated phototransduction in vertebrate rods and cones.

Answer 3

Beclin-2 (Beclin-1 autophagy-related pseudogene 1) (Beclin-1-like protein 1) A8MW95 FUNCTION: Involved in 2 distinct lysosomal degradation pathways: acts as a regulator of autophagy and as a regulator of G-protein coupled receptors turnover. Regulates degradation in lysosomes of a variety of G-protein coupled receptors via its interaction with GPRASP1/GASP1.

Answer 4

Uncharacterized protein C20orf173 Q96LM9

Answer 5

Putative tumor antigen NA88-A (Cancer/testis antigen 18) (CT18) P0C5K6

Answer 6

Condensin complex subunit 2 (Barren homolog protein 1) (Chromosome-associated protein H) (hCAP-H) (Non-SMC condensin I complex subunit H) (XCAP-H homolog) Q15003 FUNCTION: Regulatory subunit of the condensin complex, a complex required for conversion of interphase chromatin into mitotic-like condense chromosomes. The condensin complex probably introduces positive supercoils into relaxed DNA in the presence of type I topoisomerases and converts nicked DNA into positive knotted forms in the presence of type II topoisomerases . Early in neurogenesis, may play an essential role to ensure accurate mitotic chromosome condensation in neuron stem cells, ultimately affecting neuron pool and cortex size . Note=In interphase cells, the majority of the condensin complex is found in the cytoplasm, while a minority of the complex is associated with chromatin. A subpopulation of the complex however remains associated with chromosome foci in interphase cells. During mitosis, most of the condensin complex is associated with the chromatin. At the onset of prophase, the regulatory subunits of the complex are phosphorylated by CDK1, leading to condensin's association with chromosome arms and to chromosome condensation. Dissociation from chromosomes is observed in late telophase.

Answer 7

Uncharacterized protein C20orf202 A1L168

Answer 8

Plasma membrane calcium-transporting ATPase 3 (PMCA3) (EC 7.2.10) (Plasma membrane calcium ATPase isoform 3) (Plasma membrane calcium pump isoform 3) Q16720 FUNCTION: This magnesium-dependent enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the transport of calcium out of the cell. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 9

Calcium-transporting ATPase type 2C member 1 (ATPase 2C1) (EC 7.2.10) (ATP-dependent Ca(2+) pump PMR1) P98194 FUNCTION: This magnesium-dependent enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the transport of the calcium. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus membrane .

Answer 10

Condensin-2 complex subunit G2 (Chromosome-associated protein G2) (CAP-G2) (hCAP-G2) (Leucine zipper protein 5) (Non-SMC condensin II complex subunit G2) Q86XI2 FUNCTION: Regulatory subunit of the condensin-2 complex, a complex which establishes mitotic chromosome architecture and is involved in physical rigidity of the chromatid axis.

Answer 11

Arginine-fifty homeobox A6NJG6 FUNCTION: Putative transcription factor.

Answer 12

Beta-Ala-His dipeptidase (EC 3.13.20) (CNDP dipeptidase 1) (Carnosine dipeptidase 1) (Glutamate carboxypeptidase-like protein 2) (Serum carnosinase) Q96KN2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 13

5-phosphohydroxy-L-lysine phospho-lyase (EC 4.3.134) (Alanine--glyoxylate aminotransferase 2-like 2) Q8IUZ5 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the pyridoxal-phosphate-dependent breakdown of 5-phosphohydroxy-L-lysine, converting it to ammonia, inorganic phosphate and 2-aminoadipate semialdehyde.

Answer 14

Cancer/testis antigen 47A (Cancer/testis antigen 47) (CT47) Q5JQC4

Answer 15

Fibrinogen gamma chain P02679 FUNCTION: Together with fibrinogen alpha (FGA) and fibrinogen beta (FGB), polymerizes to form an insoluble fibrin matrix. Has a major function in hemostasis as one of the primary components of blood clots. In addition, functions during the early stages of wound repair to stabilize the lesion and guide cell migration during re-epithelialization. Was originally thought to be essential for platelet aggregation, based on in vitro studies using anticoagulated blood. However, subsequent studies have shown that it is not absolutely required for thrombus formation in vivo. Enhances expression of SELP in activated platelets via an ITGB3-dependent pathway. Maternal fibrinogen is essential for successful pregnancy. Fibrin deposition is also associated with infection, where it protects against IFNG-mediated hemorrhage. May also facilitate the antibacterial immune response via both innate and T-cell mediated pathways.

Answer 16

cGMP-gated cation channel alpha-1 (Cyclic nucleotide-gated cation channel 1) (Cyclic nucleotide-gated channel alpha-1) (CNG channel alpha-1) (CNG-1) (CNG1) (Cyclic nucleotide-gated channel, photoreceptor) (Rod photoreceptor cGMP-gated channel subunit alpha) P29973 FUNCTION: Subunit of the rod cyclic GMP-gated cation channel, which is involved in the final stage of the phototransduction pathway. When light hits rod photoreceptors, cGMP concentrations decrease causing rapid closure of CNGA1/CNGB1 channels and, therefore, hyperpolarization of the membrane potential.

Answer 17

Ataxin-7-like protein 2 Q5T6C5

Answer 18

Protein FAM124B Q9H5Z6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 19

Ataxin-7-like protein 3 (SAGA-associated factor 11 homolog) Q14CW9 FUNCTION: Component of the transcription regulatory histone acetylation (HAT) complex SAGA, a multiprotein complex that activates transcription by remodeling chromatin and mediating histone acetylation and deubiquitination. Within the SAGA complex, participates in a subcomplex that specifically deubiquitinates both histones H2A and H2B (, ). The SAGA complex is recruited to specific gene promoters by activators such as MYC, where it is required for transcription. Required for nuclear receptor-mediated transactivation. Within the complex, it is required to recruit USP22 and ENY2 into the SAGA complex . Regulates H2B monoubiquitination (H2Bub1) levels. Affects subcellular distribution of ENY2, USP22 and ATXN7L3B .

Answer 20

Apolipoprotein A-II (Apo-AII) (ApoA-II) (Apolipoprotein A2) [Cleaved into: Proapolipoprotein A-II (ProapoA-II); Truncated apolipoprotein A-II (Apolipoprotein A-II(1-76))] P02652 FUNCTION: May stabilize HDL (high density lipoprotein) structure by its association with lipids, and affect the HDL metabolism. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 21

Phospholipid-transporting ATPase IA (EC 7.2.1) (ATPase class I type 8A member 1) (Chromaffin granule ATPase II) (P4-ATPase flippase complex alpha subunit ATP8A1) Q9Y2Q0 FUNCTION: Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules. In vitro, its ATPase activity is selectively and stereospecifically stimulated by phosphatidylserine (PS). The flippase complex ATP8A1:TMEM30A seems to play a role in regulation of cell migration probably involving flippase-mediated translocation of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) at the plasma membrane. Acts as aminophospholipid translocase at the plasma membrane in neuronal cells. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasmic vesicle, secretory vesicle, chromaffin granule membrane .

Answer 22

BET1-like protein (Golgi SNARE with a size of 15 kDa) (GOS-15) (GS15) (Vesicle transport protein GOS15) Q9NYM9 FUNCTION: Vesicle SNARE required for targeting and fusion of retrograde transport vesicles with the Golgi complex. Required for the integrity of the Golgi complex (By similarity).

Answer 23

Cyclin-dependent kinase 2-interacting protein (CDK2-interacting protein) Q9BW66 FUNCTION: Interacts with the components of the replication complex and 2 kinases, CDK2 and CDC7, thereby providing a functional and physical link between CDK2 and CDC7 during firing of the origins of replication. Regulates ATR-mediated checkpoint signaling. Note=Binds to nuclear under G1 conditions, and dissociates from chromatin with the start of DNA replication.

Answer 24

Phospholipid-transporting ATPase IK (EC 7.2.1) (ATPase class I type 8B member 3) O60423 FUNCTION: P4-ATPase flippase which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules. May be responsible for the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phosphatidylserine (PS) in spermatozoa membranes. Involved in acrosome reactions and binding of spermatozoa to zona pellucida.

Answer 25

Phospholipid-transporting ATPase ID (EC 7.2.1) (ATPase class I type 8B member 2) (P4-ATPase flippase complex alpha subunit ATP8B2) P98198 FUNCTION: Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules (Probable).

Answer 26

Cdc42-interacting protein 4 (Protein Felic) (Salt tolerant protein) (hSTP) (Thyroid receptor-interacting protein 10) (TR-interacting protein 10) (TRIP-10) Q15642 FUNCTION: Required for translocation of GLUT4 to the plasma membrane in response to insulin signaling (By similarity). Required to coordinate membrane tubulation with reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton during endocytosis. Binds to lipids such as phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate and phosphatidylserine and promotes membrane invagination and the formation of tubules. Also promotes CDC42-induced actin polymerization by recruiting WASL/N-WASP which in turn activates the Arp2/3 complex. Actin polymerization may promote the fission of membrane tubules to form endocytic vesicles. Required for the formation of podosomes, actin-rich adhesion structures specific to monocyte-derived cells. May be required for the lysosomal retention of FASLG/FASL.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 5]: Cytoplasm, perinuclear region.

Answer 27

Protein FAM133B Q5BKY9

Answer 28

Protein FAM135A Q9P2D6

Answer 29

Calponin-2 (Calponin H2, smooth muscle) (Neutral calponin) Q99439 FUNCTION: Thin filament-associated protein that is implicated in the regulation and modulation of smooth muscle contraction. It is capable of binding to actin, calmodulin, troponin C and tropomyosin. The interaction of calponin with actin inhibits the actomyosin Mg-ATPase activity.

Answer 30

Metal transporter CNNM1 (Ancient conserved domain-containing protein 1) (Cyclin-M1) Q9NRU3 FUNCTION: Probable metal transporter.

Answer 31

Metal transporter CNNM2 (Ancient conserved domain-containing protein 2) (Cyclin-M2) Q9H8M5 FUNCTION: Divalent metal cation transporter. Mediates transport of divalent metal cations in an order of Mg(2+) > Co(2+) > Mn(2+) > Sr(2+) > Ba(2+) > Cu(2+) > Fe(2+) (By similarity).

Answer 32

Calponin-3 (Calponin, acidic isoform) Q15417 FUNCTION: Thin filament-associated protein that is implicated in the regulation and modulation of smooth muscle contraction. It is capable of binding to actin, calmodulin, troponin C and tropomyosin. The interaction of calponin with actin inhibits the actomyosin Mg-ATPase activity.

Answer 33

Coagulation factor XIII A chain (Coagulation factor XIIIa) (EC 2.2.13) (Protein-glutamine gamma-glutamyltransferase A chain) (Transglutaminase A chain) P00488 FUNCTION: Factor XIII is activated by thrombin and calcium ion to a transglutaminase that catalyzes the formation of gamma-glutamyl-epsilon-lysine cross-links between fibrin chains, thus stabilizing the fibrin clot. Also cross-link alpha-2-plasmin inhibitor, or fibronectin, to the alpha chains of fibrin. Note=Secreted into the blood plasma. Cytoplasmic in most tissues, but also secreted in the blood plasma.

Answer 34

Desmocollin-1 (Cadherin family member 1) (Desmosomal glycoprotein 2/3) (DG2/DG3) Q08554 FUNCTION: Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Involved in the interaction of plaque proteins and intermediate filaments mediating cell-cell adhesion. May contribute to epidermal cell positioning (stratification) by mediating differential adhesiveness between cells that express different isoforms. Linked to the keratinization of epithelial tissues. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein. Cell junction, desmosome.

Answer 35

Protein FMC1 homolog (ATP synthase assembly factor FMC1, mitochondrial) (Formation of mitochondrial complex V assembly factor 1 homolog) Q96HJ9 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the assembly/stability of the mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) .

Answer 36

Desmocollin-2 (Cadherin family member 2) (Desmocollin-3) (Desmosomal glycoprotein II) (Desmosomal glycoprotein III) Q02487 FUNCTION: Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Involved in the interaction of plaque proteins and intermediate filaments mediating cell-cell adhesion. May contribute to epidermal cell positioning (stratification) by mediating differential adhesiveness between cells that express different isoforms. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 37

Cold-inducible RNA-binding protein (A18 hnRNP) (Glycine-rich RNA-binding protein CIRP) Q14011 FUNCTION: Cold-inducible mRNA binding protein that plays a protective role in the genotoxic stress response by stabilizing transcripts of genes involved in cell survival. Acts as a translational activator. Seems to play an essential role in cold-induced suppression of cell proliferation. Binds specifically to the 3'-untranslated regions (3'-UTRs) of stress-responsive transcripts RPA2 and TXN. Acts as a translational repressor (By similarity). Promotes assembly of stress granules (SGs), when overexpressed.

Answer 38

Transcriptional repressor CTCFL (Brother of the regulator of imprinted sites) (CCCTC-binding factor) (CTCF paralog) (CTCF-like protein) (Cancer/testis antigen 27) (CT27) (Zinc finger protein CTCF-T) Q8NI51 FUNCTION: Testis-specific DNA binding protein responsible for insulator function, nuclear architecture and transcriptional control, which probably acts by recruiting epigenetic chromatin modifiers. Plays a key role in gene imprinting in male germline, by participating in the establishment of differential methylation at the IGF2/H19 imprinted control region (ICR). Directly binds the unmethylated H19 ICR and recruits the PRMT7 methyltransferase, leading to methylate histone H4 'Arg-3' to form H4R3sme2. This probably leads to recruit de novo DNA methyltransferases at these sites (By similarity). Seems to act as tumor suppressor. In association with DNMT1 and DNMT3B, involved in activation of BAG1 gene expression by binding to its promoter. Required for dimethylation of H3 lysine 4 (H3K4me2) of MYC and BRCA1 promoters. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus.

Answer 39

CTD small phosphatase-like protein (CTDSP-like) (EC 3.3.16) (Carboxy-terminal domain RNA polymerase II polypeptide A small phosphatase 3) (NIF-like protein) (Nuclear LIM interactor-interacting factor 1) (NLI-interacting factor 1) (Protein YA22) (hYA22) (RBSP3) (Small C-terminal domain phosphatase 3) (SCP3) (Small CTD phosphatase 3) O15194 FUNCTION: Recruited by REST to neuronal genes that contain RE-1 elements, leading to neuronal gene silencing in non-neuronal cells (By similarity). Preferentially catalyzes the dephosphorylation of 'Ser-5' within the tandem 7 residue repeats in the C-terminal domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A. Negatively regulates RNA polymerase II transcription, possibly by controlling the transition from initiation/capping to processive transcript elongation.

Answer 40

CDGSH iron-sulfur domain-containing protein 3, mitochondrial (MitoNEET-related protein 2) (Miner2) (Mitochondrial inner NEET protein) (MiNT) P0C7P0 FUNCTION: Can transfer its iron-sulfur clusters to the apoferrodoxins FDX1 and FDX2. Contributes to mitochondrial iron homeostasis and in maintaining normal levels of free iron and reactive oxygen species, and thereby contributes to normal mitochondrial function.

Answer 41

Protein FAM151B Q6UXP7

Answer 42

ATPase family AAA domain-containing protein 3A Q9NVI7 FUNCTION: Essential for mitochondrial network organization, mitochondrial metabolism and cell growth at organism and cellular level. May play an important role in mitochondrial protein synthesis. May also participate in mitochondrial DNA replication. May bind to mitochondrial DNA D-loops and contribute to nucleoid stability. Required for enhanced channeling of cholesterol for hormone-dependent steroidogenesis.

Answer 43

Protein FAM153A (Renal carcinoma antigen NY-REN-7) Q9UHL3

Answer 44

Apolipoprotein M (Apo-M) (ApoM) (Protein G3a) O95445 FUNCTION: Probably involved in lipid transport. Can bind sphingosine-1-phosphate, myristic acid, palmitic acid and stearic acid, retinol, all-trans-retinoic acid and 9-cis-retinoic acid. Note=Present in high density lipoprotein (HDL) and to a lesser extent in triglyceride-rich lipoproteins (TGRLP) and low density lipoproteins (LDL).

Answer 45

Down syndrome cell adhesion molecule-like protein 1 (Down syndrome cell adhesion molecule 2) Q8TD84 FUNCTION: Cell adhesion molecule that plays a role in neuronal self-avoidance . Promotes repulsion between specific neuronal processes of either the same cell or the same subtype of cells. Promotes both isoneuronal self-avoidance for creating an orderly neurite arborization in retinal rod bipolar cells and heteroneuronal self-avoidance to maintain mosaic spacing between AII amacrine cells (By similarity). Adhesion molecule that promotes lamina-specific synaptic connections in the retina: expressed in specific subsets of interneurons and retinal ganglion cells (RGCs) and promotes synaptic connectivity via homophilic interactions (By similarity).

Answer 46

Fanconi anemia group D2 protein (Protein FACD2) Q9BXW9 FUNCTION: Required for maintenance of chromosomal stability. Promotes accurate and efficient pairing of homologs during meiosis. Involved in the repair of DNA double-strand breaks, both by homologous recombination and single-strand annealing. May participate in S phase and G2 phase checkpoint activation upon DNA damage. Plays a role in preventing breakage and loss of missegregating chromatin at the end of cell division, particularly after replication stress. Required for the targeting, or stabilization, of BLM to non-centromeric abnormal structures induced by replicative stress. Promotes BRCA2/FANCD1 loading onto damaged chromatin. May also be involved in B-cell immunoglobulin isotype switching. Note=Concentrates in nuclear foci during S phase and upon genotoxic stress. At the onset of mitosis, excluded from chromosomes and diffuses into the cytoplasm, returning to the nucleus at the end of cell division. Observed in a few spots localized in pairs on the sister chromatids of mitotic chromosome arms and not centromeres, one on each chromatids. These foci coincide with common fragile sites and could be sites of replication fork stalling. The foci are frequently interlinked through BLM-associated ultra-fine DNA bridges. Following aphidicolin treatment, targets chromatid gaps and breaks.

Answer 47

Down syndrome critical region protein 8 (Cancer/testis antigen 25) (CT25) (DCR1-24.0) (Malignant melanoma-associated protein 1) (MMA-1) (Protein MTAG2) Q96T75

Answer 48

Cannabinoid receptor 1 (CB-R) (CB1) (CANN6) P21554 FUNCTION: G-protein coupled receptor for endogenous cannabinoids (eCBs), including N-arachidonoylethanolamide (also called anandamide or AEA) and 2-arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG), as well as phytocannabinoids, such as delta(9)-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) (, , ). Mediates many cannabinoid-induced effects, acting, among others, on food intake, memory loss, gastrointestinal motility, catalepsy, ambulatory activity, anxiety, chronic pain. Signaling typically involves reduction in cyclic AMP (, , ). In the hypothalamus, may have a dual effect on mitochondrial respiration depending upon the agonist dose and possibly upon the cell type. Increases respiration at low doses, while decreases respiration at high doses. At high doses, CNR1 signal transduction involves G-protein alpha-i protein activation and subsequent inhibition of mitochondrial soluble adenylate cyclase, decrease in cyclic AMP concentration, inhibition of protein kinase A (PKA)-dependent phosphorylation of specific subunits of the mitochondrial electron transport system, including NDUFS2. In the hypothalamus, inhibits leptin-induced reactive oxygen species (ROS) formation and mediates cannabinoid-induced increase in SREBF1 and FASN gene expression. In response to cannabinoids, drives the release of orexigenic beta-endorphin, but not that of melanocyte-stimulating hormone alpha/alpha-MSH, from hypothalamic POMC neurons, hence promoting food intake. In the hippocampus, regulates cellular respiration and energy production in response to cannabinoids. Involved in cannabinoid-dependent depolarization-induced suppression of inhibition (DSI), a process in which depolarization of CA1 postsynaptic pyramidal neurons mobilizes eCBs, which retrogradely activate presynaptic CB1 receptors, transiently decreasing GABAergic inhibitory neurotransmission. Also reduces excitatory synaptic transmission (By similarity). In superior cervical ganglions and cerebral vascular smooth muscle cells, inhibits voltage-gated Ca(2+) channels in a constitutive, as well as agonist-dependent manner . In cerebral vascular smooth muscle cells, cannabinoid-induced inhibition of voltage-gated Ca(2+) channels leads to vasodilation and decreased vascular tone (By similarity). Induces leptin production in adipocytes and reduces LRP2-mediated leptin clearance in the kidney, hence participating in hyperleptinemia. In adipose tissue, CNR1 signaling leads to increased expression of SREBF1, ACACA and FASN genes (By similarity). In the liver, activation by endocannabinoids leads to increased de novo lipogenesis and reduced fatty acid catabolism, associated with increased expression of SREBF1/SREBP-1, GCK, ACACA, ACACB and FASN genes. May also affect de novo cholesterol synthesis and HDL-cholesteryl ether uptake. Peripherally modulates energy metabolism (By similarity). In high carbohydrate diet-induced obesity, may decrease the expression of mitochondrial dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase/DLD in striated muscles, as well as that of selected glucose/ pyruvate metabolic enzymes, hence affecting energy expenditure through mitochondrial metabolism (By similarity). In response to cannabinoid anandamide, elicits a proinflammatory response in macrophages, which involves NLRP3 inflammasome activation and IL1B and IL18 secretion (By similarity). In macrophages infiltrating pancreatic islets, this process may participate in the progression of type-2 diabetes and associated loss of pancreatic beta-cells .

Answer 49

Citrate synthase, mitochondrial (EC 2.3.1) (Citrate (Si)-synthase) O75390 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion matrix.

Answer 50

Formin-like protein 3 (Formin homology 2 domain-containing protein 3) (WW domain-binding protein 3) (WBP-3) Q8IVF7 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape and migration. Required for developmental angiogenesis (By similarity). In this process, required for microtubule reorganization and for efficient endothelial cell elongation. In quiescent endothelial cells, triggers rearrangement of the actin cytoskeleton, but does not alter microtubule alignement. Note=Enriched in lamellipodia.

Answer 51

Contactin-associated protein-like 2 (Cell recognition molecule Caspr2) Q9UHC6 FUNCTION: Required, with CNTNAP1, for radial and longitudinal organization of myelinated axons. Plays a role in the formation of functional distinct domains critical for saltatory conduction of nerve impulses in myelinated nerve fibers. Demarcates the juxtaparanodal region of the axo-glial junction.

Answer 52

Cytochrome P450 2C9 (EC 1.14.14.1) ((R)-limonene 6-monooxygenase) (EC 1.14.14.53) ((S)-limonene 6-monooxygenase) (EC 1.14.14.51) ((S)-limonene 7-monooxygenase) (EC 1.14.14.52) (CYPIIC9) (Cholesterol 25-hydroxylase) (Cytochrome P-450MP) (Cytochrome P450 MP-4) (Cytochrome P450 MP-8) (Cytochrome P450 PB-1) (S-mephenytoin 4-hydroxylase) P11712 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids and steroids (, , , , , , ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase) (, , , , , , ). Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) (, , , ). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Metabolizes cholesterol toward 25-hydroxycholesterol, a physiological regulator of cellular cholesterol homeostasis . Exhibits low catalytic activity for the formation of catechol estrogens from 17beta-estradiol (E2) and estrone (E1), namely 2-hydroxy E1 and E2 . Catalyzes bisallylic hydroxylation and hydroxylation with double-bond migration of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) (, ). Also metabolizes plant monoterpenes such as limonene. Oxygenates (R)- and (S)-limonene to produce carveol and perillyl alcohol . Contributes to the wide pharmacokinetics variability of the metabolism of drugs such as S-warfarin, diclofenac, phenytoin, tolbutamide and losartan . ; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 53

Contactin-associated protein-like 4 (Cell recognition molecule Caspr4) Q9C0A0 FUNCTION: Presynaptic protein involved in both dopaminergic synaptic transmission and GABAergic system, thereby participating in the structural maturation of inhibitory interneuron synapses. Involved in the dopaminergic synaptic transmission by attenuating dopamine release through a presynaptic mechanism. Also participates in the GABAergic system (By similarity).

Answer 54

Cytochrome P450 2C19 (EC 1.14.14.1) ((R)-limonene 6-monooxygenase) (EC 1.14.14.53) ((S)-limonene 6-monooxygenase) (EC 1.14.14.51) ((S)-limonene 7-monooxygenase) (EC 1.14.14.52) (CYPIIC17) (CYPIIC19) (Cytochrome P450-11A) (Cytochrome P450-254C) (Fenbendazole monooxygenase (4'-hydroxylating)) (EC 1.14.14.75) (Mephenytoin 4-hydroxylase) P33261 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) (, , ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase) (, , ). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Hydroxylates PUFA specifically at the omega-1 position . Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of PUFA (, ). Also metabolizes plant monoterpenes such as limonene. Oxygenates (R)- and (S)-limonene to produce carveol and perillyl alcohol . Responsible for the metabolism of a number of therapeutic agents such as the anticonvulsant drug S-mephenytoin, omeprazole, proguanil, certain barbiturates, diazepam, propranolol, citalopram and imipramine. Hydroxylates fenbendazole at the 4' position . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Microsome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 55

Cytochrome P450 2D6 (EC 1.14.14.-) (CYPIID6) (Cholesterol 25-hydroxylase) (Cytochrome P450-DB1) (Debrisoquine 4-hydroxylase) P10635 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of fatty acids, steroids and retinoids (, , , , ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase) (, , , , ). Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) (, ). Metabolizes endocannabinoid arachidonoylethanolamide (anandamide) to 20-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid ethanolamide (20-HETE-EA) and 8,9-, 11,12-, and 14,15-epoxyeicosatrienoic acid ethanolamides (EpETrE-EAs), potentially modulating endocannabinoid system signaling (, ). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Metabolizes cholesterol toward 25-hydroxycholesterol, a physiological regulator of cellular cholesterol homeostasis . Catalyzes the oxidative transformations of all-trans retinol to all-trans retinal, a precursor for the active form all-trans-retinoic acid . Also involved in the oxidative metabolism of drugs such as antiarrhythmics, adrenoceptor antagonists, and tricyclic antidepressants. ; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 56

Centrobin (Centrosomal BRCA2-interacting protein) (LYST-interacting protein 8) Q8N137 FUNCTION: Required for centriole duplication. Inhibition of centriole duplication leading to defects in cytokinesis. Note=Centriole-associated, asymmetrically localizes to the daughter centriole.

Answer 57

Protein C15orf41 (Protein HH114) Q9Y2V0 FUNCTION: Plays a role in erythroid cell differentiation.

Answer 58

Cytochrome P450 2F1 (EC 1.14.14.1) (CYPIIF1) P24903 FUNCTION: May be involved in the metabolism of various pneumotoxicants including naphthalene. Is able to dealkylate ethoxycoumarin, propoxycoumarin, and pentoxyresorufin but possesses no activity toward ethoxyresorufin and only trace dearylation activity toward benzyloxyresorufin. Bioactivates 3-methylindole (3MI) by dehydrogenation to the putative electrophile 3-methylene-indolenine.

Answer 59

Uncharacterized protein C10orf25 Q5T742 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 60

Putative uncharacterized protein C15orf54 Q8N8G6

Answer 61

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC01553 A4QN01

Answer 62

Uncharacterized protein C10orf95 Q9H7T3

Answer 63

Double-stranded RNA-specific adenosine deaminase (DRADA) (EC 3.4.37) (136 kDa double-stranded RNA-binding protein) (p136) (Interferon-inducible protein 4) (IFI-4) (K88DSRBP) P55265 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the hydrolytic deamination of adenosine to inosine in double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) referred to as A-to-I RNA editing (, , ). This may affect gene expression and function in a number of ways that include mRNA translation by changing codons and hence the amino acid sequence of proteins; pre-mRNA splicing by altering splice site recognition sequences; RNA stability by changing sequences involved in nuclease recognition; genetic stability in the case of RNA virus genomes by changing sequences during viral RNA replication; and RNA structure-dependent activities such as microRNA production or targeting or protein-RNA interactions. Can edit both viral and cellular RNAs and can edit RNAs at multiple sites (hyper-editing) or at specific sites (site-specific editing). Its cellular RNA substrates include: bladder cancer-associated protein (BLCAP), neurotransmitter receptors for glutamate (GRIA2) and serotonin (HTR2C) and GABA receptor (GABRA3). Site-specific RNA editing of transcripts encoding these proteins results in amino acid substitutions which consequently alters their functional activities. Exhibits low-level editing at the GRIA2 Q/R site, but edits efficiently at the R/G site and HOTSPOT1. Its viral RNA substrates include: hepatitis C virus (HCV), vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), measles virus (MV), hepatitis delta virus (HDV), and human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1). Exhibits either a proviral (HDV, MV, VSV and HIV-1) or an antiviral effect (HCV) and this can be editing-dependent (HDV and HCV), editing-independent (VSV and MV) or both (HIV-1). Impairs HCV replication via RNA editing at multiple sites. Enhances the replication of MV, VSV and HIV-1 through an editing-independent mechanism via suppression of EIF2AK2/PKR activation and function. Stimulates both the release and infectivity of HIV-1 viral particles by an editing-dependent mechanism where it associates with viral RNAs and edits adenosines in the 5'UTR and the Rev and Tat coding sequence. Can enhance viral replication of HDV via A-to-I editing at a site designated as amber/W, thereby changing an UAG amber stop codon to an UIG tryptophan (W) codon that permits synthesis of the large delta antigen (L-HDAg) which has a key role in the assembly of viral particles. However, high levels of ADAR1 inhibit HDV replication.

Answer 64

Uncharacterized protein C10orf105 Q8TEF2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 65

Cytochrome P450 2W1 (EC 1.14.14.-) (CYPIIW1) Q8TAV3 FUNCTION: Seems to have broad catalytic activity towards several chemicals, including polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon dihydrodiols and aromatic amines (, ). Active also in the metabolism of indoline substrates and is able to activate aflatoxin B1 into cytotoxic products . Furthermore, it seems to be involved in the oxydation of lysophospholipids and fatty acids .

Answer 66

Uncharacterized protein C11orf16 Q9NQ32

Answer 67

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00167 Q96N53

Answer 68

Putative uncharacterized protein C11orf40 (Ro/SSA1-related protein) Q8WZ69

Answer 69

Cytochrome P450 3A43 (EC 1.14.14.1) Q9HB55 FUNCTION: Exhibits low testosterone 6-beta-hydroxylase activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Microsome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 70

Uncharacterized protein C11orf71 Q6IPW1

Answer 71

Solute carrier family 2, facilitated glucose transporter member 4 (Glucose transporter type 4, insulin-responsive) (GLUT-4) P14672 FUNCTION: Insulin-regulated facilitative glucose transporter, which plays a key role in removal of glucose from circulation. Response to insulin is regulated by its intracellular localization: in the absence of insulin, it is efficiently retained intracellularly within storage compartments in muscle and fat cells. Upon insulin stimulation, translocates from these compartments to the cell surface where it transports glucose from the extracellular milieu into the cell.

Answer 72

UPF0696 protein C11orf68 (Basophilic leukemia-expressed protein Bles03) (Protein p5326) Q9H3H3

Answer 73

Uncharacterized protein C11orf87 Q6NUJ2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 74

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase isozyme 2 (FBPase 2) (EC 3.3.11) (D-fructose-1,6-bisphosphate 1-phosphohydrolase 2) (Muscle FBPase) O00757 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the hydrolysis of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate in the presence of divalent cations and probably participates in glycogen synthesis from carbohydrate precursors, such as lactate.

Answer 75

Epithelial discoidin domain-containing receptor 1 (Epithelial discoidin domain receptor 1) (EC 2.10.1) (CD167 antigen-like family member A) (Cell adhesion kinase) (Discoidin receptor tyrosine kinase) (HGK2) (Mammary carcinoma kinase 10) (MCK-10) (Protein-tyrosine kinase 3A) (Protein-tyrosine kinase RTK-6) (TRK E) (Tyrosine kinase DDR) (Tyrosine-protein kinase CAK) (CD antigen CD167a) Q08345 FUNCTION: Tyrosine kinase that functions as cell surface receptor for fibrillar collagen and regulates cell attachment to the extracellular matrix, remodeling of the extracellular matrix, cell migration, differentiation, survival and cell proliferation. Collagen binding triggers a signaling pathway that involves SRC and leads to the activation of MAP kinases. Regulates remodeling of the extracellular matrix by up-regulation of the matrix metalloproteinases MMP2, MMP7 and MMP9, and thereby facilitates cell migration and wound healing. Required for normal blastocyst implantation during pregnancy, for normal mammary gland differentiation and normal lactation. Required for normal ear morphology and normal hearing (By similarity). Promotes smooth muscle cell migration, and thereby contributes to arterial wound healing. Also plays a role in tumor cell invasion. Phosphorylates PTPN11.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 4]: Cell membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 76

Cytochrome P450 3A5 (EC 1.14.14.1) (CYPIIIA5) (Cytochrome P450-PCN3) P20815 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of steroid hormones and vitamins (, , , ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds (, , , ). Exhibits high catalytic activity for the formation of catechol estrogens from 17beta-estradiol (E2) and estrone (E1), namely 2-hydroxy E1 and E2 . Catalyzes 6beta-hydroxylation of the steroid hormones testosterone, progesterone, and androstenedione . Catalyzes the oxidative conversion of all-trans-retinol to all-trans-retinal, a rate-limiting step for the biosynthesis of all-trans-retinoic acid (atRA) . Further metabolizes all trans-retinoic acid (atRA) to 4-hydroxyretinoate and may play a role in hepatic atRA clearance . Also involved in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics, including calcium channel blocking drug nifedipine and immunosuppressive drug cyclosporine . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Microsome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 77

Uncharacterized protein C11orf94 C9JXX5 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 78

Fibronectin (FN) (Cold-insoluble globulin) (CIG) [Cleaved into: Anastellin; Ugl-Y1; Ugl-Y2; Ugl-Y3] P02751 FUNCTION: Fibronectins bind cell surfaces and various compounds including collagen, fibrin, heparin, DNA, and actin. Fibronectins are involved in cell adhesion, cell motility, opsonization, wound healing, and maintenance of cell shape. Involved in osteoblast compaction through the fibronectin fibrillogenesis cell-mediated matrix assembly process, essential for osteoblast mineralization. Participates in the regulation of type I collagen deposition by osteoblasts.; FUNCTION: Anastellin binds fibronectin and induces fibril formation. This fibronectin polymer, named superfibronectin, exhibits enhanced adhesive properties. Both anastellin and superfibronectin inhibit tumor growth, angiogenesis and metastasis. Anastellin activates p38 MAPK and inhibits lysophospholipid signaling. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix .

Answer 79

Clusterin-like protein 1 (Retinal-specific clusterin-like protein) Q15846 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 80

CDK5 regulatory subunit-associated protein 2 (CDK5 activator-binding protein C48) (Centrosome-associated protein 215) Q96SN8 FUNCTION: Potential regulator of CDK5 activity via its interaction with CDK5R1. Negative regulator of centriole disengagement (licensing) which maintains centriole engagement and cohesion. Involved in regulation of mitotic spindle orientation (By similarity). Plays a role in the spindle checkpoint activation by acting as a transcriptional regulator of both BUBR1 and MAD2 promoter. Together with EB1/MAPRE1, may promote microtubule polymerization, bundle formation, growth and dynamics at the plus ends. Regulates centrosomal maturation by recruitment of the gamma-tubulin ring complex (gamma-TuRC) onto centrosomes . In complex with PDE4DIP isoform 13/MMG8/SMYLE, MAPRE1 and AKAP9, contributes to microtubules nucleation and extension from the centrosome to the cell periphery . Required for the recruitment of AKAP9 to centrosomes . Plays a role in neurogenesis (By similarity).

Answer 81

Alpha-(1,3)-fucosyltransferase 11 (EC 2.1.-) (Fucosyltransferase XI) (Fuc-TXI) (FucT-XI) (Galactoside 3-L-fucosyltransferase 11) (Fucosyltransferase 11) Q495W5 FUNCTION: Probable fucosyltransferase.

Answer 82

Complement C2 (EC 3.21.43) (C3/C5 convertase) [Cleaved into: Complement C2b fragment; Complement C2a fragment] P06681 FUNCTION: Component C2 which is part of the classical pathway of the complement system is cleaved by activated factor C1 into two fragments: C2b and C2a. C2a, a serine protease, then combines with complement factor C4b to generate the C3 or C5 convertase. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 83

Cytochrome P450 4F3 (EC 1.14.14.1) (20-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid synthase) (20-HETE synthase) (CYPIVF3) (Cytochrome P450-LTB-omega) (Docosahexaenoic acid omega-hydroxylase CYP4F3) (EC 1.14.14.79) (Leukotriene-B(4) 20-monooxygenase 2) (Leukotriene-B(4) omega-hydroxylase 2) (EC 1.14.14.94) Q08477 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids and their oxygenated derivatives (oxylipins) (, , , , , , , , ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). May play a role in inactivation of proinflammatory and anti-inflammatory oxylipins during the resolution of inflammation (, , , , , , , , , ).

Answer 84

Cytochrome P450 4F12 (EC 1.14.14.1) (CYPIVF12) Q9HCS2 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of endogenous polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bonds, with preference for omega-2 position. Metabolizes (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenoic acid (arachidonate) toward 18-hydroxy arachidonate . Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of PUFAs such as docosapentaenoic and docosahexaenoic acids . Has low omega-hydroxylase activity toward leukotriene B4 and arachidonate . Involved in the metabolism of xenobiotics. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of the antihistamine drug ebastine .

Answer 85

CKLF-like MARVEL transmembrane domain-containing protein 1 (Chemokine-like factor superfamily member 1) Q8IZ96 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 86

Alpha-(1,6)-fucosyltransferase (Alpha1-6FucT) (EC 2.1.68) (Fucosyltransferase 8) (GDP-L-Fuc:N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosaminide alpha1,6-fucosyltransferase) (GDP-fucose--glycoprotein fucosyltransferase) (Glycoprotein 6-alpha-L-fucosyltransferase) Q9BYC5 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the addition of fucose in alpha 1-6 linkage to the first GlcNAc residue, next to the peptide chains in N-glycans.

Answer 87

CKLF-like MARVEL transmembrane domain-containing protein 6 (Chemokine-like factor superfamily member 6) Q9NX76 FUNCTION: Master regulator of recycling and plasma membrane expression of PD-L1/CD274, an immune inhibitory ligand critical for immune tolerance to self and antitumor immunity. Associates with both constitutive and IFNG-induced PD-L1/CD274 at recycling endosomes, where it protects PD-L1/CD274 from being targeted for lysosomal degradation, likely by preventing its STUB1-mediated ubiquitination. May stabilize PD-L1/CD274 expression on antigen presenting cells and potentiates inhibitory signaling by PDCD1/CD279, its receptor on T-cells, ultimately triggering T-cell anergy.

Answer 88

Collagen alpha-3(VI) chain P12111 FUNCTION: Collagen VI acts as a cell-binding protein. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix .

Answer 89

Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX46 (EC 3.4.13) (DEAD box protein 46) (PRP5 homolog) Q7L014 FUNCTION: Plays an essential role in splicing, either prior to, or during splicing A complex formation. Note=Present in Cajal bodies (CBs) and nuclear speckles.

Answer 90

Uncharacterized protein C12orf40 Q86WS4

Answer 91

Aquaporin-12A (AQP-12) Q8IXF9 FUNCTION: Aquaporins facilitate the transport of water and small neutral solutes across cell membranes.

Answer 92

Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX47 (EC 3.4.13) (DEAD box protein 47) Q9H0S4 FUNCTION: Involved in apoptosis. May have a role in rRNA processing and mRNA splicing. Associates with pre-rRNA precursors. Note=Localizes in the nucleolar-organizing region during ribosome biogenesis.

Answer 93

Collagen alpha-2(IX) chain Q14055 FUNCTION: Structural component of hyaline cartilage and vitreous of the eye. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix .

Answer 94

Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX59 (EC 3.4.13) (DEAD box protein 59) (Zinc finger HIT domain-containing protein 5) Q5T1V6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm . Note=Exhibits granular localization in the nucleus, as well as in the cytoplasm.

Answer 95

Aquaporin-5 (AQP-5) P55064 FUNCTION: Forms a water-specific channel (, ). Plays an important role in fluid secretion in salivary glands (By similarity). Required for TRPV4 activation by hypotonicity. Together with TRPV4, controls regulatory volume decrease in salivary epithelial cells . Seems to play a redundant role in water transport in the eye, lung and in sweat glands (By similarity).

Answer 96

Aquaporin-6 (AQP-6) (Aquaporin-2-like) (Kidney-specific aquaporin) (hKID) Q13520 FUNCTION: Forms a water-specific channel that participates in distinct physiological functions such as glomerular filtration, tubular endocytosis and acid-base metabolism.

Answer 97

Complexin-1 (Complexin I) (CPX I) (Synaphin-2) O14810 FUNCTION: Positively regulates a late step in exocytosis of various cytoplasmic vesicles, such as synaptic vesicles and other secretory vesicles . Organizes the SNAREs into a cross-linked zigzag topology that, when interposed between the vesicle and plasma membranes, is incompatible with fusion, thereby preventing SNAREs from releasing neurotransmitters until an action potential arrives at the synapse . Also involved in glucose-induced secretion of insulin by pancreatic beta-cells. Essential for motor behavior.

Answer 98

Protein FAM182A Q5T1J6

Answer 99

Autophagy-related protein 101 Q9BSB4 FUNCTION: Autophagy factor required for autophagosome formation. Stabilizes ATG13, protecting it from proteasomal degradation.

Answer 100

Protein FAM189A1 (Transmembrane protein 228) O60320 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 101

C-type lectin domain family 4 member K (Langerin) (CD antigen CD207) Q9UJ71 FUNCTION: Calcium-dependent lectin displaying mannose-binding specificity. Induces the formation of Birbeck granules (BGs); is a potent regulator of membrane superimposition and zippering. Binds to sulfated as well as mannosylated glycans, keratan sulfate (KS) and beta-glucans. Facilitates uptake of antigens and is involved in the routing and/or processing of antigen for presentation to T cells. Major receptor on primary Langerhans cells for Candida species, Saccharomyces species, and Malassezia furfur. Protects against human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1) infection. Binds to high-mannose structures present on the envelope glycoprotein which is followed by subsequent targeting of the virus to the Birbeck granules leading to its rapid degradation. Note=Found in Birbeck granules (BGs), which are organelles consisting of superimposed and zippered membranes.

Answer 102

Clathrin light chain A (Lca) P09496 FUNCTION: Clathrin is the major protein of the polyhedral coat of coated pits and vesicles. Acts as component of the TACC3/ch-TOG/clathrin complex proposed to contribute to stabilization of kinetochore fibers of the mitotic spindle by acting as inter-microtubule bridge (, ).

Answer 103

Chloride channel CLIC-like protein 1 (Mid-1-related chloride channel protein 1) Q96S66 FUNCTION: Seems to act as a chloride ion channel.

Answer 104

Claudin-19 Q8N6F1 FUNCTION: Plays a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell junction, tight junction. Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 105

UPF0711 protein C18orf21 (HBV X-transactivated gene 13 protein) (HBV XAg-transactivated protein 13) Q32NC0

Answer 106

Denticleless protein homolog (DDB1- and CUL4-associated factor 2) (Lethal(2) denticleless protein homolog) (Retinoic acid-regulated nuclear matrix-associated protein) Q9NZJ0 FUNCTION: Substrate-specific adapter of a DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex required for cell cycle control, DNA damage response and translesion DNA synthesis. The DCX(DTL) complex, also named CRL4(CDT2) complex, mediates the polyubiquitination and subsequent degradation of CDT1, CDKN1A/p21(CIP1), FBH1, KMT5A and SDE2 (, , , , , , , , , , , , ). CDT1 degradation in response to DNA damage is necessary to ensure proper cell cycle regulation of DNA replication (, , ). CDKN1A/p21(CIP1) degradation during S phase or following UV irradiation is essential to control replication licensing (, ). KMT5A degradation is also important for a proper regulation of mechanisms such as TGF-beta signaling, cell cycle progression, DNA repair and cell migration . Most substrates require their interaction with PCNA for their polyubiquitination: substrates interact with PCNA via their PIP-box, and those containing the 'K+4' motif in the PIP box, recruit the DCX(DTL) complex, leading to their degradation. In undamaged proliferating cells, the DCX(DTL) complex also promotes the 'Lys-164' monoubiquitination of PCNA, thereby being involved in PCNA-dependent translesion DNA synthesis (, , , ). The DDB1-CUL4A-DTL E3 ligase complex regulates the circadian clock function by mediating the ubiquitination and degradation of CRY1 . Nucleus membrane; Peripheral membrane protein; Nucleoplasmic side. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, microtubule organizing center, centrosome. Chromosome. Note=Nuclear matrix-associated protein. Translocates from the interphase nucleus to the metaphase cytoplasm during mitosis.

Answer 107

Complement receptor type 1 (C3b/C4b receptor) (CD antigen CD35) P17927 FUNCTION: Membrane immune adherence receptor that plays a critical role in the capture and clearance of complement-opsonized pathogens by erythrocytes and monocytes/macrophages . Mediates the binding by these cells of particles and immune complexes that have activated complement to eliminate them from the circulation . Acts also in the inhibition of spontaneous complement activation by impairing the formation and function of the alternative and classical pathway C3/C5 convertases, and by serving as a cofactor for the cleavage by factor I of C3b to iC3b, C3c and C3d,g, and of C4b to C4c and C4d (, ). Plays also a role in immune regulation by contributing, upon ligand binding, to the generation of regulatory T cells from activated helper T cells . ; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 108

Complement receptor type 2 (Cr2) (Complement C3d receptor) (Epstein-Barr virus receptor) (EBV receptor) (CD antigen CD21) P20023 FUNCTION: Receptor for complement C3, for the Epstein-Barr virus on human B-cells and T-cells and for HNRNPU . Participates in B lymphocytes activation . ; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 109

Very large A-kinase anchor protein (vlAKAP) (Beta/gamma crystallin domain-containing protein 3) Q68DQ2 FUNCTION: [Isoform vlAKAP]: Anchoring protein that mediates the subcellular compartmentation of protein kinase A (PKA).

Answer 110

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase DTX3L (EC 2.2.27) (B-lymphoma- and BAL-associated protein) (Protein deltex-3-like) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase DTX3L) (Rhysin-2) (Rhysin2) Q8TDB6 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which, in association with ADP-ribosyltransferase PARP9, plays a role in DNA damage repair and in interferon-mediated antiviral responses (, , , ). Monoubiquitinates several histones, including histone H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 . In response to DNA damage, mediates monoubiquitination of 'Lys-91' of histone H4 (H4K91ub1) . The exact role of H4K91ub1 in DNA damage response is still unclear but it may function as a licensing signal for additional histone H4 post-translational modifications such as H4 'Lys-20' methylation (H4K20me) . PARP1-dependent PARP9-DTX3L-mediated ubiquitination promotes the rapid and specific recruitment of 53BP1/TP53BP1, UIMC1/RAP80, and BRCA1 to DNA damage sites . By monoubiquitinating histone H2B HIST1H2BH/H2BJ and thereby promoting chromatin remodeling, positively regulates STAT1-dependent interferon-stimulated gene transcription and thus STAT1-mediated control of viral replication . Independently of its catalytic activity, promotes the sorting of chemokine receptor CXCR4 from early endosome to lysosome following CXCL12 stimulation by reducing E3 ligase ITCH activity and thus ITCH-mediated ubiquitination of endosomal sorting complex required for transport ESCRT-0 components HGS and STAM . In addition, required for the recruitment of HGS and STAM to early endosomes . In association with PARP9, plays a role in antiviral responses by mediating 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV) and human rhinovirus (HRV) C3 proteases and thus promoting their proteosomal-mediated degradation .

Answer 111

Cysteine-rich C-terminal protein 1 (Protein NICE-1) Q9UGL9

Answer 112

Atypical chemokine receptor 2 (C-C chemokine receptor D6) (Chemokine receptor CCR-10) (Chemokine receptor CCR-9) (Chemokine-binding protein 2) (Chemokine-binding protein D6) O00590 FUNCTION: Atypical chemokine receptor that controls chemokine levels and localization via high-affinity chemokine binding that is uncoupled from classic ligand-driven signal transduction cascades, resulting instead in chemokine sequestration, degradation, or transcytosis. Also known as interceptor (internalizing receptor) or chemokine-scavenging receptor or chemokine decoy receptor. Acts as a receptor for chemokines including CCL2, CCL3, CCL3L1, CCL4, CCL5, CCL7, CCL8, CCL11, CCL13, CCL17, CCL22, CCL23, CCL24, SCYA2/MCP-1, SCY3/MIP-1-alpha, SCYA5/RANTES and SCYA7/MCP-3. Upon active ligand stimulation, activates a beta-arrestin 1 (ARRB1)-dependent, G protein-independent signaling pathway that results in the phosphorylation of the actin-binding protein cofilin (CFL1) through a RAC1-PAK1-LIMK1 signaling pathway. Activation of this pathway results in up-regulation of ACKR2 from endosomal compartment to cell membrane, increasing its efficiency in chemokine uptake and degradation. By scavenging chemokines in tissues, on the surfaces of lymphatic vessels, and in placenta, plays an essential role in the resolution (termination) of the inflammatory response and in the regulation of adaptive immune responses. Plays a major role in the immune silencing of macrophages during the resolution of inflammation. Acts as a regulator of inflammatory leukocyte interactions with lymphatic endothelial cells (LECs) and is required for immature/mature dendritic cells discrimination by LECs. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Early endosome. Recycling endosome. Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Note=Predominantly localizes to endocytic vesicles, and upon stimulation by the ligand is internalized via clathrin-coated pits. Once internalized, the ligand dissociates from the receptor, and is targeted to degradation while the receptor is recycled back to the cell membrane.

Answer 113

Centrosomal protein of 85 kDa (Cep85) (Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 21) Q6P2H3 FUNCTION: Acts as a negative regulator of NEK2 to maintain the centrosome integrity in interphase. Suppresses centrosome disjunction by inhibiting NEK2 kinase activity .

Answer 114

Ceramide kinase-like protein Q49MI3 FUNCTION: Has no detectable ceramide-kinase activity. Overexpression of CERKL protects cells from apoptosis in oxidative stress conditions. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus, nucleolus. Note=Enriched in nucleoli. May shuttle between nucleus and cytoplasm. Isoform 5 is not enriched in the nucleoli.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 2]: Cytoplasm. Nucleus, nucleolus. Golgi apparatus, trans-Golgi network. Endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer 115

Protein bassoon (Zinc finger protein 231) Q9UPA5 FUNCTION: Scaffold protein of the presynaptic cytomatrix at the active zone (CAZ) which is the place in the synapse where neurotransmitter is released . After synthesis, participates in the formation of Golgi-derived membranous organelles termed Piccolo-Bassoon transport vesicles (PTVs) that are transported along axons to sites of nascent synaptic contacts . At the presynaptic active zone, regulates the spatial organization of synaptic vesicle cluster, the protein complexes that execute membrane fusion and compensatory endocytosis (By similarity). Functions also in processes other than assembly such as the regulation of specific presynaptic protein ubiquitination by interacting with SIAH1 or the regulation of presynaptic autophagy by associating with ATG5 (By similarity). Mediates also synapse to nucleus communication leading to reconfiguration of gene expression by associating with the transcriptional corepressor CTBP1 and by subsequently reducing the size of its pool available for nuclear import (By similarity).

Answer 116

Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 149 Q6ZUS6

Answer 117

Cell cycle control protein 50C (Transmembrane protein 30C) A0ZSE6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 118

BMP/retinoic acid-inducible neural-specific protein 2 (DBCCR1-like protein 2) Q9C0B6 FUNCTION: Inhibits neuronal cell proliferation by negative regulation of the cell cycle transition.

Answer 119

Bombesin receptor subtype-3 (BRS-3) P32247 FUNCTION: Role in sperm cell division, maturation, or function. This receptor mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 120

Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 173 Q0VFZ6

Answer 121

Putative inactive neutral ceramidase B (ASAH2-like protein) (Putative inactive N-acylsphingosine amidohydrolase 2B) (Putative inactive non-lysosomal ceramidase B) P0C7U1

Answer 122

Armadillo repeat-containing protein 2 Q8NEN0 FUNCTION: Required for sperm flagellum axoneme organization and function (By similarity). Involved in axonemal central pair complex assembly and/or stability (By similarity).

Answer 123

Armadillo-like helical domain-containing protein 3 Q5T2E6 FUNCTION: Involved in GBF1 recruitment, Golgi maintenance and protein secretion.

Answer 124

Collagen alpha-1(XIX) chain (Collagen alpha-1(Y) chain) Q14993 FUNCTION: May act as a cross-bridge between fibrils and other extracellular matrix molecules. Involved in skeletal myogenesis in the developing esophagus. May play a role in organization of the pericellular matrix or the sphinteric smooth muscle.

Answer 125

Cartilage oligomeric matrix protein (COMP) (Thrombospondin-5) (TSP5) P49747 FUNCTION: May play a role in the structural integrity of cartilage via its interaction with other extracellular matrix proteins such as the collagens and fibronectin. Can mediate the interaction of chondrocytes with the cartilage extracellular matrix through interaction with cell surface integrin receptors. Could play a role in the pathogenesis of osteoarthritis. Potent suppressor of apoptosis in both primary chondrocytes and transformed cells. Suppresses apoptosis by blocking the activation of caspase-3 and by inducing the IAP family of survival proteins (BIRC3, BIRC2, BIRC5 and XIAP). Essential for maintaining a vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMCs) contractile/differentiated phenotype under physiological and pathological stimuli. Maintains this phenotype of VSMCs by interacting with ITGA7 (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix.

Answer 126

Serine-rich coiled-coil domain-containing protein 1 (Coiled-coil serine-rich protein 1) Q9C0I3

Answer 127

Arf-GAP with GTPase, ANK repeat and PH domain-containing protein 1 (AGAP-1) (Centaurin-gamma-2) (Cnt-g2) (GTP-binding and GTPase-activating protein 1) (GGAP1) Q9UPQ3 FUNCTION: GTPase-activating protein for ARF1 and, to a lesser extent, ARF5. Directly and specifically regulates the adapter protein 3 (AP-3)-dependent trafficking of proteins in the endosomal-lysosomal system. Note=Associates with the endocytic compartment.

Answer 128

Cell division cycle protein 123 homolog (Protein D123) (HT-1080) (PZ32) O75794 FUNCTION: Required for S phase entry of the cell cycle.

Answer 129

Cadherin-10 (T2-cadherin) Q9Y6N8 FUNCTION: Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 130

Transcription regulator protein BACH2 (BTB and CNC homolog 2) Q9BYV9 FUNCTION: Transcriptional regulator that acts as repressor or activator (By similarity). Binds to Maf recognition elements (MARE) (By similarity). Plays an important role in coordinating transcription activation and repression by MAFK (By similarity). Induces apoptosis in response to oxidative stress through repression of the antiapoptotic factor HMOX1 . Positively regulates the nuclear import of actin (By similarity). Is a key regulator of adaptive immunity, crucial for the maintenance of regulatory T-cell function and B-cell maturation .

Answer 131

Cadherin-22 (Pituitary and brain cadherin) (PB-cadherin) Q9UJ99 FUNCTION: Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. PB-cadherins may have a role in the morphological organization of pituitary gland and brain tissues (By similarity).

Answer 132

Beta-1,4-galactosyltransferase 6 (Beta-1,4-GalTase 6) (Beta4Gal-T6) (b4Gal-T6) (EC 2.1.-) (Glucosylceramide beta-1,4-galactosyltransferase) (EC 2.1.274) (Lactosylceramide synthase) (LacCer synthase) (UDP-Gal:beta-GlcNAc beta-1,4-galactosyltransferase 6) (UDP-Gal:glucosylceramide beta-1,4-galactosyltransferase) (UDP-galactose:beta-N-acetylglucosamine beta-1,4-galactosyltransferase 6) Q9UBX8 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the synthesis of lactosylceramide (LacCer) via the transfer of galactose from UDP-galactose to glucosylceramide (GlcCer) (, , ). LacCer is the starting point in the biosynthesis of all gangliosides (membrane-bound glycosphingolipids) which play pivotal roles in the CNS including neuronal maturation and axonal and myelin formation (By similarity).

Answer 133

Calmodulin-1 P0DP23 FUNCTION: Calmodulin mediates the control of a large number of enzymes, ion channels, aquaporins and other proteins through calcium-binding. Among the enzymes to be stimulated by the calmodulin-calcium complex are a number of protein kinases and phosphatases. Together with CCP110 and centrin, is involved in a genetic pathway that regulates the centrosome cycle and progression through cytokinesis . Mediates calcium-dependent inactivation of CACNA1C . Positively regulates calcium-activated potassium channel activity of KCNN2 . Note=Distributed throughout the cell during interphase, but during mitosis becomes dramatically localized to the spindle poles and the spindle microtubules.

Answer 134

Cathelicidin antimicrobial peptide (18 kDa cationic antimicrobial protein) (CAP-18) (hCAP-18) [Cleaved into: Antibacterial peptide FALL-39 (FALL-39 peptide antibiotic); Antibacterial peptide LL-37] P49913 FUNCTION: Binds to bacterial lipopolysaccharides (LPS), has antibacterial activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 135

Cyclin-dependent kinase 3 (EC 2.11.22) (Cell division protein kinase 3) Q00526 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays a critical role in the control of the eukaryotic cell cycle; involved in G0-G1 and G1-S cell cycle transitions. Interacts with CCNC/cyclin-C during interphase. Phosphorylates histone H1, ATF1, RB1 and CABLES1. ATF1 phosphorylation triggers ATF1 transactivation and transcriptional activities, and promotes cell proliferation and transformation. CDK3/cyclin-C mediated RB1 phosphorylation is required for G0-G1 transition. Promotes G1-S transition probably by contributing to the activation of E2F1, E2F2 and E2F3 in a RB1-independent manner.

Answer 136

AP-4 complex subunit epsilon-1 (AP-4 adaptor complex subunit epsilon) (Adaptor-related protein complex 4 subunit epsilon-1) (Epsilon subunit of AP-4) (Epsilon-adaptin) Q9UPM8 FUNCTION: Component of the adaptor protein complex 4 (AP-4). Adaptor protein complexes are vesicle coat components involved both in vesicle formation and cargo selection. They control the vesicular transport of proteins in different trafficking pathways (, ). AP-4 forms a non clathrin-associated coat on vesicles departing the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and may be involved in the targeting of proteins from the trans-Golgi network (TGN) to the endosomal-lysosomal system. It is also involved in protein sorting to the basolateral membrane in epithelial cells and the proper asymmetric localization of somatodendritic proteins in neurons. AP-4 is involved in the recognition and binding of tyrosine-based sorting signals found in the cytoplasmic part of cargos, but may also recognize other types of sorting signal (Probable).

Answer 137

Chondroitin sulfate synthase 2 (EC 2.1.175) (EC 2.1.226) (Chondroitin glucuronyltransferase 2) (Chondroitin-polymerizing factor) (ChPF) (Glucuronosyl-N-acetylgalactosaminyl-proteoglycan 4-beta-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase II) (N-acetylgalactosaminyl-proteoglycan 3-beta-glucuronosyltransferase II) (N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 2) Q8IZ52 FUNCTION: Has both beta-1,3-glucuronic acid and beta-1,4-N-acetylgalactosamine transferase activity. Transfers glucuronic acid (GlcUA) from UDP-GlcUA and N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) from UDP-GalNAc to the non-reducing end of the elongating chondroitin polymer. Isoform 2 may facilitate PRKN transport into the mitochondria. In collaboration with PRKN, isoform 2 may enhance cell viability and protect cells from oxidative stress.

Answer 138

Amyloid-beta A4 precursor protein-binding family A member 3 (Adapter protein X11gamma) (Neuron-specific X11L2 protein) (Neuronal Munc18-1-interacting protein 3) (Mint-3) O96018 FUNCTION: May modulate processing of the amyloid-beta precursor protein (APP) and hence formation of APP-beta. May enhance the activity of HIF1A in macrophages by inhibiting the activity of HIF1AN.

Answer 139

Putative BCoR-like protein 2 (BCL-6 corepressor pseudogene 1) (BCL-6 corepressor-like protein 2) Q8N888

Answer 140

Apolipoprotein B-100 (Apo B-100) [Cleaved into: Apolipoprotein B-48 (Apo B-48)] P04114 FUNCTION: Apolipoprotein B is a major protein constituent of chylomicrons (apo B-48), LDL (apo B-100) and VLDL (apo B-100). Apo B-100 functions as a recognition signal for the cellular binding and internalization of LDL particles by the apoB/E receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 141

Protein cornichon homolog 2 (CNIH-2) (Cornichon family AMPA receptor auxiliary protein 2) (Cornichon-like protein) Q6PI25 FUNCTION: Regulates the trafficking and gating properties of AMPA-selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by regulating their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization. Blocks CACNG8-mediated resensitization of AMPA receptors.

Answer 142

Protein cornichon homolog 3 (CNIH-3) (Cornichon family AMPA receptor auxiliary protein 3) Q8TBE1 FUNCTION: Regulates the trafficking and gating properties of AMPA-selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by regulating their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization.

Answer 143

CNK3/IPCEF1 fusion protein G9CGD6 FUNCTION: Required for hepatocyte growth factor (HGF)-dependent activation of Arf6 and HGF-stimulated cell migration.

Answer 144

Connector enhancer of kinase suppressor of ras 2 (Connector enhancer of KSR 2) (CNK homolog protein 2) (CNK2) Q8WXI2 FUNCTION: May function as an adapter protein or regulator of Ras signaling pathways. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 145

Connector enhancer of kinase suppressor of ras 3 (Connector enhancer of KSR 3) (CNK homolog protein 3) (CNK3) (CNKSR family member 3) (Maguin-like protein) Q6P9H4 FUNCTION: Involved in transepithelial sodium transport. Regulates aldosterone-induced and epithelial sodium channel (ENaC)-mediated sodium transport through regulation of ENaC cell surface expression. Acts as a scaffold protein coordinating the assembly of an ENaC-regulatory complex (ERC).

Answer 146

Putative uncharacterized protein ATP1A1-AS1 (ATP1A1 antisense RNA 1) (ATP1A1 antisense gene protein 1) (ATP1A1 opposite strand protein) Q5TC04

Answer 147

Calponin-1 (Basic calponin) (Calponin H1, smooth muscle) P51911 FUNCTION: Thin filament-associated protein that is implicated in the regulation and modulation of smooth muscle contraction. It is capable of binding to actin, calmodulin, troponin C and tropomyosin. The interaction of calponin with actin inhibits the actomyosin Mg-ATPase activity (By similarity).

Answer 148

Alpha-tubulin N-acetyltransferase 1 (Alpha-TAT) (Alpha-TAT1) (TAT) (EC 2.1.108) (Acetyltransferase mec-17 homolog) Q5SQI0 FUNCTION: Specifically acetylates 'Lys-40' in alpha-tubulin on the lumenal side of microtubules. Promotes microtubule destabilization and accelerates microtubule dynamics; this activity may be independent of acetylation activity. Acetylates alpha-tubulin with a slow enzymatic rate, due to a catalytic site that is not optimized for acetyl transfer. Enters the microtubule through each end and diffuses quickly throughout the lumen of microtubules. Acetylates only long/old microtubules because of its slow acetylation rate since it does not have time to act on dynamically unstable microtubules before the enzyme is released. Required for normal sperm flagellar function. Promotes directional cell locomotion and chemotaxis, through AP2A2-dependent acetylation of alpha-tubulin at clathrin-coated pits that are concentrated at the leading edge of migrating cells. May facilitate primary cilium assembly.

Answer 149

Apolipoprotein C-IV (Apo-CIV) (ApoC-IV) (Apolipoprotein C4) P55056 FUNCTION: May participate in lipoprotein metabolism. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 150

Metal transporter CNNM4 (Ancient conserved domain-containing protein 4) (Cyclin-M4) Q6P4Q7 FUNCTION: Probable metal transporter. The interaction with the metal ion chaperone COX11 suggests that it may play a role in sensory neuron functions (By similarity). May play a role in biomineralization and retinal function.

Answer 151

Metal transporter CNNM3 (Ancient conserved domain-containing protein 3) (Cyclin-M3) Q8NE01 FUNCTION: Probable metal transporter.

Answer 152

C-terminal-binding protein 2 (CtBP2) P56545 FUNCTION: Corepressor targeting diverse transcription regulators. Functions in brown adipose tissue (BAT) differentiation (By similarity).

Answer 153

CST complex subunit CTC1 (Conserved telomere maintenance component 1) (HBV DNAPTP1-transactivated protein B) Q2NKJ3 FUNCTION: Component of the CST complex proposed to act as a specialized replication factor promoting DNA replication under conditions of replication stress or natural replication barriers such as the telomere duplex. The CST complex binds single-stranded DNA with high affinity in a sequence-independent manner, while isolated subunits bind DNA with low affinity by themselves. Initially the CST complex has been proposed to protect telomeres from DNA degradation . However, the CST complex has been shown to be involved in several aspects of telomere replication. The CST complex inhibits telomerase and is involved in telomere length homeostasis; it is proposed to bind to newly telomerase-synthesized 3' overhangs and to terminate telomerase action implicating the association with the ACD:POT1 complex thus interfering with its telomerase stimulation activity. The CST complex is also proposed to be involved in fill-in synthesis of the telomeric C-strand probably implicating recruitment and activation of DNA polymerase alpha . The CST complex facilitates recovery from many forms of exogenous DNA damage; seems to be involved in the re-initiation of DNA replication at repaired forks and/or dormant origins . Involved in telomere maintenance (, ). Involved in genome stability . May be in involved in telomeric C-strand fill-in during late S/G2 phase (By similarity).

Answer 154

Corepressor interacting with RBPJ 1 (CBF1-interacting corepressor) (Recepin) Q86X95 FUNCTION: May modulate splice site selection during alternative splicing of pre-mRNAs (By similarity). Regulates transcription and acts as corepressor for RBPJ. Recruits RBPJ to the Sin3-histone deacetylase complex (HDAC). Required for RBPJ-mediated repression of transcription. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus speckle. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, microtubule organizing center, centrosome. Note=Colocalizes with NEK6 in the centrosome.

Answer 155

CCR4-NOT transcription complex subunit 4 (EC 2.2.27) (CCR4-associated factor 4) (E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase CNOT4) (Potential transcriptional repressor NOT4Hp) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase CNOT4) O95628 FUNCTION: Has E3 ubiquitin ligase activity, promoting ubiquitination and degradation of target proteins (, , ). Involved in activation of the JAK/STAT pathway (, ). Catalyzes ubiquitination of methylated RBM15 .

Answer 156

CCR4-NOT transcription complex subunit 2 (CCR4-associated factor 2) Q9NZN8 FUNCTION: Component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Required for the CCR4-NOT complex structural integrity. Can repress transcription and may link the CCR4-NOT complex to transcriptional regulation; the repressive function may specifically involve the N-Cor repressor complex containing HDAC3, NCOR1 and NCOR2. Involved in the maintenance of embryonic stem (ES) cell identity.

Answer 157

CCR4-NOT transcription complex subunit 3 (CCR4-associated factor 3) (Leukocyte receptor cluster member 2) O75175 FUNCTION: Component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. May be involved in metabolic regulation; may be involved in recruitment of the CCR4-NOT complex to deadenylation target mRNAs involved in energy metabolism. Involved in mitotic progression and regulation of the spindle assembly checkpoint by regulating the stability of MAD1L1 mRNA. Can repress transcription and may link the CCR4-NOT complex to transcriptional regulation; the repressive function may involve histone deacetylases. Involved in the maintenance of embryonic stem (ES) cell identity.

Answer 158

CDGSH iron-sulfur domain-containing protein 1 (MitoNEET) Q9NZ45 FUNCTION: Plays a key role in regulating maximal capacity for electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation (By similarity). May be involved in Fe-S cluster shuttling and/or in redox reactions.

Answer 159

Carboxy-terminal domain RNA polymerase II polypeptide A small phosphatase 2 (EC 3.3.16) (Nuclear LIM interactor-interacting factor 2) (NLI-interacting factor 2) (Protein OS-4) (Small C-terminal domain phosphatase 2) (Small CTD phosphatase 2) (SCP2) O14595 FUNCTION: Preferentially catalyzes the dephosphorylation of 'Ser-5' within the tandem 7 residue repeats in the C-terminal domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A. Negatively regulates RNA polymerase II transcription, possibly by controlling the transition from initiation/capping to processive transcript elongation. Recruited by REST to neuronal genes that contain RE-1 elements, leading to neuronal gene silencing in non-neuronal cells. May contribute to the development of sarcomas.

Answer 160

Down syndrome cell adhesion molecule (CHD2) O60469 FUNCTION: Cell adhesion molecule that plays a role in neuronal self-avoidance. Promotes repulsion between specific neuronal processes of either the same cell or the same subtype of cells. Mediates within retinal amacrine and ganglion cell subtypes both isoneuronal self-avoidance for creating an orderly dendritic arborization and heteroneuronal self-avoidance to maintain the mosaic spacing between amacrine and ganglion cell bodies . Receptor for netrin required for axon guidance independently of and in collaboration with the receptor DCC. Might also collaborate with UNC5C in NTN1-mediated axon repulsion independently of DCC (By similarity). In spinal cord development plays a role in guiding commissural axons projection and pathfinding across the ventral midline to reach the floor plate upon ligand binding (, ). Enhances netrin-induced phosphorylation of PAK1 and FYN . Mediates intracellular signaling by stimulating the activation of MAPK8 and MAP kinase p38 (, ). Adhesion molecule that promotes lamina-specific synaptic connections in the retina: expressed in specific subsets of interneurons and retinal ganglion cells (RGCs) and promotes synaptic connectivity via homophilic interactions (By similarity).

Answer 161

Apolipoprotein L2 (Apolipoprotein L-II) (ApoL-II) Q9BQE5 FUNCTION: May affect the movement of lipids in the cytoplasm or allow the binding of lipids to organelles. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 162

Formin-1 (Limb deformity protein homolog) Q68DA7 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the formation of adherens junction and the polymerization of linear actin cables.

Answer 163

Cytokine-inducible SH2-containing protein (CIS) (CIS-1) (Protein G18) (Suppressor of cytokine signaling) (SOCS) Q9NSE2 FUNCTION: SOCS family proteins form part of a classical negative feedback system that regulates cytokine signal transduction. CIS is involved in the negative regulation of cytokines that signal through the JAK-STAT5 pathway such as erythropoietin, prolactin and interleukin 3 (IL3) receptor. Inhibits STAT5 trans-activation by suppressing its tyrosine phosphorylation. May be a substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins (By similarity).

Answer 164

ATPase family AAA domain-containing protein 2B Q9ULI0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus . Note=Partially localizes to replication sites.

Answer 165

Protein canopy homolog 1 Q3B7I2

Answer 166

Arginyl-tRNA--protein transferase 1 (Arginyltransferase 1) (R-transferase 1) (EC 2.2.8) (Arginine-tRNA--protein transferase 1) O95260 FUNCTION: Involved in the post-translational conjugation of arginine to the N-terminal aspartate or glutamate of a protein. This arginylation is required for degradation of the protein via the ubiquitin pathway. Does not arginylate cysteine residues (By similarity).

Answer 167

Protein canopy homolog 2 (MIR-interacting saposin-like protein) (Putative secreted protein Zsig9) (Transmembrane protein 4) Q9Y2B0 FUNCTION: Positive regulator of neurite outgrowth by stabilizing myosin regulatory light chain (MRLC). It prevents MIR-mediated MRLC ubiquitination and its subsequent proteasomal degradation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum .

Answer 168

Protein canopy homolog 4 Q8N129 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the regulation of the cell surface expression of TLR4.

Answer 169

Putative protein FAM157A C9JC47

Answer 170

AP20 region protein 1 Q8IVJ8 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 171

Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-1 (cAMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-1) (Activating transcription factor 1) (Protein TREB36) P18846 FUNCTION: This protein binds the cAMP response element (CRE) (consensus: 5'-GTGACGT[AC][AG]-3'), a sequence present in many viral and cellular promoters. Binds to the Tax-responsive element (TRE) of HTLV-I. Mediates PKA-induced stimulation of CRE-reporter genes. Represses the expression of FTH1 and other antioxidant detoxification genes. Triggers cell proliferation and transformation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 172

Protein BEX1 (Brain-expressed X-linked protein 1) Q9HBH7 FUNCTION: Signaling adapter molecule involved in p75NTR/NGFR signaling. Plays a role in cell cycle progression and neuronal differentiation. Inhibits neuronal differentiation in response to nerve growth factor (NGF). May act as a link between the cell cycle and neurotrophic factor signaling, possibly by functioning as an upstream modulator of receptor signaling, coordinating biological responses to external signals with internal cellular states (By similarity).

Answer 173

D-glutamate cyclase, mitochondrial (EC 4.1.48) Q7Z3D6 FUNCTION: D-glutamate cyclase that converts D-glutamate to 5-oxo-D-proline.

Answer 174

Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 alpha (cAMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 alpha) (Activating transcription factor 6 alpha) (ATF6-alpha) [Cleaved into: Processed cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 alpha] P18850 FUNCTION: Transmembrane glycoprotein of the endoplasmic reticulum that functions as a transcription activator and initiates the unfolded protein response (UPR) during endoplasmic reticulum stress. Cleaved upon ER stress, the N-terminal processed cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 alpha translocates to the nucleus where it activates transcription of genes involved in the UPR. Binds DNA on the 5'-CCAC[GA]-3'half of the ER stress response element (ERSE) (5'-CCAAT-N(9)-CCAC[GA]-3') and of ERSE II (5'-ATTGG-N-CCACG-3'). Binding to ERSE requires binding of NF-Y to ERSE. Could also be involved in activation of transcription by the serum response factor. May play a role in foveal development and cone function in the retina. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Processed cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 alpha]: Nucleus. Note=Under ER stress the cleaved N-terminal cytoplasmic domain translocates into the nucleus. THBS4 promotes its nuclear shuttling.

Answer 175

Phorbol-12-myristate-13-acetate-induced protein 1 (PMA-induced protein 1) (Immediate-early-response protein APR) (Protein Noxa) Q13794 FUNCTION: Promotes activation of caspases and apoptosis. Promotes mitochondrial membrane changes and efflux of apoptogenic proteins from the mitochondria. Contributes to p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis after radiation exposure. Promotes proteasomal degradation of MCL1. Competes with BAK1 for binding to MCL1 and can displace BAK1 from its binding site on MCL1 (By similarity). Competes with BIM/BCL2L11 for binding to MCL1 and can displace BIM/BCL2L11 from its binding site on MCL1.

Answer 176

CB1 cannabinoid receptor-interacting protein 1 (CRIP-1) Q96F85 FUNCTION: [Isoform 1]: Suppresses cannabinoid receptor CNR1-mediated tonic inhibition of voltage-gated calcium channels.

Answer 177

Protein FAM163A (Cebelin) (Neuroblastoma-derived secretory protein) Q96GL9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 178

Protein BEX5 (Brain-expressed X-linked protein 5) (NGFRAP1-like protein 1) (Nerve growth factor receptor-associated protein 2) Q5H9J7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 179

Consortin Q6PJW8 FUNCTION: Required for targeting of connexins to the plasma membrane. Note=Located predominantly in the trans-Golgi network. Probably trafficks between the trans-Golgi network and the cell membrane via the secretory pathway.

Answer 180

FANCD2 opposite strand protein (Fanconi anemia group D2 protein opposite strand transcript protein) Q96PS1

Answer 181

Protein FAM166C (Family with sequence similarity 166 member C) A6NJV1

Answer 182

Dermatan-sulfate epimerase (DS epimerase) (EC 5.3.19) (Chondroitin-glucuronate 5-epimerase) (Squamous cell carcinoma antigen recognized by T-cells 2) (SART-2) Q9UL01 FUNCTION: Converts D-glucuronic acid to L-iduronic acid (IdoUA) residues.

Answer 183

Fidgetin-like protein 1 (EC 3.4.-) Q6PIW4 FUNCTION: Involved in DNA double-strand break (DBS) repair via homologous recombination (HR). Recruited at DSB sites independently of BRCA2, RAD51 and RAD51 paralogs in a H2AX-dependent manner. May regulate osteoblast proliferation and differentiation . May play a role in the control of male meiosis dynamic (By similarity). Note=Together with RAD51 and a subset of H2A histone proteins, redistributed in discrete nuclear DNA damage-induced foci after ionizing radiation (IR) treatment .

Answer 184

Protein FAM167B Q9BTA0

Answer 185

Dimethylaniline monooxygenase [N-oxide-forming] 2 (EC 1.14.13.8) (Dimethylaniline oxidase 2) (FMO 1B1) (Pulmonary flavin-containing monooxygenase 2) (FMO 2) Q99518 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the N-oxidation of certain primary alkylamines to their oximes via an N-hydroxylamine intermediate. Inactive toward certain tertiary amines, such as imipramine or chloropromazine. Can catalyze the S-oxidation of methimazole.

Answer 186

Desmoglein-1 (Cadherin family member 4) (Desmosomal glycoprotein 1) (DG1) (DGI) (Pemphigus foliaceus antigen) Q02413 FUNCTION: Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Involved in the interaction of plaque proteins and intermediate filaments mediating cell-cell adhesion. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane . Cell junction, desmosome.

Answer 187

25-hydroxyvitamin D-1 alpha hydroxylase, mitochondrial (EC 1.14.15.18) (25-OHD-1 alpha-hydroxylase) (25-hydroxyvitamin D(3) 1-alpha-hydroxylase) (VD3 1A hydroxylase) (Calcidiol 1-monooxygenase) (Cytochrome P450 subfamily XXVIIB polypeptide 1) (Cytochrome P450C1 alpha) (Cytochrome P450VD1-alpha) (Cytochrome p450 27B1) O15528 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in vitamin D metabolism and in calcium and phosphorus homeostasis. Catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the activation of vitamin D in the kidney, namely the hydroxylation of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3/calcidiol at the C1alpha-position to form the hormonally active form of vitamin D3, 1alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3/calcitriol that acts via the vitamin D receptor (VDR) (, , , , ). Has 1alpha-hydroxylase activity on vitamin D intermediates of the CYP24A1-mediated inactivation pathway (, ). Converts 24R,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3/secalciferol to 1-alpha,24,25-trihydroxyvitamin D3, an active ligand of VDR. Also active on 25-hydroxyvitamin D2 . Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via FDXR/adrenodoxin reductase and FDX1/adrenodoxin . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion membrane.

Answer 188

Ciliary neurotrophic factor receptor subunit alpha (CNTF receptor subunit alpha) (CNTFR-alpha) P26992 FUNCTION: Binds to CNTF. The alpha subunit provides the receptor specificity. Receptor for heterodimeric neurotropic cytokine composed of CLCF1/CLC and CRLF1/CLF-1 . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Lipid-anchor, GPI-anchor.

Answer 189

Ciliary neurotrophic factor (CNTF) P26441 FUNCTION: CNTF is a survival factor for various neuronal cell types. Seems to prevent the degeneration of motor axons after axotomy. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm.

Answer 190

Centlein (Centrosomal protein) Q9NXG0 FUNCTION: Required for centrosome cohesion and recruitment of CEP68 to centrosomes.

Answer 191

Soluble lamin-associated protein of 75 kDa (SLAP75) (Protein FAM169A) Q9Y6X4 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus envelope . Note=Enriched at the nuclear lamina.

Answer 192

Cytochrome P450 2A7 (EC 1.14.14.1) (CYPIIA7) (Cytochrome P450 IIA4) P20853 FUNCTION: Cytochromes P450 are a group of heme-thiolate monooxygenases. In liver microsomes, this enzyme is involved in an NADPH-dependent electron transport pathway. It oxidizes a variety of structurally unrelated compounds, including steroids, fatty acids, and xenobiotics. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Microsome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 193

Contactin-1 (Glycoprotein gp135) (Neural cell surface protein F3) Q12860 FUNCTION: Contactins mediate cell surface interactions during nervous system development. Involved in the formation of paranodal axo-glial junctions in myelinated peripheral nerves and in the signaling between axons and myelinating glial cells via its association with CNTNAP1. Participates in oligodendrocytes generation by acting as a ligand of NOTCH1. Its association with NOTCH1 promotes NOTCH1 activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) and subsequent translocation to the nucleus. Interaction with TNR induces a repulsion of neurons and an inhibition of neurite outgrowth (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Cell membrane; Lipid-anchor, GPI-anchor; Extracellular side.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 2]: Cell membrane; Lipid-anchor, GPI-anchor; Extracellular side.

Answer 194

Filamin A-interacting protein 1-like (130 kDa GPBP-interacting protein) (90 kDa GPBP-interacting protein) (Protein down-regulated in ovarian cancer 1) (DOC-1) Q4L180 FUNCTION: Acts as a regulator of the antiangiogenic activity on endothelial cells. When overexpressed in endothelial cells, leads to inhibition of cell proliferation and migration and an increase in apoptosis. Inhibits melanoma growth When expressed in tumor-associated vasculature.

Answer 195

Cbp/p300-interacting transactivator 4 (MSG1-related protein 2) (MRG-2) Q96RK1 FUNCTION: Acts as transcriptional coactivator for TFAP2/AP-2. Enhances estrogen-dependent transactivation mediated by estrogen receptors. May function as an inhibitor of transactivation by HIF1A by disrupting HIF1A interaction with CREBBP. May be involved in regulation of gene expression during development and differentiation of blood cells, endothelial cells and mammary epithelial cells.

Answer 196

Desmoglein-3 (130 kDa pemphigus vulgaris antigen) (PVA) (Cadherin family member 6) P32926 FUNCTION: Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Involved in the interaction of plaque proteins and intermediate filaments mediating cell-cell adhesion. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 197

Contactin-6 (Neural recognition molecule NB-3) (hNB-3) Q9UQ52 FUNCTION: Contactins mediate cell surface interactions during nervous system development. Participates in oligodendrocytes generation by acting as a ligand of NOTCH1. Its association with NOTCH1 promotes NOTCH1 activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) and subsequent translocation to the nucleus. Involved in motor coordination (By similarity).

Answer 198

Contactin-5 (Neural recognition molecule NB-2) (hNB-2) O94779 FUNCTION: Contactins mediate cell surface interactions during nervous system development. Has some neurite outgrowth-promoting activity in the cerebral cortical neurons but not in hippocampal neurons. Probably involved in neuronal activity in the auditory system (By similarity).

Answer 199

Cytochrome P450 2C8 (EC 1.14.14.1) (CYPIIC8) (Cytochrome P450 IIC2) (Cytochrome P450 MP-12) (Cytochrome P450 MP-20) (Cytochrome P450 form 1) (S-mephenytoin 4-hydroxylase) P10632 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids, steroid hormones and vitamins (, , , , ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase) (, , , , ). Primarily catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) with a preference for the last double bond (, , ). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Metabolizes all trans-retinoic acid toward its 4-hydroxylated form . Displays 16-alpha hydroxylase activity toward estrogen steroid hormones, 17beta-estradiol (E2) and estrone (E1) . Plays a role in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics. It is the principal enzyme responsible for the metabolism of the anti-cancer drug paclitaxel (taxol) . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Microsome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 200

Clarin-2 A0PK11 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 201

Clarin-3 (Transmembrane protein 12) (Usher syndrome type-3A-like protein 1) Q8NCR9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 202

Uncharacterized protein C15orf32 Q32M92

Answer 203

Uncharacterized protein C15orf61 A6NNL5 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 204

UPF0728 protein C10orf53 Q8N6V4

Answer 205

Dentin sialophosphoprotein [Cleaved into: Dentin phosphoprotein (Dentin phosphophoryn) (DPP); Dentin sialoprotein (DSP)] Q9NZW4 FUNCTION: DSP may be an important factor in dentinogenesis. DPP may bind high amount of calcium and facilitate initial mineralization of dentin matrix collagen as well as regulate the size and shape of the crystals. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix.

Answer 206

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00614 P0C842

Answer 207

Uncharacterized protein C10orf67, mitochondrial Q8IYJ2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 208

Protein FAM160B2 (Retinoic acid-induced protein 16) Q86V87

Answer 209

(E2-independent) E3 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme FATS (EC 2.2.-) (Centrosomal protein C10orf90) (E2/E3 hybrid ubiquitin-protein ligase FATS) (Fragile-site associated tumor suppressor homolog) (FATS) Q96M02 FUNCTION: Tumor suppressor that is required to sustain G2/M checkpoint after DNA damage. Acts as a p53/TP53 activator by inhibiting MDM2 binding to p53/TP53 and stimulating non-proteolytic polyubiquitination of p53/TP53. Exhibits ubiquitin ligase (E3) activity and assemble ubiquitin polymers through 'Lys-11'- (K11-), 'Lys-29'- (K29-) and 'Lys-63'- (K63)-linkages, independently of the ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme (E2). Promotes p53/TP53-dependent transcription of CDKN1A/p21, leading to robust checkpoint response. Mediates CDKN1A/p21 protein stability in a ubiquitin-independent manner. Interacts with HDAC1 and prevents binding of HDAC1 to CDKN1A/p21 and facilitates the acetylation and stabilization of CDKN1A/p21 (By similarity). May have a role in the assembly of primary cilia (Probable).

Answer 210

Uncharacterized protein C10orf111 Q8N326 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 211

Putative uncharacterized protein C10orf126 Q8N4M7

Answer 212

Vitamin D 25-hydroxylase (EC 1.14.14.24) (Cytochrome P450 2R1) Q6VVX0 FUNCTION: Has a D-25-hydroxylase activity on both forms of vitamin D, vitamin D(2) and D(3). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Microsome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 213

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase 1 (FBPase 1) (EC 3.3.11) (D-fructose-1,6-bisphosphate 1-phosphohydrolase 1) (Liver FBPase) P09467 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the hydrolysis of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate in the presence of divalent cations, acting as a rate-limiting enzyme in gluconeogenesis. Plays a role in regulating glucose sensing and insulin secretion of pancreatic beta-cells. Appears to modulate glycerol gluconeogenesis in liver. Important regulator of appetite and adiposity; increased expression of the protein in liver after nutrient excess increases circulating satiety hormones and reduces appetite-stimulating neuropeptides and thus seems to provide a feedback mechanism to limit weight gain.

Answer 214

Uncharacterized protein C11orf21 Q9P2W6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm.

Answer 215

Uncharacterized protein C11orf52 Q96A22

Answer 216

Uncharacterized protein C11orf86 A6NJI1

Answer 217

Uncharacterized protein C11orf98 E9PRG8

Answer 218

Collectrin (Transmembrane protein 27) Q9HBJ8 FUNCTION: Plays an important role in amino acid transport by acting as binding partner of amino acid transporters SLC6A18 and SLC6A19, regulating their trafficking on the cell surface and their amino acid transporter activity (By similarity). May also play a role in trafficking of amino acid transporters SLC3A1 and SLC7A9 to the renal cortical cell membrane (By similarity). Regulator of SNARE complex function . Stimulator of beta cell replication .

Answer 219

Cytochrome P450 4A22 (CYPIVA22) (Fatty acid omega-hydroxylase) (Lauric acid omega-hydroxylase) (Long-chain fatty acid omega-monooxygenase) (EC 1.14.14.80) Q5TCH4 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the omega- and (omega-1)-hydroxylation of various fatty acids such as laurate and palmitate. Shows no activity towards arachidonic acid and prostaglandin A1. Lacks functional activity in the kidney and does not contribute to renal 20-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (20-HETE) biosynthesis.

Answer 220

CDK5 regulatory subunit-associated protein 3 (CDK5 activator-binding protein C53) (LXXLL/leucine-zipper-containing ARF-binding protein) (Protein HSF-27) Q96JB5 FUNCTION: Probable tumor suppressor initially identified as a CDK5R1 interactor controlling cell proliferation (, ). Negatively regulates NF-kappa-B-mediated gene transcription through the control of RELA phosphorylation (, ). Also regulates mitotic G2/M transition checkpoint and mitotic G2 DNA damage checkpoint (, ). Through its interaction with CDKN2A/ARF and MDM2 may induce MDM2-dependent p53/TP53 ubiquitination, stabilization and activation in the nucleus, thereby promoting G1 cell cycle arrest and inhibition of cell proliferation . May play a role in the unfolded protein response, mediating the ufmylation of multiple proteins in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress . May also play a role in the rupture of the nuclear envelope during apoptosis . May regulate MAPK14 activity by regulating its dephosphorylation by PPM1D/WIP1 .

Answer 221

Bargin (Chimeric SH3BP1-PDXP protein) Q6ZT62 FUNCTION: GTPase activating protein (GAP) which specifically converts GTP-bound RAC1 and CDC42 in their inactive GDP-bound form. The GAP activity is enhanced by the non-covalent binding of K-29 and K-48 polyubiquitin chains.

Answer 222

Collagen alpha-1(III) chain P02461 FUNCTION: Collagen type III occurs in most soft connective tissues along with type I collagen. Involved in regulation of cortical development. Is the major ligand of ADGRG1 in the developing brain and binding to ADGRG1 inhibits neuronal migration and activates the RhoA pathway by coupling ADGRG1 to GNA13 and possibly GNA12. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix .

Answer 223

CKLF-like MARVEL transmembrane domain-containing protein 3 (Chemokine-like factor superfamily member 3) Q96MX0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 224

CKLF-like MARVEL transmembrane domain-containing protein 4 (Chemokine-like factor superfamily member 4) Q8IZR5 FUNCTION: Acts as a backup for CMTM6 to regulate plasma membrane expression of PD-L1/CD274, an immune inhibitory ligand critical for immune tolerance to self and antitumor immunity. May protect PD-L1/CD274 from being polyubiquitinated and targeted for degradation.

Answer 225

Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX41 (EC 3.4.13) (DEAD box protein 41) (DEAD box protein abstrakt homolog) Q9UJV9 FUNCTION: Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase. Is required during post-transcriptional gene expression. May be involved in pre-mRNA splicing.

Answer 226

Uncharacterized protein C12orf56 Q8IXR9

Answer 227

Collagen alpha-2(VI) chain P12110 FUNCTION: Collagen VI acts as a cell-binding protein. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix . Note=Recruited on membranes by CSPG4.

Answer 228

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC01465 Q8N7H1

Answer 229

Complement component C6 P13671 FUNCTION: Constituent of the membrane attack complex (MAC) that plays a key role in the innate and adaptive immune response by forming pores in the plasma membrane of target cells. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 230

Uncharacterized protein C12orf71 A8MTZ7

Answer 231

Collagen alpha-1(VII) chain (Long-chain collagen) (LC collagen) Q02388 FUNCTION: Stratified squamous epithelial basement membrane protein that forms anchoring fibrils which may contribute to epithelial basement membrane organization and adherence by interacting with extracellular matrix (ECM) proteins such as type IV collagen. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix, basement membrane.

Answer 232

C-type lectin domain family 4 member F (C-type lectin superfamily member 13) (C-type lectin 13) Q8N1N0 FUNCTION: Receptor with an affinity for galactose and fucose. Could be involved in endocytosis (By similarity).

Answer 233

Peptidyl-glycine alpha-amidating monooxygenase (PAM) [Includes: Peptidylglycine alpha-hydroxylating monooxygenase (PHM) (EC 1.14.17.3); Peptidyl-alpha-hydroxyglycine alpha-amidating lyase (EC 4.2.5) (Peptidylamidoglycolate lyase) (PAL)] P19021 FUNCTION: Bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the post-translational modification of inactive peptidylglycine precursors to the corresponding bioactive alpha-amidated peptides, a terminal modification in biosynthesis of many neural and endocrine peptides . Alpha-amidation involves two sequential reactions, both of which are catalyzed by separate catalytic domains of the enzyme. The first step, catalyzed by peptidyl alpha-hydroxylating monoxygenase (PHM) domain, is the copper-, ascorbate-, and O2- dependent stereospecific hydroxylation (with S stereochemistry) at the alpha-carbon (C-alpha) of the C-terminal glycine of the peptidylglycine substrate . The second step, catalyzed by the peptidylglycine amidoglycolate lyase (PAL) domain, is the zinc-dependent cleavage of the N-C-alpha bond, producing the alpha-amidated peptide and glyoxylate . Similarly, catalyzes the two-step conversion of an N-fatty acylglycine to a primary fatty acid amide and glyoxylate (By similarity).; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 2]: Membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 3]: Secreted. Note=Secreted from secretory granules.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 4]: Secreted. Note=Secreted from secretory granules.

Answer 234

Amphoterin-induced protein 3 (AMIGO-3) (Alivin-3) Q86WK7 FUNCTION: May mediate heterophilic cell-cell interaction. May contribute to signal transduction through its intracellular domain (By similarity).

Answer 235

H(+)/Cl(-) exchange transporter 3 (Chloride channel protein 3) (ClC-3) (Chloride transporter ClC-3) P51790 FUNCTION: Mediates the exchange of chloride ions against protons. Functions as antiporter and contributes to the acidification of the endosome and synaptic vesicle lumen, and may thereby affect vesicle trafficking and exocytosis. May play an important role in neuronal cell function through regulation of membrane excitability by protein kinase C. It could help neuronal cells to establish short-term memory.

Answer 236

Protein FAM216B Q8N7L0

Answer 237

Putative uncharacterized protein C17orf82 Q86X59

Answer 238

ATP synthase subunit s, mitochondrial (ATP synthase-coupling factor B) (FB) (Distal membrane arm assembly complex 2-like protein) (Mitochondrial ATP synthase regulatory component factor B) Q99766 FUNCTION: Involved in regulation of mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase. Necessary for H(+) conduction of ATP synthase. Facilitates energy-driven catalysis of ATP synthesis by blocking a proton leak through an alternative proton exit pathway.

Answer 239

Beta-crystallin A3 [Cleaved into: Beta-crystallin A3, isoform A1, Delta4 form; Beta-crystallin A3, isoform A1, Delta7 form; Beta-crystallin A3, isoform A1, Delta8 form] P05813 FUNCTION: Crystallins are the dominant structural components of the vertebrate eye lens.

Answer 240

Beta-crystallin B1 (Beta-B1 crystallin) P53674 FUNCTION: Crystallins are the dominant structural components of the vertebrate eye lens.

Answer 241

Beta-chimaerin (Beta-chimerin) (Rho GTPase-activating protein 3) P52757 FUNCTION: GTPase-activating protein for p21-rac. Insufficient expression of beta-2 chimaerin is expected to lead to higher Rac activity and could therefore play a role in the progression from low-grade to high-grade tumors. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 242

Alpha-amylase 2B (EC 3.1.1) (1,4-alpha-D-glucan glucanohydrolase 2B) (Carcinoid alpha-amylase) P19961 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 243

Acyl-coenzyme A synthetase ACSM2B, mitochondrial (EC 6.1.2) (Acyl-CoA synthetase medium-chain family member 2B) (Benzoate--CoA ligase) (EC 6.1.25) (Butyrate--CoA ligase 2B) (Butyryl-coenzyme A synthetase 2B) (Middle-chain acyl-CoA synthetase 2B) (Xenobiotic/medium-chain fatty acid-CoA ligase HXM-A) Q68CK6 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the activation of fatty acids by CoA to produce an acyl-CoA, the first step in fatty acid metabolism (, ). Capable of activating medium-chain fatty acids (e. butyric (C4) to decanoic (C10) acids), and certain carboxylate-containing xenobiotics, e. benzoate (, ).

Answer 244

Cholinesterase (EC 3.1.8) (Acylcholine acylhydrolase) (Butyrylcholine esterase) (Choline esterase II) (Pseudocholinesterase) P06276 FUNCTION: Esterase with broad substrate specificity. Contributes to the inactivation of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Can degrade neurotoxic organophosphate esters.

Answer 245

Corticotropin-releasing factor-binding protein (CRF-BP) (CRF-binding protein) (Corticotropin-releasing hormone-binding protein) (CRH-BP) P24387 FUNCTION: Binds CRF and inactivates it. May prevent inappropriate pituitary-adrenal stimulation in pregnancy. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 246

Gamma-crystallin C (Gamma-C-crystallin) (Gamma-crystallin 2-1) (Gamma-crystallin 3) P07315 FUNCTION: Crystallins are the dominant structural components of the vertebrate eye lens.

Answer 247

Long-chain-fatty-acid--CoA ligase 3 (EC 6.1.3) (Arachidonate--CoA ligase) (EC 6.1.15) (Long-chain acyl-CoA synthetase 3) (LACS 3) O95573 FUNCTION: Acyl-CoA synthetases (ACSL) activates long-chain fatty acids for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation . Required for the incorporation of fatty acids into phosphatidylcholine, the major phospholipid located on the surface of VLDL (very low density lipoproteins) . Has mainly an anabolic role in energy metabolism. Mediates hepatic lipogenesis. Preferentially uses myristate, laurate, arachidonate and eicosapentaenoate as substrates. Both isoforms exhibit the same level of activity (By similarity).

Answer 248

Acyl-coenzyme A thioesterase 13 (Acyl-CoA thioesterase 13) (EC 3.2.-) (Thioesterase superfamily member 2) [Cleaved into: Acyl-coenzyme A thioesterase 13, N-terminally processed] Q9NPJ3 FUNCTION: Acyl-CoA thioesterases are a group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs to the free fatty acid and coenzyme A (CoASH), providing the potential to regulate intracellular levels of acyl-CoAs, free fatty acids and CoASH. Has acyl-CoA thioesterase activity towards medium (C12) and long-chain (C18) fatty acyl-CoA substrates. Can also hydrolyze 3-hydroxyphenylacetyl-CoA and 3,4-dihydroxyphenylacetyl-CoA (in vitro). May play a role in controlling adaptive thermogenesis (By similarity).

Answer 249

Protein FAM98A Q8NCA5 FUNCTION: Positively stimulates PRMT1-induced protein arginine methylation . Involved in skeletal homeostasis (By similarity). Positively regulates lysosome peripheral distribution and ruffled border formation in osteoclasts (By similarity). Promotes colorectal cancer cell malignancy .

Answer 250

Cytokine receptor-like factor 2 (Cytokine receptor-like 2) (IL-XR) (Thymic stromal lymphopoietin protein receptor) (TSLP receptor) Q9HC73 FUNCTION: Receptor for thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP). Forms a functional complex with TSLP and IL7R which is capable of stimulating cell proliferation through activation of STAT3 and STAT5. Also activates JAK2 (By similarity). Implicated in the development of the hematopoietic system.

Answer 251

5'-AMP-activated protein kinase subunit beta-2 (AMPK subunit beta-2) O43741 FUNCTION: Non-catalytic subunit of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), an energy sensor protein kinase that plays a key role in regulating cellular energy metabolism. In response to reduction of intracellular ATP levels, AMPK activates energy-producing pathways and inhibits energy-consuming processes: inhibits protein, carbohydrate and lipid biosynthesis, as well as cell growth and proliferation. AMPK acts via direct phosphorylation of metabolic enzymes, and by longer-term effects via phosphorylation of transcription regulators. Also acts as a regulator of cellular polarity by remodeling the actin cytoskeleton; probably by indirectly activating myosin. Beta non-catalytic subunit acts as a scaffold on which the AMPK complex assembles, via its C-terminus that bridges alpha (PRKAA1 or PRKAA2) and gamma subunits (PRKAG1, PRKAG2 or PRKAG3).

Answer 252

Cardiolipin synthase (CMP-forming) (CLS) (EC 2.8.41) (Protein GCD10 homolog) Q9UJA2 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the synthesis of cardiolipin (CL) (diphosphatidylglycerol) by specifically transferring a phosphatidyl group from CDP-diacylglycerol to phosphatidylglycerol (PG). CL is a key phospholipid in mitochondrial membranes and plays important roles in maintaining the functional integrity and dynamics of mitochondria under both optimal and stress conditions.

Answer 253

Putative ciliary rootlet coiled-coil protein-like 1 protein (Ciliary rootlet coiled-coil protein pseudogene 2) Q86T23

Answer 254

SH3 domain-binding protein 1 Q9Y3L3 FUNCTION: GTPase activating protein (GAP) which specifically converts GTP-bound Rho-type GTPases including RAC1 and CDC42 in their inactive GDP-bound form. By specifically inactivating RAC1 at the leading edge of migrating cells, it regulates the spatiotemporal organization of cell protrusions which is important for proper cell migration . Also negatively regulates CDC42 in the process of actin remodeling and the formation of epithelial cell junctions . Through its GAP activity toward RAC1 and/or CDC42 plays a specific role in phagocytosis of large particles. Specifically recruited by a PI3 kinase/PI3K-dependent mechanism to sites of large particles engagement, inactivates RAC1 and/or CDC42 allowing the reorganization of the underlying actin cytoskeleton required for engulfment . It also plays a role in angiogenesis and the process of repulsive guidance as part of a semaphorin-plexin signaling pathway. Following the binding of PLXND1 to extracellular SEMA3E it dissociates from PLXND1 and inactivates RAC1, inducing the intracellular reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and the collapse of cells .

Answer 255

Putative acyl-coenzyme A thioesterase 6 (Putative acyl-CoA thioesterase 6) (EC 3.2.-) Q3I5F7 FUNCTION: Acyl-CoA thioesterases are a group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs to the free fatty acid and coenzyme A (CoASH), providing the potential to regulate intracellular levels of acyl-CoAs, free fatty acids and CoASH . It is unclear if human acyl-coenzyme A thioesterase 6/ACOT6 has an acyl-CoA thioesterase (Probable).

Answer 256

Actin, alpha cardiac muscle 1 (Alpha-cardiac actin) [Cleaved into: Actin, alpha cardiac muscle 1, intermediate form] P68032 FUNCTION: Actins are highly conserved proteins that are involved in various types of cell motility and are ubiquitously expressed in all eukaryotic cells. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton.

Answer 257

Alpha-actinin-2 (Alpha-actinin skeletal muscle isoform 2) (F-actin cross-linking protein) P35609 FUNCTION: F-actin cross-linking protein which is thought to anchor actin to a variety of intracellular structures. This is a bundling protein. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, myofibril, sarcomere, Z line . Note=Colocalizes with MYOZ1 and FLNC at the Z-lines of skeletal muscle.

Answer 258

Beta-centractin (Actin-related protein 1B) (ARP1B) P42025 FUNCTION: Component of a multi-subunit complex involved in microtubule based vesicle motility. It is associated with the centrosome. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, microtubule organizing center, centrosome.

Answer 259

Putative uncharacterized protein FBXL19-AS1 (FBXL19 antisense RNA 1) (FBXL19 antisense gene protein 1) Q494R0

Answer 260

Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 50 Q9ULJ7 FUNCTION: Involved in the endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of SNX27-retromer-dependent cargo proteins, such as GLUT1 . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endosome .

Answer 261

Adenylate cyclase type 9 (EC 4.1.1) (ATP pyrophosphate-lyase 9) (Adenylate cyclase type IX) (ACIX) (Adenylyl cyclase 9) (AC9) O60503 FUNCTION: Adenylyl cyclase that catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP in response to activation of G protein-coupled receptors (, , , ). Contributes to signaling cascades activated by CRH (corticotropin-releasing factor), corticosteroids and beta-adrenergic receptors .

Answer 262

5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 6 (5-HT-6) (5-HT6) (Serotonin receptor 6) P50406 FUNCTION: This is one of the several different receptors for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin), a biogenic hormone that functions as a neurotransmitter, a hormone, and a mitogen. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins that stimulate adenylate cyclase. It has a high affinity for tricyclic psychotropic drugs (By similarity). Controls pyramidal neurons migration during corticogenesis, through the regulation of CDK5 activity (By similarity). Is an activator of TOR signaling . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 263

Annexin A5 (Anchorin CII) (Annexin V) (Annexin-5) (Calphobindin I) (CBP-I) (Endonexin II) (Lipocortin V) (Placental anticoagulant protein 4) (PP4) (Placental anticoagulant protein I) (PAP-I) (Thromboplastin inhibitor) (Vascular anticoagulant-alpha) (VAC-alpha) P08758 FUNCTION: This protein is an anticoagulant protein that acts as an indirect inhibitor of the thromboplastin-specific complex, which is involved in the blood coagulation cascade.

Answer 264

5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 3E (5-HT3-E) (5-HT3E) (Serotonin receptor 3E) A5X5Y0 FUNCTION: This is one of the several different receptors for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin), a biogenic hormone that functions as a neurotransmitter, a hormone, and a mitogen. This receptor is a ligand-gated ion channel, which when activated causes fast, depolarizing responses. It is a cation-specific, but otherwise relatively nonselective, ion channel. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane . Note=Presumably retained within the endoplasmic reticulum unless complexed with HTR3A.

Answer 265

Disintegrin and metalloproteinase domain-containing protein 15 (ADAM 15) (EC 3.24.-) (Metalloprotease RGD disintegrin protein) (Metalloproteinase-like, disintegrin-like, and cysteine-rich protein 15) (MDC-15) (Metargidin) Q13444 FUNCTION: Active metalloproteinase with gelatinolytic and collagenolytic activity. Plays a role in the wound healing process. Mediates both heterotypic intraepithelial cell/T-cell interactions and homotypic T-cell aggregation. Inhibits beta-1 integrin-mediated cell adhesion and migration of airway smooth muscle cells. Suppresses cell motility on or towards fibronectin possibly by driving alpha-v/beta-1 integrin (ITAGV-ITGB1) cell surface expression via ERK1/2 inactivation. Cleaves E-cadherin in response to growth factor deprivation. Plays a role in glomerular cell migration. Plays a role in pathological neovascularization. May play a role in cartilage remodeling. May be proteolytically processed, during sperm epididymal maturation and the acrosome reaction. May play a role in sperm-egg binding through its disintegrin domain.

Answer 266

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 6 regulatory ankyrin repeat subunit C (PP6-ARS-C) (Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 6 regulatory subunit ARS-C) (Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 52) Q8NB46 FUNCTION: Putative regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 6 (PP6) that may be involved in the recognition of phosphoprotein substrates.

Answer 267

Acyl-CoA-binding protein (ACBP) (Diazepam-binding inhibitor) (DBI) (Endozepine) (EP) P07108 FUNCTION: Binds medium- and long-chain acyl-CoA esters with very high affinity and may function as an intracellular carrier of acyl-CoA esters. It is also able to displace diazepam from the benzodiazepine (BZD) recognition site located on the GABA type A receptor. It is therefore possible that this protein also acts as a neuropeptide to modulate the action of the GABA receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum .

Answer 268

5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 7 (5-HT-7) (5-HT7) (5-HT-X) (Serotonin receptor 7) P34969 FUNCTION: This is one of the several different receptors for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin), a biogenic hormone that functions as a neurotransmitter, a hormone, and a mitogen. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins that stimulate adenylate cyclase. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 269

Protein ABHD8 (EC 3.-.-) (Alpha/beta hydrolase domain-containing protein 8) (Abhydrolase domain-containing protein 8) Q96I13

Answer 270

Annexin A3 (35-alpha calcimedin) (Annexin III) (Annexin-3) (Inositol 1,2-cyclic phosphate 2-phosphohydrolase) (Lipocortin III) (Placental anticoagulant protein III) (PAP-III) P12429 FUNCTION: Inhibitor of phospholipase A2, also possesses anti-coagulant properties. Also cleaves the cyclic bond of inositol 1,2-cyclic phosphate to form inositol 1-phosphate.

Answer 271

UPF0489 protein C5orf22 Q49AR2

Answer 272

Cdc42 effector protein 5 (Binder of Rho GTPases 3) Q6NZY7 FUNCTION: Probably involved in the organization of the actin cytoskeleton. May act downstream of CDC42 to induce actin filament assembly leading to cell shape changes. Induces pseudopodia formation in fibroblasts. Inhibits MAPK8 independently of CDC42 binding. Controls septin organization and this effect is negatively regulated by CDC42 (By similarity).

Answer 273

DNA replication factor Cdt1 (Double parked homolog) (DUP) Q9H211 FUNCTION: Required for both DNA replication and mitosis (, , , , ). DNA replication licensing factor, required for pre-replication complex assembly. Cooperates with CDC6 and the origin recognition complex (ORC) during G1 phase of the cell cycle to promote the loading of the mini-chromosome maintenance (MCM) complex onto DNA to generate pre-replication complexes (pre-RC). Required also for mitosis by promoting stable kinetochore-microtubule attachments . Potential oncogene (By similarity).

Answer 274

Aminoacyl tRNA synthase complex-interacting multifunctional protein 2 (Multisynthase complex auxiliary component p38) (Protein JTV-1) Q13155 FUNCTION: Required for assembly and stability of the aminoacyl-tRNA synthase complex . Mediates ubiquitination and degradation of FUBP1, a transcriptional activator of MYC, leading to MYC down-regulation which is required for aveolar type II cell differentiation. Blocks MDM2-mediated ubiquitination and degradation of p53/TP53. Functions as a proapoptotic factor.

Answer 275

F-actin-capping protein subunit alpha-3 (CapZ alpha-3) (CP-alpha-3) (Germ cell-specific protein 3) Q96KX2 FUNCTION: F-actin-capping proteins bind in a Ca(2+)-independent manner to the fast growing ends of actin filaments (barbed end) thereby blocking the exchange of subunits at these ends. Unlike other capping proteins (such as gelsolin and severin), these proteins do not sever actin filaments. May play a role in the morphogenesis of spermatid (By similarity).

Answer 276

CUGBP Elav-like family member 6 (CELF-6) (Bruno-like protein 6) (CUG-BP- and ETR-3-like factor 6) (RNA-binding protein BRUNOL-6) Q96J87 FUNCTION: RNA-binding protein implicated in the regulation of pre-mRNA alternative splicing. Mediates exon inclusion and/or exclusion in pre-mRNA that are subject to tissue-specific and developmentally regulated alternative splicing. Specifically activates exon 5 inclusion of TNNT2 in a muscle-specific splicing enhancer (MSE)-dependent manner. Promotes also exon exclusion of INSR pre-mRNA.

Answer 277

Cytochrome c oxidase copper chaperone Q14061 FUNCTION: Copper metallochaperone essential for the assembly of the mitochondrial respiratory chain complex IV (CIV), also known as cytochrome c oxidase. Binds two copper ions and delivers them to the metallochaperone SCO1 which transports the copper ions to the Cu(A) site on the cytochrome c oxidase subunit II (MT-CO2/COX2).

Answer 278

Cardiac-enriched FHL2-interacting protein Q711Q0 FUNCTION: Plays an important role in cardiomyocyte hypertrophy via activation of the calcineurin/NFAT signaling pathway.

Answer 279

Aldehyde dehydrogenase X, mitochondrial (EC 1.1.3) (Aldehyde dehydrogenase 5) (Aldehyde dehydrogenase family 1 member B1) P30837 FUNCTION: ALDHs play a major role in the detoxification of alcohol-derived acetaldehyde. They are involved in the metabolism of corticosteroids, biogenic amines, neurotransmitters, and lipid peroxidation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion matrix.

Answer 280

Delta-1-pyrroline-5-carboxylate dehydrogenase, mitochondrial (P5C dehydrogenase) (EC 1.1.88) (Aldehyde dehydrogenase family 4 member A1) (L-glutamate gamma-semialdehyde dehydrogenase) P30038 FUNCTION: Irreversible conversion of delta-1-pyrroline-5-carboxylate (P5C), derived either from proline or ornithine, to glutamate. This is a necessary step in the pathway interconnecting the urea and tricarboxylic acid cycles. The preferred substrate is glutamic gamma-semialdehyde, other substrates include succinic, glutaric and adipic semialdehydes. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion matrix.

Answer 281

Centromere protein C (CENP-C) (Centromere autoantigen C) (Centromere protein C 1) (CENP-C 1) (Interphase centromere complex protein 7) Q03188 FUNCTION: Component of the CENPA-NAC (nucleosome-associated) complex, a complex that plays a central role in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. The CENPA-NAC complex recruits the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex and may be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres. CENPC recruits DNA methylation and DNMT3B to both centromeric and pericentromeric satellite repeats and regulates the histone code in these regions.

Answer 282

Carboxypeptidase B2 (EC 3.17.20) (Carboxypeptidase U) (CPU) (Plasma carboxypeptidase B) (pCPB) (Thrombin-activable fibrinolysis inhibitor) (TAFI) Q96IY4 FUNCTION: Cleaves C-terminal arginine or lysine residues from biologically active peptides such as kinins or anaphylatoxins in the circulation thereby regulating their activities. Down-regulates fibrinolysis by removing C-terminal lysine residues from fibrin that has already been partially degraded by plasmin. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 283

Bromodomain-containing protein 2 (O27.1) (Really interesting new gene 3 protein) P25440 FUNCTION: May play a role in spermatogenesis or folliculogenesis (By similarity). Binds hyperacetylated chromatin and plays a role in the regulation of transcription, probably by chromatin remodeling. Regulates transcription of the CCND1 gene. Plays a role in nucleosome assembly. Note=Detected on chromatin and nucleosomes.

Answer 284

Cell migration-inducing and hyaluronan-binding protein (EC 3.1.35) Q8WUJ3 FUNCTION: Mediates depolymerization of hyaluronic acid (HA) via the cell membrane-associated clathrin-coated pit endocytic pathway. Binds to hyaluronic acid. Hydrolyzes high molecular weight hyaluronic acid to produce an intermediate-sized product, a process that may occur through rapid vesicle endocytosis and recycling without intracytoplasmic accumulation or digestion in lysosomes. Involved in hyaluronan catabolism in the dermis of the skin and arthritic synovium. Positively regulates epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT), and hence tumor cell growth, invasion and cancer dissemination. In collaboration with HSPA5/BIP, promotes cancer cell migration in a calcium and PKC-dependent manner. May be involved in hearing. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Cytoplasm. Endoplasmic reticulum. Cell membrane. Membrane, clathrin-coated pit. Secreted. Note=Retained in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in a HSPA5/BIP-dependent manner. Colocalized with clathrin heavy chain/CLTC in clathrin-coated vesicles. Strongly detected in the cytoplasm of breast carcinoma cells, whereas poorly detected in adjacent normal epithelial cells, stromal cells, or benign breast tissues. Localized in the nucleus and cytoplasm of colon adenocarcinomas.

Answer 285

Alpha-1,2-mannosyltransferase ALG9 (EC 2.1.259) (EC 2.1.261) (Asparagine-linked glycosylation protein 9 homolog) (Disrupted in bipolar disorder protein 1) (Dol-P-Man:Man(6)GlcNAc(2)-PP-Dol alpha-1,2-mannosyltransferase) (Dol-P-Man:Man(8)GlcNAc(2)-PP-Dol alpha-1,2-mannosyltransferase) Q9H6U8 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the transfer of mannose from Dol-P-Man to lipid-linked oligosaccharides.

Answer 286

Carboxypeptidase E (CPE) (EC 3.17.10) (Carboxypeptidase H) (CPH) (Enkephalin convertase) (Prohormone-processing carboxypeptidase) P16870 FUNCTION: Sorting receptor that directs prohormones to the regulated secretory pathway. Acts also as a prohormone processing enzyme in neuro/endocrine cells, removing dibasic residues from the C-terminal end of peptide hormone precursors after initial endoprotease cleavage.

Answer 287

Chromobox protein homolog 8 (Polycomb 3 homolog) (Pc3) (hPc3) (Rectachrome 1) Q9HC52 FUNCTION: Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility.

Answer 288

Cilia- and flagella-associated protein 46 (Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 40) Q8IYW2 FUNCTION: As part of the central apparatus of the cilium axoneme plays a role in cilium movement.

Answer 289

RNA demethylase ALKBH5 (EC 1.14.11.53) (Alkylated DNA repair protein alkB homolog 5) (Alpha-ketoglutarate-dependent dioxygenase alkB homolog 5) Q6P6C2 FUNCTION: Dioxygenase that demethylates RNA by oxidative demethylation: specifically demethylates N(6)-methyladenosine (m6A) RNA, the most prevalent internal modification of messenger RNA (mRNA) in higher eukaryotes (, , , ). Can also demethylate N(6)-methyladenosine in single-stranded DNA (in vitro) . Requires molecular oxygen, alpha-ketoglutarate and iron (, , , , ). Demethylation of m6A mRNA affects mRNA processing and export . Required for the late meiotic and haploid phases of spermatogenesis by mediating m6A demethylation in spermatocytes and round spermatids: m6A demethylation of target transcripts is required for correct splicing and the production of longer 3'-UTR mRNAs in male germ cells (By similarity).

Answer 290

Cilia- and flagella-associated protein 74 Q9C0B2 FUNCTION: As part of the central apparatus of the cilium axoneme may play a role in cilium movement.

Answer 291

Cilia- and flagella-associated protein 54 Q96N23 FUNCTION: Required for assembly and function of cilia and flagella.

Answer 292

C-C motif chemokine 4-like (Lymphocyte activation gene 1 protein) (LAG-1) (Macrophage inflammatory protein 1-beta) (MIP-1-beta) (Monocyte adherence-induced protein 5-alpha) (Small-inducible cytokine A4-like) Q8NHW4 FUNCTION: Chemokine that induces chemotaxis of cells expressing CCR5 or CCR1. Inhibits HIV replication in peripheral blood monocytes that express CCR5.

Answer 293

Cilia- and flagella-associated protein 91 (CFAP91) (AMY-1-associating protein expressed in testis 1) (AAT-1) (MYCBP/AMY-1-associated testis-expressed protein 1) (Protein MAATS1) Q7Z4T9 FUNCTION: May play a role in spermatogenesis . May regulate cilium motility through its role in the assembly of the axonemal radial spokes (By similarity).

Answer 294

Steroid 17-alpha-hydroxylase/17,20 lyase (EC 1.14.14.19) (17-alpha-hydroxyprogesterone aldolase) (EC 1.14.14.32) (CYPXVII) (Cytochrome P450 17A1) (Cytochrome P450-C17) (Cytochrome P450c17) (Steroid 17-alpha-monooxygenase) P05093 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in corticoid and androgen biosynthesis (, , , ). Catalyzes 17-alpha hydroxylation of C21 steroids, which is common for both pathways. A second oxidative step, required only for androgen synthesis, involves an acyl-carbon cleavage. The 17-alpha hydroxy intermediates, as part of adrenal glucocorticoids biosynthesis pathway, are precursors of cortisol (, ) (Probable). Hydroxylates steroid hormones, pregnenolone and progesterone to form 17-alpha hydroxy metabolites, followed by the cleavage of the C17-C20 bond to form C19 steroids, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and androstenedione (, , , ). Has 16-alpha hydroxylase activity. Catalyzes 16-alpha hydroxylation of 17-alpha hydroxy pregnenolone, followed by the cleavage of the C17-C20 bond to form 16-alpha-hydroxy DHEA. Also 16-alpha hydroxylates androgens, relevant for estriol synthesis (, ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase) (, , , ).

Answer 295

2-hydroxyacylsphingosine 1-beta-galactosyltransferase (EC 2.1.47) (Ceramide UDP-galactosyltransferase) (Cerebroside synthase) (UDP-galactose-ceramide galactosyltransferase) Q16880 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the transfer of galactose to ceramide, a key enzymatic step in the biosynthesis of galactocerebrosides, which are abundant sphingolipids of the myelin membrane of the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

Answer 296

Putative protein CASTOR 3 (STAG3 opposite strand transcript protein) Q8NAP1

Answer 297

Bystin Q13895 FUNCTION: Required for processing of 20S pre-rRNA precursor and biogenesis of 40S ribosomal subunits. May be required for trophinin-dependent regulation of cell adhesion during implantation of human embryos. Note=Associated with 40S ribosomal subunits.

Answer 298

Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 78 (hsCCDC78) A2IDD5 FUNCTION: Component of the deuterosome, a structure that promotes de novo centriole amplification in multiciliated cells that can generate more than 100 centrioles. Deuterosome-mediated centriole amplification occurs in terminally differentiated multiciliated cells (G1/0) and not in S phase. Essential for centriole amplification and is required for CEP152 localization to the deuterosome. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, microtubule organizing center, centrosome, centriole. Cytoplasm, perinuclear region. Cell membrane, sarcolemma. Sarcoplasmic reticulum. Note=Localizes to centrioles and deuterosome. Found primarily in the perinuclear region as well as along the sarcolemmal membrane and in reticular pattern within the sarcoplasm.

Answer 299

Bifunctional coenzyme A synthase (CoA synthase) (NBP) (POV-2) [Includes: Phosphopantetheine adenylyltransferase (EC 2.7.3) (Dephospho-CoA pyrophosphorylase) (Pantetheine-phosphate adenylyltransferase) (PPAT); Dephospho-CoA kinase (DPCK) (EC 2.1.24) (Dephosphocoenzyme A kinase) (DPCOAK)] Q13057 FUNCTION: Bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the fourth and fifth sequential steps of CoA biosynthetic pathway. The fourth reaction is catalyzed by the phosphopantetheine adenylyltransferase, coded by the coaD domain; the fifth reaction is catalyzed by the dephospho-CoA kinase, coded by the coaE domain. May act as a point of CoA biosynthesis regulation.

Answer 300

Rho guanine nucleotide exchange factor 40 (Protein SOLO) Q8TER5 FUNCTION: May act as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF). Note=Concentrated in the perinuclear region.

Answer 301

Cytochrome c-type heme lyase (CCHL) (EC 4.1.17) (Holocytochrome c-type synthase) P53701 FUNCTION: Links covalently the heme group to the apoprotein of cytochrome c.

Answer 302

Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 144A A2RUR9

Answer 303

Ataxin-2-like protein (Ataxin-2 domain protein) (Ataxin-2-related protein) Q8WWM7 FUNCTION: Involved in the regulation of stress granule and P-body formation.

Answer 304

Asparagine synthetase domain-containing protein 1 (HCV NS3-transactivated protein 1) Q9NWL6

Answer 305

Cyclin-L1 (Cyclin-L) Q9UK58 FUNCTION: Involved in pre-mRNA splicing. Functions in association with cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) . Inhibited by the CDK-specific inhibitor CDKN1A/p21 . May play a role in the regulation of RNA polymerase II (pol II). May be a candidate proto-oncogene in head and neck squamous cell carcinomas (HNSCC) (, ).

Answer 306

G1/S-specific cyclin-D1 (B-cell lymphoma 1 protein) (BCL-1) (BCL-1 oncogene) (PRAD1 oncogene) P24385 FUNCTION: Regulatory component of the cyclin D1-CDK4 (DC) complex that phosphorylates and inhibits members of the retinoblastoma (RB) protein family including RB1 and regulates the cell-cycle during G(1)/S transition. Phosphorylation of RB1 allows dissociation of the transcription factor E2F from the RB/E2F complex and the subsequent transcription of E2F target genes which are responsible for the progression through the G(1) phase. Hypophosphorylates RB1 in early G(1) phase. Cyclin D-CDK4 complexes are major integrators of various mitogenenic and antimitogenic signals. Also substrate for SMAD3, phosphorylating SMAD3 in a cell-cycle-dependent manner and repressing its transcriptional activity. Component of the ternary complex, cyclin D1/CDK4/CDKN1B, required for nuclear translocation and activity of the cyclin D-CDK4 complex. Exhibits transcriptional corepressor activity with INSM1 on the NEUROD1 and INS promoters in a cell cycle-independent manner.

Answer 307

Uncharacterized protein C4orf45 Q96LM5

Answer 308

Collagen alpha-1(XVII) chain (180 kDa bullous pemphigoid antigen 2) (Bullous pemphigoid antigen 2) [Cleaved into: 120 kDa linear IgA disease antigen (120 kDa linear IgA dermatosis antigen) (Linear IgA disease antigen 1) (LAD-1); 97 kDa linear IgA disease antigen (97 kDa linear IgA bullous dermatosis antigen) (97 kDa LAD antigen) (97-LAD) (Linear IgA bullous disease antigen of 97 kDa) (LABD97)] Q9UMD9 FUNCTION: May play a role in the integrity of hemidesmosome and the attachment of basal keratinocytes to the underlying basement membrane.; FUNCTION: The 120 kDa linear IgA disease antigen is an anchoring filament component involved in dermal-epidermal cohesion. Is the target of linear IgA bullous dermatosis autoantibodies. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell junction, hemidesmosome. Membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein. Note=Localized along the plasma membrane of the hemidesmosome.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [120 kDa linear IgA disease antigen]: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix, basement membrane. Note=Exclusively localized to anchoring filaments. Localized to the epidermal side of split skin.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [97 kDa linear IgA disease antigen]: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix, basement membrane. Note=Localized in the lamina lucida beneath the hemidesmosomes.

Answer 309

Arf-GAP with GTPase, ANK repeat and PH domain-containing protein 4 (AGAP-4) (Centaurin-gamma-like family member 1) (Centaurin-gamma-like family member 5) Q96P64 FUNCTION: Putative GTPase-activating protein.

Answer 310

Endoplasmic reticulum chaperone BiP (EC 3.4.10) (78 kDa glucose-regulated protein) (GRP-78) (Binding-immunoglobulin protein) (BiP) (Heat shock protein 70 family protein 5) (HSP70 family protein 5) (Heat shock protein family A member 5) (Immunoglobulin heavy chain-binding protein) P11021 FUNCTION: Endoplasmic reticulum chaperone that plays a key role in protein folding and quality control in the endoplasmic reticulum lumen (, , , ). Involved in the correct folding of proteins and degradation of misfolded proteins via its interaction with DNAJC10/ERdj5, probably to facilitate the release of DNAJC10/ERdj5 from its substrate (By similarity). Acts as a key repressor of the ERN1/IRE1-mediated unfolded protein response (UPR) (, ). In the unstressed endoplasmic reticulum, recruited by DNAJB9/ERdj4 to the luminal region of ERN1/IRE1, leading to disrupt the dimerization of ERN1/IRE1, thereby inactivating ERN1/IRE1 (By similarity). Accumulation of misfolded protein in the endoplasmic reticulum causes release of HSPA5/BiP from ERN1/IRE1, allowing homodimerization and subsequent activation of ERN1/IRE1 (By similarity). Plays an auxiliary role in post-translational transport of small presecretory proteins across endoplasmic reticulum (ER). May function as an allosteric modulator for SEC61 channel-forming translocon complex, likely cooperating with SEC62 to enable the productive insertion of these precursors into SEC61 channel. Appears to specifically regulate translocation of precursors having inhibitory residues in their mature region that weaken channel gating.

Answer 311

B melanoma antigen 3 (Cancer/testis antigen 2.3) (CT2.3) Q86Y29 FUNCTION: Unknown. Candidate gene encoding tumor antigens. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 312

B-cell scaffold protein with ankyrin repeats Q8NDB2 FUNCTION: Involved in B-cell receptor (BCR)-induced Ca(2+) mobilization from intracellular stores. Promotes Lyn-mediated phosphorylation of IP3 receptors 1 and 2.

Answer 313

AP-3 complex subunit delta-1 (AP-3 complex subunit delta) (Adaptor-related protein complex 3 subunit delta-1) (Delta-adaptin) O14617 FUNCTION: Part of the AP-3 complex, an adaptor-related complex which is not clathrin-associated. The complex is associated with the Golgi region as well as more peripheral structures. It facilitates the budding of vesicles from the Golgi membrane and may be directly involved in trafficking to lysosomes. Involved in process of CD8+ T-cell and NK cell degranulation . In concert with the BLOC-1 complex, AP-3 is required to target cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals (By similarity).

Answer 314

Transcription factor AP-2-beta (AP2-beta) (Activating enhancer-binding protein 2-beta) Q92481 FUNCTION: Sequence-specific DNA-binding protein that interacts with inducible viral and cellular enhancer elements to regulate transcription of selected genes. AP-2 factors bind to the consensus sequence 5'-GCCNNNGGC-3' and activate genes involved in a large spectrum of important biological functions including proper eye, face, body wall, limb and neural tube development. They also suppress a number of genes including MCAM/MUC18, C/EBP alpha and MYC. AP-2-beta appears to be required for normal face and limb development and for proper terminal differentiation and function of renal tubular epithelia.

Answer 315

Bardet-Biedl syndrome 12 protein Q6ZW61 FUNCTION: Component of the chaperonin-containing T-complex (TRiC), a molecular chaperone complex that assists the folding of proteins upon ATP hydrolysis. As part of the TRiC complex may play a role in the assembly of BBSome, a complex involved in ciliogenesis regulating transports vesicles to the cilia . Involved in adipogenic differentiation .

Answer 316

Charged multivesicular body protein 3 (Chromatin-modifying protein 3) (Neuroendocrine differentiation factor) (Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 24) (hVps24) Q9Y3E7 FUNCTION: Probable core component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis and the budding of enveloped viruses (HIV-1 and other lentiviruses). ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4. Selectively binds to phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate PtdIns(3,5)P2 and PtdIns(3,4)P2 in preference to other phosphoinositides tested. Involved in late stages of cytokinesis. Plays a role in endosomal sorting/trafficking of EGF receptor. Isoform 2 prevents stress-mediated cell death and accumulation of reactive oxygen species when expressed in yeast cells. Note=Localizes to the midbody of dividing cells.

Answer 317

Beta,beta-carotene 9',10'-oxygenase (EC 1.13.11.71) (B-diox-II) (Beta-carotene dioxygenase 2) Q9BYV7 FUNCTION: Asymmetrically cleaves beta-carotene at the 9',10' double bond resulting in the formation of beta-apo-10'-carotenal and beta-ionone. Besides beta-carotene, lycopene is also oxidatively cleaved. The apocarotenals formed by this enzyme may be the precursors for the biosynthesis of retinoic acid or exert unknown physiological effects.

Answer 318

B-cell lymphoma 6 protein (BCL-6) (B-cell lymphoma 5 protein) (BCL-5) (Protein LAZ-3) (Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 27) (Zinc finger protein 51) P41182 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor mainly required for germinal center (GC) formation and antibody affinity maturation which has different mechanisms of action specific to the lineage and biological functions. Forms complexes with different corepressors and histone deacetylases to repress the transcriptional expression of different subsets of target genes. Represses its target genes by binding directly to the DNA sequence 5'-TTCCTAGAA-3' (BCL6-binding site) or indirectly by repressing the transcriptional activity of transcription factors. In GC B-cells, represses genes that function in differentiation, inflammation, apoptosis and cell cycle control, also autoregulates its transcriptional expression and up-regulates, indirectly, the expression of some genes important for GC reactions, such as AICDA, through the repression of microRNAs expression, like miR155. An important function is to allow GC B-cells to proliferate very rapidly in response to T-cell dependent antigens and tolerate the physiological DNA breaks required for immunglobulin class switch recombination and somatic hypermutation without inducing a p53/TP53-dependent apoptotic response. In follicular helper CD4(+) T-cells (T(FH) cells), promotes the expression of T(FH)-related genes but inhibits the differentiation of T(H)1, T(H)2 and T(H)17 cells. Also required for the establishment and maintenance of immunological memory for both T- and B-cells. Suppresses macrophage proliferation through competition with STAT5 for STAT-binding motifs binding on certain target genes, such as CCL2 and CCND2. In response to genotoxic stress, controls cell cycle arrest in GC B-cells in both p53/TP53-dependedent and -independent manners. Besides, also controls neurogenesis through the alteration of the composition of NOTCH-dependent transcriptional complexes at selective NOTCH targets, such as HES5, including the recruitment of the deacetylase SIRT1 and resulting in an epigenetic silencing leading to neuronal differentiation.

Answer 319

Chromosome alignment-maintaining phosphoprotein 1 (Zinc finger protein 828) Q96JM3 FUNCTION: Required for proper alignment of chromosomes at metaphase and their accurate segregation during mitosis. Involved in the maintenance of spindle microtubules attachment to the kinetochore during sister chromatid biorientation. May recruit CENPE and CENPF to the kinetochore.

Answer 320

C-type lectin-like domain family 1 (Dendritic cell-associated lectin 1) (DC-associated lectin-1) (DCAL-1) Q8IZS7 FUNCTION: May function in mediating immune cell-cell interactions. May act as a T-cell costimulatory molecule, enhancing anti-CD3-induced proliferation. May play a role in the interaction of dendritic cells with T-cells and the cells of the adaptive immune response.

Answer 321

H(+)/Cl(-) exchange transporter 7 (Chloride channel 7 alpha subunit) (Chloride channel protein 7) (ClC-7) P51798 FUNCTION: Slowly voltage-gated channel mediating the exchange of chloride ions against protons. Functions as antiporter and contributes to the acidification of the lysosome lumen.

Answer 322

Chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein 4 (CHD-4) (EC 3.4.12) (ATP-dependent helicase CHD4) (Mi-2 autoantigen 218 kDa protein) (Mi2-beta) Q14839 FUNCTION: Component of the histone deacetylase NuRD complex which participates in the remodeling of chromatin by deacetylating histones.

Answer 323

Angiomotin Q4VCS5 FUNCTION: Plays a central role in tight junction maintenance via the complex formed with ARHGAP17, which acts by regulating the uptake of polarity proteins at tight junctions. Appears to regulate endothelial cell migration and tube formation. May also play a role in the assembly of endothelial cell-cell junctions. Note=Localized on the cell surface. May act as a transmembrane protein.

Answer 324

Copper transport protein ATOX1 (Metal transport protein ATX1) O00244 FUNCTION: Binds and deliver cytosolic copper to the copper ATPase proteins. May be important in cellular antioxidant defense.

Answer 325

Neuronal acetylcholine receptor subunit alpha-4 P43681 FUNCTION: After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane permeable to sodium ions.

Answer 326

Cysteine-rich hydrophobic domain-containing protein 1 (Brain X-linked protein) Q5VXU3 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 327

Neuronal acetylcholine receptor subunit beta-2 P17787 FUNCTION: After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane permeable to sodiun ions. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell junction, synapse, postsynaptic cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 328

Neuronal acetylcholine receptor subunit alpha-6 Q15825 FUNCTION: After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell junction, synapse, postsynaptic cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 329

Neuronal acetylcholine receptor subunit beta-3 Q05901 FUNCTION: After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell junction, synapse, postsynaptic cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 330

Acetyl-coenzyme A synthetase 2-like, mitochondrial (EC 6.1.1) (Acetate--CoA ligase 2) (Acetyl-CoA synthetase 2) (AceCS2) (Acyl-CoA synthetase short-chain family member 1) (Propionate--CoA ligase) (EC 6.1.17) Q9NUB1 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from short-chain fatty acids . Acetate is the preferred substrate . Can also utilize propionate with a much lower affinity (By similarity). Provides acetyl-CoA that is utilized mainly for oxidation under ketogenic conditions (By similarity). Involved in thermogenesis under ketogenic conditions, using acetate as a vital fuel when carbohydrate availability is insufficient (By similarity).

Answer 331

14-3-3 protein gamma (Protein kinase C inhibitor protein 1) (KCIP-1) [Cleaved into: 14-3-3 protein gamma, N-terminally processed] P61981 FUNCTION: Adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Binds to a large number of partners, usually by recognition of a phosphoserine or phosphothreonine motif. Binding generally results in the modulation of the activity of the binding partner.

Answer 332

Calcium release-activated calcium channel protein 1 (Protein orai-1) (Transmembrane protein 142A) Q96D31 FUNCTION: Ca(2+) release-activated Ca(2+) (CRAC) channel subunit which mediates Ca(2+) influx following depletion of intracellular Ca(2+) stores and channel activation by the Ca(2+) sensor, STIM1 (, , , , , , , , , ). CRAC channels are the main pathway for Ca(2+) influx in T-cells and promote the immune response to pathogens by activating the transcription factor NFAT .

Answer 333

Probable inactive 1-aminocyclopropane-1-carboxylate synthase-like protein 2 (ACC synthase-like protein 2) Q4AC99

Answer 334

Gamma-crystallin A (Gamma-A-crystallin) (Gamma-crystallin 5) P11844 FUNCTION: Crystallins are the dominant structural components of the vertebrate eye lens.

Answer 335

Kynurenine/alpha-aminoadipate aminotransferase, mitochondrial (KAT/AadAT) (2-aminoadipate aminotransferase) (2-aminoadipate transaminase) (EC 2.1.39) (Alpha-aminoadipate aminotransferase) (AadAT) (Kynurenine aminotransferase II) (Kynurenine--oxoglutarate aminotransferase II) (Kynurenine--oxoglutarate transaminase 2) (EC 2.1.7) (Kynurenine--oxoglutarate transaminase II) Q8N5Z0 FUNCTION: Transaminase with broad substrate specificity. Has transaminase activity towards aminoadipate, kynurenine, methionine and glutamate. Shows activity also towards tryptophan, aspartate and hydroxykynurenine. Accepts a variety of oxo-acids as amino-group acceptors, with a preference for 2-oxoglutarate, 2-oxocaproic acid, phenylpyruvate and alpha-oxo-gamma-methiol butyric acid. Can also use glyoxylate as amino-group acceptor (in vitro).

Answer 336

Cysteine-rich PDZ-binding protein (Cysteine-rich interactor of PDZ three) (Cysteine-rich interactor of PDZ3) Q9P021 FUNCTION: Involved in the cytoskeletal anchoring of DLG4 in excitatory synapses.

Answer 337

Actin-like protein 6B (53 kDa BRG1-associated factor B) (Actin-related protein Baf53b) (ArpNalpha) (BRG1-associated factor 53B) (BAF53B) O94805 FUNCTION: Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Belongs to the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex), as such plays a role in remodeling mononucleosomes in an ATP-dependent fashion, and is required for postmitotic neural development and dendritic outgrowth. During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth. ACTL6B/BAF53B is not essential for assembly of the nBAF complex but is required for targeting the complex and CREST to the promoter of genes essential for dendritic growth (By similarity). Essential for neuronal maturation and dendrite development .

Answer 338

Archaemetzincin-2 (EC 3.-.-) (Archeobacterial metalloproteinase-like protein 2) Q86W34 FUNCTION: Zinc metalloprotease. Exhibits activity against angiotensin-3 in vitro. Does not hydrolyze either neurogranin or angiotensin-2.

Answer 339

Cysteine-rich secretory protein 2 (CRISP-2) (Cancer/testis antigen 36) (CT36) (Testis-specific protein TPX-1) P16562 FUNCTION: May regulate some ion channels' activity and therebye regulate calcium fluxes during sperm capacitation.

Answer 340

Acidic leucine-rich nuclear phosphoprotein 32 family member A (Acidic nuclear phosphoprotein pp32) (pp32) (Leucine-rich acidic nuclear protein) (LANP) (Mapmodulin) (Potent heat-stable protein phosphatase 2A inhibitor I1PP2A) (Putative HLA-DR-associated protein I) (PHAPI) P39687 FUNCTION: Implicated in a number of cellular processes, including proliferation, differentiation, caspase-dependent and caspase-independent apoptosis, suppression of transformation (tumor suppressor), inhibition of protein phosphatase 2A, regulation of mRNA trafficking and stability in association with ELAVL1, and inhibition of acetyltransferases as part of the INHAT (inhibitor of histone acetyltransferases) complex. Plays a role in E4F1-mediated transcriptional repression.

Answer 341

SH3 domain-binding protein 2 (3BP-2) P78314 FUNCTION: Binds differentially to the SH3 domains of certain proteins of signal transduction pathways. Binds to phosphatidylinositols; linking the hemopoietic tyrosine kinase fes to the cytoplasmic membrane in a phosphorylation dependent mechanism.

Answer 342

3 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase/Delta 5-->4-isomerase type 2 (3 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase/Delta 5-->4-isomerase type II) (3-beta-HSD II) (3-beta-HSD adrenal and gonadal type) [Includes: 3-beta-hydroxy-Delta(5)-steroid dehydrogenase (EC 1.1.145) (3-beta-hydroxy-5-ene steroid dehydrogenase) (Progesterone reductase); Steroid Delta-isomerase (EC 5.3.1) (Delta-5-3-ketosteroid isomerase)] P26439 FUNCTION: 3-beta-HSD is a bifunctional enzyme, that catalyzes the oxidative conversion of Delta(5)-ene-3-beta-hydroxy steroid, and the oxidative conversion of ketosteroids. The 3-beta-HSD enzymatic system plays a crucial role in the biosynthesis of all classes of hormonal steroids. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Single-pass membrane protein. Mitochondrion membrane; Single-pass membrane protein.

Answer 343

Adrenocorticotropic hormone receptor (ACTH receptor) (ACTH-R) (Adrenocorticotropin receptor) (Melanocortin receptor 2) (MC2-R) Q01718 FUNCTION: Receptor for corticotropin (ACTH). This receptor is mediated by G proteins (G(s)) which activate adenylate cyclase (cAMP). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 344

Beta-actin-like protein 2 (Kappa-actin) Q562R1 FUNCTION: Actins are highly conserved proteins that are involved in various types of cell motility and are ubiquitously expressed in all eukaryotic cells.

Answer 345

Natriuretic peptides A (CDD-ANF) (Cardiodilatin) (CDD) (Cardiodilatin-related peptide) (CDP) (Prepronatriodilatin) [Cleaved into: Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) (Atrial natriuretic peptide) (ANP)] P01160 FUNCTION: Hormone playing a key role in cardiovascular homeostasis through regulation of natriuresis, diuresis, and vasodilation. Also plays a role in female pregnancy by promoting trophoblast invasion and spiral artery remodeling in uterus. Specifically binds and stimulates the cGMP production of the NPR1 receptor. Binds the clearance receptor NPR3. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 346

Acyl-coenzyme A thioesterase 8 (Acyl-CoA thioesterase 8) (EC 3.2.1) (EC 3.2.11) (EC 3.2.2) (EC 3.2.3) (EC 3.2.5) (Choloyl-coenzyme A thioesterase) (EC 3.2.27) (HIV-Nef-associated acyl-CoA thioesterase) (Peroxisomal acyl-CoA thioesterase 2) (PTE-2) (Peroxisomal acyl-coenzyme A thioester hydrolase 1) (PTE-1) (Peroxisomal long-chain acyl-CoA thioesterase 1) (Thioesterase II) (hACTE-III) (hACTEIII) (hTE) O14734 FUNCTION: Acyl-coenzyme A (acyl-CoA) thioesterases are a group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs to the free fatty acid and coenzyme A (CoASH), providing the potential to regulate intracellular levels of acyl-CoAs, free fatty acids and CoASH (, , ). Acyl-coenzyme A thioesterase 8/ACOT8 display no strong substrate specificity with respect to the carboxylic acid moiety of Acyl-CoAs (By similarity). Hydrolyzes medium length (C2 to C20) straight-chain, saturated and unsaturated acyl-CoAS but is inactive towards substrates with longer aliphatic chains (, ). Moreover, it catalyzes the hydrolysis of CoA esters of bile acids, such as choloyl-CoA and chenodeoxycholoyl-CoA and competes with bile acid CoA:amino acid N-acyltransferase (BAAT) (By similarity). ACOT8 is also able to hydrolyze CoA esters of dicarboxylic acids (By similarity). It is involved in the metabolic regulation of peroxisome proliferation .

Answer 347

Rabankyrin-5 (Rank-5) (Ankyrin repeat and FYVE domain-containing protein 1) (Ankyrin repeats hooked to a zinc finger motif) Q9P2R3 FUNCTION: Proposed effector of Rab5. Binds to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PI(3)P). Involved in homotypic early endosome fusion and to a lesser extent in heterotypic fusion of chlathrin-coated vesicles with early endosomes. Involved in macropinocytosis; the function is dependent on Rab5-GTP. Required for correct endosomal localization. Involved in the internalization and trafficking of activated tyrosine kinase receptors such as PDGFRB. Regulates the subcellular localization of the retromer complex in a EHD1-dependent manner. Involved in endosome-to-Golgi transport and biosynthetic transport to late endosomes and lysosomes indicative for a regulation of retromer complex-mediated retrograde transport.

Answer 348

Angiopoietin-4 (ANG-4) (Angiopoietin-3) (ANG-3) Q9Y264 FUNCTION: Binds to TEK/TIE2, modulating ANGPT1 signaling. Can induce tyrosine phosphorylation of TEK/TIE2. Promotes endothelial cell survival, migration and angiogenesis.

Answer 349

Progressive ankylosis protein homolog (ANK) Q9HCJ1 FUNCTION: Regulates intra- and extracellular levels of inorganic pyrophosphate (PPi), probably functioning as PPi transporter. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 350

Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 1 (Cardiac ankyrin repeat protein) (Cytokine-inducible gene C-193 protein) (Cytokine-inducible nuclear protein) Q15327 FUNCTION: May play an important role in endothelial cell activation. May act as a nuclear transcription factor that negatively regulates the expression of cardiac genes. Induction seems to be correlated with apoptotic cell death in hepatoma cells.

Answer 351

ATP-binding cassette sub-family G member 1 (EC 7.2.-) (ATP-binding cassette transporter 8) (White protein homolog) P45844 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the efflux of phospholipids such as sphingomyelin, cholesterol and its oxygenated derivatives like 7beta-hydroxycholesterol and this transport is coupled to hydrlysis of ATP (, ). The lipid efflux is ALB-dependent . Is an active component of the macrophage lipid export complex. Could also be involved in intracellular lipid transport processes. The role in cellular lipid homeostasis may not be limited to macrophages. Prevents cell death by transporting cytotoxic 7beta-hydroxycholesterol . Note=Predominantly localized in the intracellular compartments mainly associated with the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and Golgi membranes.

Answer 352

5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 2A (5-HT-2) (5-HT-2A) (Serotonin receptor 2A) P28223 FUNCTION: G-protein coupled receptor for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin) (, , ). Also functions as a receptor for various drugs and psychoactive substances, including mescaline, psilocybin, 1-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-iodophenyl)-2-aminopropane (DOI) and lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) . Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors . Beta-arrestin family members inhibit signaling via G proteins and mediate activation of alternative signaling pathways . Signaling activates phospholipase C and a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system that modulates the activity of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase and promotes the release of Ca(2+) ions from intracellular stores (, ). Affects neural activity, perception, cognition and mood . Plays a role in the regulation of behavior, including responses to anxiogenic situations and psychoactive substances. Plays a role in intestinal smooth muscle contraction, and may play a role in arterial vasoconstriction.

Answer 353

5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 1D (5-HT-1D) (5-HT1D) (Serotonin 1D alpha receptor) (5-HT-1D-alpha) (Serotonin receptor 1D) P28221 FUNCTION: G-protein coupled receptor for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin). Also functions as a receptor for ergot alkaloid derivatives, various anxiolytic and antidepressant drugs and other psychoactive substances. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase activity. Regulates the release of 5-hydroxytryptamine in the brain, and thereby affects neural activity. May also play a role in regulating the release of other neurotransmitters. May play a role in vasoconstriction.

Answer 354

Uncharacterized aarF domain-containing protein kinase 5 (EC 2.11.-) Q3MIX3 FUNCTION: The function of this protein is not yet clear. It is not known if it has protein kinase activity and what type of substrate it would phosphorylate (Ser, Thr or Tyr). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 355

Adenylate cyclase type 2 (EC 4.1.1) (ATP pyrophosphate-lyase 2) (Adenylate cyclase type II) (Adenylyl cyclase 2) Q08462 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP in response to G-protein signaling . Down-stream signaling cascades mediate changes in gene expression patterns and lead to increased IL6 production. Functions in signaling cascades downstream of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors (By similarity).

Answer 356

Glycerophosphodiester phosphodiesterase domain-containing protein 5 (EC 3.4.11) (Glycerophosphodiester phosphodiesterase 2) Q8WTR4 FUNCTION: Glycerophosphodiester phosphodiesterase that promotes neurite formation and drives spinal motor neuron differentiation (By similarity). Mediates the cleavage of glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchor of target proteins: removes the GPI-anchor of RECK, leading to release RECK from the plasma membrane (By similarity). May contribute to the osmotic regulation of cellular glycerophosphocholine (By similarity).

Answer 357

Developmentally-regulated GTP-binding protein 1 (DRG-1) (Neural precursor cell expressed developmentally down-regulated protein 3) (NEDD-3) (Translation factor GTPase DRG1) (TRAFAC GTPase DRG1) (EC 3.5.-) Q9Y295 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the conversion of GTP to GDP through hydrolysis of the gamma-phosphate bond in GTP (, ). Appears to have an intrinsic GTPase activity that is stimulated by ZC3H15/DFRP1 binding likely by increasing the affinity for the potassium ions . When hydroxylated at C-3 of 'Lys-22' by JMJD7, may bind to RNA and play a role in translation (, ). Binds to microtubules and promotes microtubule polymerization and stability that are required for mitotic spindle assembly during prophase to anaphase transition. GTPase activity is not necessary for these microtubule-related functions . Note=The DRG1-ZC3H15/DFRP1 complex associates with polysomes.

Answer 358

Histone-lysine N-methyltransferase EZH2 (EC 2.1.-) (ENX-1) (Enhancer of zeste homolog 2) (Lysine N-methyltransferase 6) Q15910 FUNCTION: Polycomb group (PcG) protein. Catalytic subunit of the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex, which methylates 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) and 'Lys-27' (H3K27me) of histone H3, leading to transcriptional repression of the affected target gene. Able to mono-, di- and trimethylate 'Lys-27' of histone H3 to form H3K27me1, H3K27me2 and H3K27me3, respectively. Displays a preference for substrates with less methylation, loses activity when progressively more methyl groups are incorporated into H3K27, H3K27me0 > H3K27me1 > H3K27me2 (, ). Compared to EZH1-containing complexes, it is more abundant in embryonic stem cells and plays a major role in forming H3K27me3, which is required for embryonic stem cell identity and proper differentiation. The PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex may also serve as a recruiting platform for DNA methyltransferases, thereby linking two epigenetic repression systems. Genes repressed by the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex include HOXC8, HOXA9, MYT1, CDKN2A and retinoic acid target genes. EZH2 can also methylate non-histone proteins such as the transcription factor GATA4 and the nuclear receptor RORA. Regulates the circadian clock via histone methylation at the promoter of the circadian genes. Essential for the CRY1/2-mediated repression of the transcriptional activation of PER1/2 by the CLOCK-ARNTL/BMAL1 heterodimer; involved in the di and trimethylation of 'Lys-27' of histone H3 on PER1/2 promoters which is necessary for the CRY1/2 proteins to inhibit transcription.

Answer 359

Exostosin-like 3 (EC 2.1.223) (EXT-related protein 1) (Glucuronyl-galactosyl-proteoglycan 4-alpha-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase) (Hereditary multiple exostoses gene isolog) (Multiple exostosis-like protein 3) (Putative tumor suppressor protein EXTL3) O43909 FUNCTION: Glycosyltransferase which regulates the biosynthesis of heparan sulfate (HS). Important for both skeletal development and hematopoiesis, through the formation of HS proteoglycans (HSPGs) (, ). Required for the function of REG3A in regulating keratinocyte proliferation and differentiation .

Answer 360

Ferritin heavy polypeptide-like 17 (Cancer/testis antigen 38) (CT38) Q9BXU8

Answer 361

Glutaredoxin-2, mitochondrial Q9NS18 FUNCTION: Glutathione-dependent oxidoreductase that facilitates the maintenance of mitochondrial redox homeostasis upon induction of apoptosis by oxidative stress. Involved in response to hydrogen peroxide and regulation of apoptosis caused by oxidative stress. Acts as a very efficient catalyst of monothiol reactions because of its high affinity for protein glutathione-mixed disulfides. Can receive electrons not only from glutathione (GSH), but also from thioredoxin reductase supporting both monothiol and dithiol reactions. Efficiently catalyzes both glutathionylation and deglutathionylation of mitochondrial complex I, which in turn regulates the superoxide production by the complex. Overexpression decreases the susceptibility to apoptosis and prevents loss of cardiolipin and cytochrome c release. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Mitochondrion.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 2]: Nucleus.

Answer 362

Protein FAM131A Q6UXB0

Answer 363

DDRGK domain-containing protein 1 (Dashurin) (UFM1-binding and PCI domain-containing protein 1) Q96HY6 FUNCTION: Protein which interacts with the E3 UFM1-protein ligase UFL1 and one of its substrates TRIP4 and is required for TRIP4 ufmylation. Through TRIP4 ufmylation may regulate nuclear receptors-mediated transcription . May play a role in NF-kappa-B-mediated transcription through regulation of the phosphorylation and the degradation of NFKBIA, the inhibitor of NF-kappa-B . May also play a role in the cellular response to endoplasmic reticulum stress (By similarity). Plays a role in cartilage development through SOX9, inhibiting the ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of this transcriptional regulator .

Answer 364

ATP-dependent DNA helicase DDX11 (EC 3.4.12) (CHL1-related protein 1) (hCHLR1) (DEAD/H-box protein 11) (Keratinocyte growth factor-regulated gene 2 protein) (KRG-2) Q96FC9 FUNCTION: DNA-dependent ATPase and ATP-dependent DNA helicase that participates in various functions in genomic stability, including DNA replication, DNA repair and heterochromatin organization as well as in ribosomal RNA synthesis (, , , , ). Its double-stranded DNA helicase activity requires either a minimal 5'-single-stranded tail length of approximately 15 nt (flap substrates) or 10 nt length single-stranded gapped DNA substrates of a partial duplex DNA structure for helicase loading and translocation along DNA in a 5' to 3' direction (, ). The helicase activity is capable of displacing duplex regions up to 100 bp, which can be extended up to 500 bp by the replication protein A (RPA) or the cohesion CTF18-replication factor C (Ctf18-RFC) complex activities . Shows also ATPase- and helicase activities on substrates that mimic key DNA intermediates of replication, repair and homologous recombination reactions, including forked duplex, anti-parallel G-quadruplex and three-stranded D-loop DNA molecules (, ). Plays a role in DNA double-strand break (DSB) repair at the DNA replication fork during DNA replication recovery from DNA damage . Recruited with TIMELESS factor upon DNA-replication stress response at DNA replication fork to preserve replication fork progression, and hence ensure DNA replication fidelity . Cooperates also with TIMELESS factor during DNA replication to regulate proper sister chromatid cohesion and mitotic chromosome segregation (, , , , ). Stimulates 5'-single-stranded DNA flap endonuclease activity of FEN1 in an ATP- and helicase-independent manner; and hence it may contribute in Okazaki fragment processing at DNA replication fork during lagging strand DNA synthesis . Its ability to function at DNA replication fork is modulated by its binding to long non-coding RNA (lncRNA) cohesion regulator non-coding RNA DDX11-AS1/CONCR, which is able to increase both DDX11 ATPase activity and binding to DNA replicating regions . Plays also a role in heterochromatin organization . Involved in rRNA transcription activation through binding to active hypomethylated rDNA gene loci by recruiting UBTF and the RNA polymerase Pol I transcriptional machinery . Plays a role in embryonic development and prevention of aneuploidy (By similarity). Involved in melanoma cell proliferation and survival . Associates with chromatin at DNA replication fork regions . Binds to single- and double-stranded DNAs (, , ).

Answer 365

ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX42 (EC 3.4.13) (DEAD box protein 42) (RNA helicase-like protein) (RHELP) (RNA helicase-related protein) (RNAHP) (SF3b DEAD box protein) (Splicing factor 3B-associated 125 kDa protein) (SF3b125) Q86XP3 FUNCTION: ATP-dependent RNA helicase. Binds to partially double-stranded RNAs (dsRNAs) in order to unwind RNA secondary structures. Unwinding is promoted in the presence of single-strand binding proteins. Mediates also RNA duplex formation thereby displacing the single-strand RNA binding protein. ATP and ADP modulate its activity: ATP binding and hydrolysis by DDX42 triggers RNA strand separation, whereas the ADP-bound form of the protein triggers annealing of complementary RNA strands. Involved in the survival of cells by interacting with TP53BP2 and thereby counteracting the apoptosis-stimulating activity of TP53BP2. Relocalizes TP53BP2 to the cytoplasm. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus speckle. Nucleus, Cajal body. Note=Isoform 2 is present in Cajal bodies (CBs) and nuclear speckles.

Answer 366

Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX4 (EC 3.4.13) (DEAD box protein 4) (Vasa homolog) Q9NQI0 FUNCTION: ATP-dependent RNA helicase required during spermatogenesis (, ). Required to repress transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity (By similarity). Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons (By similarity). Involved in the secondary piRNAs metabolic process, the production of piRNAs in fetal male germ cells through a ping-pong amplification cycle (By similarity). Required for PIWIL2 slicing-triggered piRNA biogenesis: helicase activity enables utilization of one of the slice cleavage fragments generated by PIWIL2 and processing these pre-piRNAs into piRNAs (By similarity).

Answer 367

Cyclin-dependent kinase 4 inhibitor C (Cyclin-dependent kinase 6 inhibitor) (p18-INK4c) (p18-INK6) P42773 FUNCTION: Interacts strongly with CDK6, weakly with CDK4. Inhibits cell growth and proliferation with a correlated dependence on endogenous retinoblastoma protein RB.

Answer 368

Aryl-hydrocarbon-interacting protein-like 1 Q9NZN9 FUNCTION: May be important in protein trafficking and/or protein folding and stabilization. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 369

Uncharacterized protein C2orf48 Q96LS8

Answer 370

CMT1A duplicated region transcript 4 protein Q8N9R6

Answer 371

Testis-specific chromodomain protein Y 2 (EC 2.1.48) Q9Y6F7 FUNCTION: May have histone acetyltransferase activity.

Answer 372

Chromodomain Y-like protein 2 (CDY-like 2) Q8N8U2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 373

A-kinase anchor protein 7 isoforms alpha and beta (AKAP-7 isoforms alpha and beta) (A-kinase anchor protein 18 kDa) (AKAP 18) (Protein kinase A-anchoring protein 7 isoforms alpha/beta) (PRKA7 isoforms alpha/beta) O43687 FUNCTION: Targets the cAMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA) to the plasma membrane, and permits functional coupling to the L-type calcium channel. The membrane-associated form reduces epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) activity, whereas the free cytoplasmic form may negatively regulate ENaC channel feedback inhibition by intracellular sodium. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform Alpha]: Lateral cell membrane; Lipid-anchor. Note=Targeted predominantly to the lateral membrane.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform Beta]: Apical cell membrane; Lipid-anchor. Note=Targeted predominantly to the apical membrane.

Answer 374

Bcl-2-related ovarian killer protein (hBOK) (Bcl-2-like protein 9) (Bcl2-L-9) Q9UMX3 FUNCTION: [Isoform 1]: Apoptosis regulator that functions through different apoptotic signaling pathways (, , ). Plays a roles as pro-apoptotic protein that positively regulates intrinsic apoptotic process in a BAX- and BAK1-dependent manner or in a BAX- and BAK1-independent manner (, ). In response to endoplasmic reticulum stress promotes mitochondrial apoptosis through downstream BAX/BAK1 activation and positive regulation of PERK-mediated unfolded protein response (By similarity). Activates apoptosis independently of heterodimerization with survival-promoting BCL2 and BCL2L1 through induction of mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization, in a BAX- and BAK1-independent manner, in response to inhibition of ERAD-proteasome degradation system, resulting in cytochrome c release . In response to DNA damage, mediates intrinsic apoptotic process in a TP53-dependent manner . Plays a role in granulosa cell apoptosis by CASP3 activation . Plays a roles as anti-apoptotic protein during neuronal apoptotic process, by negatively regulating poly ADP-ribose polymerase-dependent cell death through regulation of neuronal calcium homeostasis and mitochondrial bioenergetics in response to NMDA excitation (By similarity). In addition to its role in apoptosis, may regulate trophoblast cell proliferation during the early stages of placental development, by acting on G1/S transition through regulation of CCNE1 expression . May also play a role as an inducer of autophagy by disrupting interaction between MCL1 and BECN1 .

Answer 375

Cyclin-dependent kinase 4 inhibitor D (p19-INK4d) P55273 FUNCTION: Interacts strongly with CDK4 and CDK6 and inhibits them.

Answer 376

Calpain-5 (EC 3.22.-) (Calpain htra-3) (New calpain 3) (nCL-3) O15484 FUNCTION: Calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease.

Answer 377

Ubiquinone biosynthesis monooxygenase COQ6, mitochondrial (EC 1.14.13.-) (Coenzyme Q10 monooxygenase 6) Q9Y2Z9 FUNCTION: FAD-dependent monooxygenase required for the C5-ring hydroxylation during ubiquinone biosynthesis. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of 3-hexaprenyl-4-hydroxybenzoic acid (HHB) to 3-hexaprenyl-4,5-dihydroxybenzoic acid (DHHB). The electrons required for the hydroxylation reaction may be funneled indirectly from NADPH via a ferredoxin/ferredoxin reductase system to COQ6 (By similarity). Is able to perform the deamination reaction at C4 of 3-hexaprenyl-4-amino-5-hydroxybenzoic acid (HHAB) to produce DHHB when expressed in yeast cells lacking COQ9, even if utilization of para-aminobenzoic acid (pABA) involving C4-deamination seems not to occur in bacteria, plants and mammals, where only C5 hydroxylation of HHB has been shown .

Answer 378

Protein Bop (BH3-only protein) (Retrotransposon Gag-like protein 10) Q7L3V2 FUNCTION: Could induce apoptosis in a BH3 domain-dependent manner. The direct interaction network of Bcl-2 family members may play a key role in modulation RTL10/BOP intrinsic apoptotic signaling activity.

Answer 379

Akirin-2 Q53H80 FUNCTION: Required for the innate immune response. Downstream effector of the Toll-like receptor (TLR), TNF and IL-1 beta signaling pathways leading to the production of IL-6. Forms a complex with YWHAB that acts to repress transcription of DUSP1 (By similarity).

Answer 380

Carboxypeptidase A1 (EC 3.17.1) P15085 FUNCTION: Carboxypeptidase that catalyzes the release of a C-terminal amino acid, but has little or no action with -Asp, -Glu, -Arg, -Lys or -Pro. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 381

Putative transcriptional regulator encoded by LINC00473 A8K010 FUNCTION: May play a role in cAMP-mediated gene transcription.

Answer 382

Bromodomain and WD repeat-containing protein 1 (WD repeat-containing protein 9) Q9NSI6 FUNCTION: May be a transcriptional activator. May be involved in chromatin remodeling (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape.

Answer 383

Uncharacterized protein C6orf141 Q5SZD1

Answer 384

Ceramide synthase 4 (CerS4) (EC 2.1.-) (LAG1 longevity assurance homolog 4) (Sphingosine N-acyltransferase CERS4) (EC 2.1.24) Q9HA82 FUNCTION: Ceramide synthase that catalyzes formation of ceramide from sphinganine and acyl-CoA substrates, with high selectivity toward long and very-long chains (C18:0-C22:0) as acyl donor.

Answer 385

COX assembly mitochondrial protein homolog (Cmc1p) Q7Z7K0 FUNCTION: Component of the MITRAC (mitochondrial translation regulation assembly intermediate of cytochrome c oxidase complex) complex, that regulates cytochrome c oxidase assembly. Note=Colocalizes with MT-CO1.

Answer 386

Cilia- and flagella-associated protein 58 (Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 147) Q5T655 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell projection, cilium .

Answer 387

Alpha-protein kinase 1 (EC 2.11.1) (Chromosome 4 kinase) (Lymphocyte alpha-protein kinase) Q96QP1 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine-protein kinase that detects bacterial pathogen-associated molecular pattern metabolites (PAMPs) and initiates an innate immune response, a critical step for pathogen elimination and engagement of adaptive immunity (, , ). Specifically recognizes and binds ADP-D-glycero-beta-D-manno-heptose (ADP-Heptose), a potent PAMP present in all Gram-negative and some Gram-positive bacteria . ADP-Heptose-binding stimulates its kinase activity to phosphorylate and activate TIFA, triggering proinflammatory NF-kappa-B signaling . May be involved in monosodium urate monohydrate (MSU)-induced inflammation by mediating phosphorylation of unconventional myosin MYO9A . May also play a role in apical protein transport by mediating phosphorylation of unconventional myosin MYO1A .

Answer 388

Uncharacterized protein C7orf33 Q8WU49