Human Genes Group 6 Flashcards

Question

ARL6IP1

Answer 1

ADP-ribosylation factor-like protein 6-interacting protein 1 (ARL-6-interacting protein 1) (Aip-1) (Apoptotic regulator in the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum) Q15041 FUNCTION: Positively regulates SLC1A1/EAAC1-mediated glutamate transport by increasing its affinity for glutamate in a PKC activity-dependent manner. Promotes the catalytic efficiency of SLC1A1/EAAC1 probably by reducing its interaction with ARL6IP5, a negative regulator of SLC1A1/EAAC1-mediated glutamate transport (By similarity). Plays a role in the formation and stabilization of endoplasmic reticulum tubules . Negatively regulates apoptosis, possibly by modulating the activity of caspase-9 (CASP9). Inhibits cleavage of CASP9-dependent substrates and downstream markers of apoptosis but not CASP9 itself . May be involved in protein transport, membrane trafficking, or cell signaling during hematopoietic maturation .

Answer 2

Chondroadherin (Cartilage leucine-rich protein) O15335 FUNCTION: Promotes attachment of chondrocytes, fibroblasts, and osteoblasts. This binding is mediated (at least for chondrocytes and fibroblasts) by the integrin alpha(2)beta(1). May play an important role in the regulation of chondrocyte growth and proliferation (By similarity).

Answer 3

Cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor subunit 1 (Cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor 160 kDa subunit) (CPSF 160 kDa subunit) Q10570 FUNCTION: Component of the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF) complex that plays a key role in pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, recognizing the AAUAAA signal sequence and interacting with poly(A) polymerase and other factors to bring about cleavage and poly(A) addition. This subunit is involved in the RNA recognition step of the polyadenylation reaction. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus, nucleoplasm.

Answer 4

Cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor subunit 7 (Cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor 59 kDa subunit) (CPSF 59 kDa subunit) (Cleavage factor Im complex 59 kDa subunit) (CFIm59) (Pre-mRNA cleavage factor Im 59 kDa subunit) Q8N684 FUNCTION: Component of the cleavage factor Im (CFIm) complex that functions as an activator of the pre-mRNA 3'-end cleavage and polyadenylation processing required for the maturation of pre-mRNA into functional mRNAs (, , ). CFIm contributes to the recruitment of multiprotein complexes on specific sequences on the pre-mRNA 3'-end, so called cleavage and polyadenylation signals (pA signals) (, ). Most pre-mRNAs contain multiple pA signals, resulting in alternative cleavage and polyadenylation (APA) producing mRNAs with variable 3'-end formation (, ). The CFIm complex acts as a key regulator of cleavage and polyadenylation site choice during APA through its binding to 5'-UGUA-3' elements localized in the 3'-untranslated region (UTR) for a huge number of pre-mRNAs (, ). CPSF7 activates directly the mRNA 3'-processing machinery . Binds to pA signals in RNA substrates (, ).

Answer 5

Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase FKBP4 (PPIase FKBP4) (EC 5.1.8) (51 kDa FK506-binding protein) (FKBP51) (52 kDa FK506-binding protein) (52 kDa FKBP) (FKBP-52) (59 kDa immunophilin) (p59) (FK506-binding protein 4) (FKBP-4) (FKBP59) (HSP-binding immunophilin) (HBI) (Immunophilin FKBP52) (Rotamase) [Cleaved into: Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase FKBP4, N-terminally processed] Q02790 FUNCTION: Immunophilin protein with PPIase and co-chaperone activities. Component of steroid receptors heterocomplexes through interaction with heat-shock protein 90 (HSP90). May play a role in the intracellular trafficking of heterooligomeric forms of steroid hormone receptors between cytoplasm and nuclear compartments. The isomerase activity controls neuronal growth cones via regulation of TRPC1 channel opening. Acts also as a regulator of microtubule dynamics by inhibiting MAPT/TAU ability to promote microtubule assembly. May have a protective role against oxidative stress in mitochondria.

Answer 6

Carnitine O-palmitoyltransferase 1, muscle isoform (CPT1-M) (EC 2.1.21) (Carnitine O-palmitoyltransferase I, muscle isoform) (CPT I) (CPTI-M) (Carnitine palmitoyltransferase 1B) (Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I-like protein) Q92523 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion outer membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 7

Chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein 2 (CHD-2) (EC 3.4.12) (ATP-dependent helicase CHD2) O14647 FUNCTION: DNA-binding helicase that specifically binds to the promoter of target genes, leading to chromatin remodeling, possibly by promoting deposition of histone H3. Involved in myogenesis via interaction with MYOD1: binds to myogenic gene regulatory sequences and mediates incorporation of histone H3.3 prior to the onset of myogenic gene expression, promoting their expression (By similarity).

Answer 8

H(+)/Cl(-) exchange transporter 5 (Chloride channel protein 5) (ClC-5) (Chloride transporter ClC-5) P51795 FUNCTION: Proton-coupled chloride transporter. Functions as antiport system and exchanges chloride ions against protons. Important for normal acidification of the endosome lumen. May play an important role in renal tubular function. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus membrane .

Answer 9

Aldehyde dehydrogenase family 16 member A1 Q8IZ83

Answer 10

Chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein 5 (CHD-5) (EC 3.4.12) (ATP-dependent helicase CHD5) Q8TDI0 FUNCTION: Chromatin-remodeling protein that binds DNA through histones and regulates gene transcription. May specifically recognize and bind trimethylated 'Lys-27' (H3K27me3) and non-methylated 'Lys-4' of histone H3. Plays a role in the development of the nervous system by activating the expression of genes promoting neuron terminal differentiation. In parallel, it may also positively regulate the trimethylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-27' thereby specifically repressing genes that promote the differentiation into non-neuronal cell lineages. Tumor suppressor, it regulates the expression of genes involved in cell proliferation and differentiation. Downstream activated genes may include CDKN2A that positively regulates the p53/TP53 pathway, which in turn, prevents cell proliferation. In spermatogenesis, it probably regulates histone hyperacetylation and the replacement of histones by transition proteins in chromatin, a crucial step in the condensation of spermatid chromatin and the production of functional spermatozoa.

Answer 11

Alpha-1-antitrypsin (Alpha-1 protease inhibitor) (Alpha-1-antiproteinase) (Serpin A1) [Cleaved into: Short peptide from AAT (SPAAT)] P01009 FUNCTION: Inhibitor of serine proteases. Its primary target is elastase, but it also has a moderate affinity for plasmin and thrombin. Irreversibly inhibits trypsin, chymotrypsin and plasminogen activator. The aberrant form inhibits insulin-induced NO synthesis in platelets, decreases coagulation time and has proteolytic activity against insulin and plasmin.; FUNCTION: [Short peptide from AAT]: reversible chymotrypsin inhibitor. It also inhibits elastase, but not trypsin. Its major physiological function is the protection of the lower respiratory tract against proteolytic destruction by human leukocyte elastase (HLE). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted. Endoplasmic reticulum. Note=The S and Z allele are not secreted effectively and accumulate intracellularly in the endoplasmic reticulum.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Short peptide from AAT]: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix.

Answer 12

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 56 kDa regulatory subunit alpha isoform (PP2A B subunit isoform B'-alpha) (PP2A B subunit isoform B56-alpha) (PP2A B subunit isoform PR61-alpha) (PR61alpha) (PP2A B subunit isoform R5-alpha) Q15172 FUNCTION: The B regulatory subunit might modulate substrate selectivity and catalytic activity, and also might direct the localization of the catalytic enzyme to a particular subcellular compartment. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 13

Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 33B A6NCL7

Answer 14

AP2-associated protein kinase 1 (EC 2.11.1) (Adaptor-associated kinase 1) Q2M2I8 FUNCTION: Regulates clathrin-mediated endocytosis by phosphorylating the AP2M1/mu2 subunit of the adaptor protein complex 2 (AP-2) which ensures high affinity binding of AP-2 to cargo membrane proteins during the initial stages of endocytosis. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 display similar levels of kinase activity towards AP2M1. Regulates phosphorylation of other AP-2 subunits as well as AP-2 localization and AP-2-mediated internalization of ligand complexes. Phosphorylates NUMB and regulates its cellular localization, promoting NUMB localization to endosomes. Binds to and stabilizes the activated form of NOTCH1, increases its localization in endosomes and regulates its transcriptional activity.

Answer 15

Medium-chain acyl-CoA ligase ACSF2, mitochondrial (EC 6.1.2) Q96CM8 FUNCTION: Acyl-CoA synthases catalyze the initial reaction in fatty acid metabolism, by forming a thioester with CoA . Has some preference toward medium-chain substrates . Plays a role in adipocyte differentiation .

Answer 16

C-reactive protein [Cleaved into: C-reactive protein(1-205)] P02741 FUNCTION: Displays several functions associated with host defense: it promotes agglutination, bacterial capsular swelling, phagocytosis and complement fixation through its calcium-dependent binding to phosphorylcholine. Can interact with DNA and histones and may scavenge nuclear material released from damaged circulating cells. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 17

Alanyl-tRNA editing protein Aarsd1 (Alanyl-tRNA synthetase domain-containing protein 1) Q9BTE6 FUNCTION: Functions in trans to edit the amino acid moiety from incorrectly charged tRNA(Ala).

Answer 18

Putative beta-actin-like protein 3 (Kappa-actin) (POTE ankyrin domain family member K) Q9BYX7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton .

Answer 19

Activin receptor type-1 (EC 2.11.30) (Activin receptor type I) (ACTR-I) (Activin receptor-like kinase 2) (ALK-2) (Serine/threonine-protein kinase receptor R1) (SKR1) (TGF-B superfamily receptor type I) (TSR-I) Q04771 FUNCTION: On ligand binding, forms a receptor complex consisting of two type II and two type I transmembrane serine/threonine kinases. Type II receptors phosphorylate and activate type I receptors which autophosphorylate, then bind and activate SMAD transcriptional regulators. Receptor for activin. May be involved for left-right pattern formation during embryogenesis (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 20

Activin receptor type-1B (EC 2.11.30) (Activin receptor type IB) (ACTR-IB) (Activin receptor-like kinase 4) (ALK-4) (Serine/threonine-protein kinase receptor R2) (SKR2) P36896 FUNCTION: Transmembrane serine/threonine kinase activin type-1 receptor forming an activin receptor complex with activin receptor type-2 (ACVR2A or ACVR2B). Transduces the activin signal from the cell surface to the cytoplasm and is thus regulating a many physiological and pathological processes including neuronal differentiation and neuronal survival, hair follicle development and cycling, FSH production by the pituitary gland, wound healing, extracellular matrix production, immunosuppression and carcinogenesis. Activin is also thought to have a paracrine or autocrine role in follicular development in the ovary. Within the receptor complex, type-2 receptors (ACVR2A and/or ACVR2B) act as a primary activin receptors whereas the type-1 receptors like ACVR1B act as downstream transducers of activin signals. Activin binds to type-2 receptor at the plasma membrane and activates its serine-threonine kinase. The activated receptor type-2 then phosphorylates and activates the type-1 receptor such as ACVR1B. Once activated, the type-1 receptor binds and phosphorylates the SMAD proteins SMAD2 and SMAD3, on serine residues of the C-terminal tail. Soon after their association with the activin receptor and subsequent phosphorylation, SMAD2 and SMAD3 are released into the cytoplasm where they interact with the common partner SMAD4. This SMAD complex translocates into the nucleus where it mediates activin-induced transcription. Inhibitory SMAD7, which is recruited to ACVR1B through FKBP1A, can prevent the association of SMAD2 and SMAD3 with the activin receptor complex, thereby blocking the activin signal. Activin signal transduction is also antagonized by the binding to the receptor of inhibin-B via the IGSF1 inhibin coreceptor. ACVR1B also phosphorylates TDP2.

Answer 21

Protein arginine N-methyltransferase 6 (EC 2.1.319) (Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein methyltransferase-like protein 6) (Histone-arginine N-methyltransferase PRMT6) Q96LA8 FUNCTION: Arginine methyltransferase that can catalyze the formation of both omega-N monomethylarginine (MMA) and asymmetrical dimethylarginine (aDMA), with a strong preference for the formation of aDMA (, , , , ). Preferentially methylates arginyl residues present in a glycine and arginine-rich domain and displays preference for monomethylated substrates (, , , ). Specifically mediates the asymmetric dimethylation of histone H3 'Arg-2' to form H3R2me2a (, , ). H3R2me2a represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression and is mutually exclusive with methylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me2 and H3K4me3) (, ). Acts as a transcriptional repressor of various genes such as HOXA2, THBS1 and TP53 . Repression of TP53 blocks cellular senescence (By similarity). Also methylates histone H2A and H4 'Arg-3' (H2AR3me and H4R3me, respectively). Acts as a regulator of DNA base excision during DNA repair by mediating the methylation of DNA polymerase beta (POLB), leading to the stimulation of its polymerase activity by enhancing DNA binding and processivity . Methylates HMGA1 (, ). Regulates alternative splicing events. Acts as a transcriptional coactivator of a number of steroid hormone receptors including ESR1, ESR2, PGR and NR3C1. Promotes fasting-induced transcriptional activation of the gluconeogenic program through methylation of the CRTC2 transcription coactivator (By similarity). May play a role in innate immunity against HIV-1 in case of infection by methylating and impairing the function of various HIV-1 proteins such as Tat, Rev and Nucleocapsid protein p7 (NC) . Methylates GPS2, protecting GPS2 from ubiquitination and degradation (By similarity). Methylates SIRT7, inhibiting SIRT7 histone deacetylase activity and promoting mitochondria biogenesis .

Answer 22

Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 22 Q5VYY1

Answer 23

Anoctamin-2 (Transmembrane protein 16B) Q9NQ90 FUNCTION: Calcium-activated chloride channel (CaCC) which may play a role in olfactory signal transduction. Odorant molecules bind to odor-sensing receptors (OSRs), leading to an increase in calcium entry that activates CaCC current which amplifies the depolarization of the OSR cells, ANO2 seems to be the underlying chloride channel involved in this process. May mediate light perception amplification in retina.

Answer 24

ATP-binding cassette sub-family E member 1 (2'-5'-oligoadenylate-binding protein) (HuHP68) (RNase L inhibitor) (Ribonuclease 4 inhibitor) (RNS4I) P61221 FUNCTION: Antagonizes the binding of 2-5A (5'-phosphorylated 2',5'-linked oligoadenylates) by RNase L through direct interaction with RNase L and therefore inhibits its endoribonuclease activity. May play a central role in the regulation of mRNA turnover. Antagonizes the anti-viral effect of the interferon-regulated 2-5A/RNase L pathway. May act as a chaperone for post-translational events during HIV-1 capsid assembly. Note=Localized to clusters of virus formation at the plasma membrane.

Answer 25

ATP-binding cassette sub-family B member 6, mitochondrial (Mitochondrial ABC transporter 3) (Mt-ABC transporter 3) (P-glycoprotein-related protein) (Ubiquitously-expressed mammalian ABC half transporter) Q9NP58 FUNCTION: Binds heme and porphyrins and functions in their ATP-dependent uptake into the mitochondria. Plays a crucial role in heme synthesis.

Answer 26

Anthrax toxin receptor 1 (Tumor endothelial marker 8) Q9H6X2 FUNCTION: Plays a role in cell attachment and migration. Interacts with extracellular matrix proteins and with the actin cytoskeleton. Mediates adhesion of cells to type 1 collagen and gelatin, reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and promotes cell spreading. Plays a role in the angiogenic response of cultured umbilical vein endothelial cells. Note=At the membrane of lamellipodia and at the tip of actin-enriched filopodia. Colocalizes with actin at the base of lamellipodia.

Answer 27

Fibroblast growth factor 8 (FGF-8) (Androgen-induced growth factor) (AIGF) (Heparin-binding growth factor 8) (HBGF-8) P55075 FUNCTION: Plays an important role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, cell differentiation and cell migration. Required for normal brain, eye, ear and limb development during embryogenesis. Required for normal development of the gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) neuronal system (, , ). Plays a role in neurite outgrowth in hippocampal cells . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 28

Arf-GAP with coiled-coil, ANK repeat and PH domain-containing protein 1 (Centaurin-beta-1) (Cnt-b1) Q15027 FUNCTION: GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for ADP ribosylation factor 6 (ARF6) required for clathrin-dependent export of proteins from recycling endosomes to trans-Golgi network and cell surface. Required for regulated export of ITGB1 from recycling endosomes to the cell surface and ITGB1-dependent cell migration.

Answer 29

F-box only protein 34 Q9NWN3 FUNCTION: Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex.

Answer 30

Fibroblast growth factor receptor 4 (FGFR-4) (EC 2.10.1) (CD antigen CD334) P22455 FUNCTION: Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for fibroblast growth factors and plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation, differentiation and migration, and in regulation of lipid metabolism, bile acid biosynthesis, glucose uptake, vitamin D metabolism and phosphate homeostasis. Required for normal down-regulation of the expression of CYP7A1, the rate-limiting enzyme in bile acid synthesis, in response to FGF19. Phosphorylates PLCG1 and FRS2. Ligand binding leads to the activation of several signaling cascades. Activation of PLCG1 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate. Phosphorylation of FRS2 triggers recruitment of GRB2, GAB1, PIK3R1 and SOS1, and mediates activation of RAS, MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 and the MAP kinase signaling pathway, as well as of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Promotes SRC-dependent phosphorylation of the matrix protease MMP14 and its lysosomal degradation. FGFR4 signaling is down-regulated by receptor internalization and degradation; MMP14 promotes internalization and degradation of FGFR4. Mutations that lead to constitutive kinase activation or impair normal FGFR4 inactivation lead to aberrant signaling.

Answer 31

DNA damage-inducible transcript 4 protein (HIF-1 responsive protein RTP801) (Protein regulated in development and DNA damage response 1) (REDD-1) Q9NX09 FUNCTION: Regulates cell growth, proliferation and survival via inhibition of the activity of the mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1). Inhibition of mTORC1 is mediated by a pathway that involves DDIT4/REDD1, AKT1, the TSC1-TSC2 complex and the GTPase RHEB. Plays an important role in responses to cellular energy levels and cellular stress, including responses to hypoxia and DNA damage. Regulates p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis in response to DNA damage via its effect on mTORC1 activity. Its role in the response to hypoxia depends on the cell type; it mediates mTORC1 inhibition in fibroblasts and thymocytes, but not in hepatocytes (By similarity). Required for mTORC1-mediated defense against viral protein synthesis and virus replication (By similarity). Inhibits neuronal differentiation and neurite outgrowth mediated by NGF via its effect on mTORC1 activity. Required for normal neuron migration during embryonic brain development. Plays a role in neuronal cell death.

Answer 32

Protein DDI1 homolog 2 (EC 3.23.-) Q5TDH0 FUNCTION: Aspartic protease that mediates the cleavage of NFE2L1/NRF1 at 'Leu-104', thereby promoting release of NFE2L1/NRF1 from the endoplasmic reticulum membrane (, ). Ubiquitination of NFE2L1/NRF1 is a prerequisite for cleavage, suggesting that DDI2 specifically recognizes and binds ubiquitinated NFE2L1/NRF1 . Seems to act as a proteasomal shuttle which links the proteasome and replication fork proteins like RTF2 (Probable). Required, with DDI1, for cellular survival following replication stress. Together or redudantly with DDI1, removes RTF2 from stalled forks to allow cell cycle progression after replication stress and maintains genome integrity .

Answer 33

Fibrinogen-like protein 1 (HP-041) (Hepassocin) (HPS) (Hepatocyte-derived fibrinogen-related protein 1) (HFREP-1) (Liver fibrinogen-related protein 1) (LFIRE-1) Q08830 FUNCTION: Immune suppressive molecule that inhibits antigen-specific T-cell activation by acting as a major ligand of LAG3 . Responsible for LAG3 T-cell inhibitory function . Binds LAG3 independently from MHC class II (MHC-II) . Secreted by, and promotes growth of, hepatocytes (, ).

Answer 34

FGFR1 oncogene partner 2 Q9NVK5 FUNCTION: May be involved in wound healing pathway.

Answer 35

Glycine receptor subunit alpha-3 O75311 FUNCTION: Glycine receptors are ligand-gated chloride channels. Channel opening is triggered by extracellular glycine (, ). Channel characteristics depend on the subunit composition; heteropentameric channels display faster channel closure (By similarity). Plays an important role in the down-regulation of neuronal excitability (By similarity). Contributes to the generation of inhibitory postsynaptic currents (By similarity). Contributes to increased pain perception in response to increased prostaglandin E2 levels (By similarity). Plays a role in cellular responses to ethanol (By similarity).

Answer 36

Exostosin-1 (EC 2.1.224) (EC 2.1.225) (Glucuronosyl-N-acetylglucosaminyl-proteoglycan/N-acetylglucosaminyl-proteoglycan 4-alpha-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase) (Multiple exostoses protein 1) (Putative tumor suppressor protein EXT1) Q16394 FUNCTION: Glycosyltransferase required for the biosynthesis of heparan-sulfate. The EXT1/EXT2 complex possesses substantially higher glycosyltransferase activity than EXT1 or EXT2 alone. Appears to be a tumor suppressor. Required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan . Note=The EXT1/EXT2 complex is localized in the Golgi apparatus.

Answer 37

Rho guanine nucleotide exchange factor 6 (Alpha-Pix) (COOL-2) (PAK-interacting exchange factor alpha) (Rac/Cdc42 guanine nucleotide exchange factor 6) Q15052 FUNCTION: Acts as a RAC1 guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell projection, lamellipodium .

Answer 38

C-C motif chemokine 7 (Monocyte chemoattractant protein 3) (Monocyte chemotactic protein 3) (MCP-3) (NC28) (Small-inducible cytokine A7) P80098 FUNCTION: Chemotactic factor that attracts monocytes and eosinophils, but not neutrophils. Augments monocyte anti-tumor activity. Also induces the release of gelatinase B. This protein can bind heparin. Binds to CCR1, CCR2 and CCR3. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 39

Brefeldin A-inhibited guanine nucleotide-exchange protein 2 (Brefeldin A-inhibited GEP 2) (ADP-ribosylation factor guanine nucleotide-exchange factor 2) Q9Y6D5 FUNCTION: Promotes guanine-nucleotide exchange on ARF1 and ARF3 and to a lower extent on ARF5 and ARF6. Promotes the activation of ARF1/ARF5/ARF6 through replacement of GDP with GTP. Involved in the regulation of Golgi vesicular transport. Required for the integrity of the endosomal compartment. Involved in trafficking from the trans-Golgi network (TGN) to endosomes and is required for membrane association of the AP-1 complex and GGA1. Seems to be involved in recycling of the transferrin receptor from recycling endosomes to the plasma membrane. Probably is involved in the exit of GABA(A) receptors from the endoplasmic reticulum. Involved in constitutive release of tumor necrosis factor receptor 1 via exosome-like vesicles; the function seems to involve PKA and specifically PRKAR2B. Proposed to act as A kinase-anchoring protein (AKAP) and may mediate crosstalk between Arf and PKA pathways. Note=Translocates from cytoplasm to membranes upon cAMP treatment. Localized in recycling endosomes.

Answer 40

BH3-interacting domain death agonist (p22 BID) (BID) [Cleaved into: BH3-interacting domain death agonist p15 (p15 BID); BH3-interacting domain death agonist p13 (p13 BID); BH3-interacting domain death agonist p11 (p11 BID)] P55957 FUNCTION: The major proteolytic product p15 BID allows the release of cytochrome c (By similarity). Isoform 1, isoform 2 and isoform 4 induce ICE-like proteases and apoptosis. Isoform 3 does not induce apoptosis. Counters the protective effect of Bcl-2.

Answer 41

Biliverdin reductase A (BVR A) (EC 1.1.24) (Biliverdin-IX alpha-reductase) P53004 FUNCTION: Reduces the gamma-methene bridge of the open tetrapyrrole, biliverdin IX alpha, to bilirubin with the concomitant oxidation of a NADH or NADPH cofactor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm.

Answer 42

Armadillo repeat-containing X-linked protein 2 (ARM protein lost in epithelial cancers on chromosome X 2) (Protein ALEX2) Q7L311 FUNCTION: May regulate the dynamics and distribution of mitochondria in neural cells.

Answer 43

Putative annexin A2-like protein (Annexin A2 pseudogene 2) (Lipocortin II pseudogene) A6NMY6 FUNCTION: Calcium-regulated membrane-binding protein whose affinity for calcium is greatly enhanced by anionic phospholipids. It binds two calcium ions with high affinity. May be involved in heat-stress response.

Answer 44

Cytotoxic and regulatory T-cell molecule (Class-I MHC-restricted T-cell-associated molecule) (CD antigen CD355) O95727 FUNCTION: Interaction with CADM1 promotes natural killer (NK) cell cytotoxicity and interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) secretion by CD8+ cells in vitro as well as NK cell-mediated rejection of tumors expressing CADM3 in vivo.

Answer 45

Adhesion G-protein coupled receptor F2 (G-protein coupled receptor 111) (G-protein coupled receptor PGR20) Q8IZF7 FUNCTION: Orphan receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 46

Cyclin-dependent kinase 5 activator 1 (CDK5 activator 1) (Cyclin-dependent kinase 5 regulatory subunit 1) (TPKII regulatory subunit) [Cleaved into: Cyclin-dependent kinase 5 activator 1, p35 (p35); Cyclin-dependent kinase 5 activator 1, p25 (p25) (Tau protein kinase II 23 kDa subunit) (p23)] Q15078 FUNCTION: p35 is a neuron specific activator of CDK5. The complex p35/CDK5 is required for neurite outgrowth and cortical lamination. Involved in dendritic spine morphogenesis by mediating the EFNA1-EPHA4 signaling. Activator of TPKII. The complex p35/CDK5 participates in the regulation of the circadian clock by modulating the function of CLOCK protein: phosphorylates CLOCK at 'Thr-451' and 'Thr-461' and regulates the transcriptional activity of the CLOCK-ARNTL/BMAL1 heterodimer in association with altered stability and subcellular distribution. Note=The conversion of p35 to p25 relocalizes the protein from the cell periphery to the cytoplasm, in nuclear and perinuclear regions. In the primary cortical neurons, p25 is primarily concentrated in the cell soma and is largely absent from neurites.

Answer 47

Cadherin-5 (7B4 antigen) (Vascular endothelial cadherin) (VE-cadherin) (CD antigen CD144) P33151 FUNCTION: Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins (By similarity). They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types . This cadherin may play a important role in endothelial cell biology through control of the cohesion and organization of the intercellular junctions (By similarity). It associates with alpha-catenin forming a link to the cytoskeleton . Acts in concert with KRIT1 and MPP5 to establish and maintain correct endothelial cell polarity and vascular lumen (By similarity). These effects are mediated by recruitment and activation of the Par polarity complex and RAP1B . Required for activation of PRKCZ and for the localization of phosphorylated PRKCZ, PARD3, TIAM1 and RAP1B to the cell junction .

Answer 48

Cadherin-15 (Cadherin-14) (Muscle cadherin) (M-cadherin) P55291 FUNCTION: Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. M-cadherin is part of the myogenic program and may provide a trigger for terminal muscle differentiation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 49

Beta-secretase 2 (EC 3.23.45) (Aspartic-like protease 56 kDa) (Aspartyl protease 1) (ASP1) (Asp 1) (Beta-site amyloid precursor protein cleaving enzyme 2) (Beta-site APP cleaving enzyme 2) (Down region aspartic protease) (DRAP) (Memapsin-1) (Membrane-associated aspartic protease 1) (Theta-secretase) Q9Y5Z0 FUNCTION: Responsible for the proteolytic processing of the amyloid precursor protein (APP). Cleaves APP, between residues 690 and 691, leading to the generation and extracellular release of beta-cleaved soluble APP, and a corresponding cell-associated C-terminal fragment which is later released by gamma-secretase. It has also been shown that it can cleave APP between residues 671 and 672. Responsible also for the proteolytic processing of CLTRN in pancreatic beta cells . Endoplasmic reticulum. Endosome.

Answer 50

Protein argonaute-4 (Argonaute4) (hAgo4) (Argonaute RISC catalytic component 4) (Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2C 4) (eIF-2C 4) (eIF2C 4) Q9HCK5 FUNCTION: Required for RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi). Binds to short RNAs such as microRNAs (miRNAs) and represses the translation of mRNAs which are complementary to them. Lacks endonuclease activity and does not appear to cleave target mRNAs. Also required for RNA-directed transcription and replication of the human hapatitis delta virus (HDV).

Answer 51

Carbonic anhydrase 6 (EC 4.1.1) (Carbonate dehydratase VI) (Carbonic anhydrase VI) (CA-VI) (Salivary carbonic anhydrase) (Secreted carbonic anhydrase) P23280 FUNCTION: Reversible hydration of carbon dioxide. Its role in saliva is unknown. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 52

Adhesion G-protein coupled receptor D1 (G-protein coupled receptor 133) (G-protein coupled receptor PGR25) Q6QNK2 FUNCTION: Orphan receptor. Signals via G(s)-alpha family of G-proteins (, ). Has protumorigenic function especially in glioblastoma .

Answer 53

Homeobox protein BarH-like 2 Q9UMQ3 FUNCTION: Transcription factor. Binds optimally to the DNA consensus sequence 5'-YYTAATGRTTTTY-3'. May control the expression of neural adhesion molecules such as L1 or Ng-CAM during embryonic development of both the central and peripherical nervous system. May be involved in controlling adhesive processes in keratinizing epithelia (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 54

AP-1 complex subunit sigma-1A (Adaptor protein complex AP-1 subunit sigma-1A) (Adaptor-related protein complex 1 subunit sigma-1A) (Clathrin assembly protein complex 1 sigma-1A small chain) (Clathrin coat assembly protein AP19) (Golgi adaptor HA1/AP1 adaptin sigma-1A subunit) (HA1 19 kDa subunit) (Sigma 1a subunit of AP-1 clathrin) (Sigma-adaptin 1A) (Sigma1A-adaptin) P61966 FUNCTION: Subunit of clathrin-associated adaptor protein complex 1 that plays a role in protein sorting in the late-Golgi/trans-Golgi network (TGN) and/or endosomes. The AP complexes mediate both the recruitment of clathrin to membranes and the recognition of sorting signals within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules. Note=Component of the coat surrounding the cytoplasmic face of coated vesicles located at the Golgi complex.

Answer 55

Carbohydrate sulfotransferase 2 (EC 2.2.-) (Galactose/N-acetylglucosamine/N-acetylglucosamine 6-O-sulfotransferase 2) (GST-2) (N-acetylglucosamine 6-O-sulfotransferase 1) (GlcNAc6ST-1) (Gn6ST-1) Q9Y4C5 FUNCTION: Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the transfer of sulfate to position 6 of non-reducing N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) residues within keratan-like structures on N-linked glycans and within mucin-associated glycans that can ultimately serve as SELL ligands. SELL ligands are present in high endothelial cells (HEVs) and play a central role in lymphocyte homing at sites of inflammation. Participates in biosynthesis of the SELL ligand sialyl 6-sulfo Lewis X and in lymphocyte homing to Peyer patches. Has no activity toward O-linked sugars. Its substrate specificity may be influenced by its subcellular location. Sulfates GlcNAc residues at terminal, non-reducing ends of oligosaccharide chains.

Answer 56

Beta,beta-carotene 15,15'-dioxygenase (EC 1.13.11.63) (Beta-carotene dioxygenase 1) (Beta-carotene oxygenase 1) Q9HAY6 FUNCTION: Symmetrically cleaves beta-carotene into two molecules of retinal using a dioxygenase mechanism.

Answer 57

Cysteine-rich protein 2-binding protein (CSRP2-binding protein) (ADA2A-containing complex subunit 2) (ATAC2) (CRP2-binding partner) (CRP2BP) (Lysine acetyltransferase 14) Q9H8E8 FUNCTION: Component of the ATAC complex, a complex with histone acetyltransferase activity on histones H3 and H4. May function as a scaffold for the ATAC complex to promote ATAC complex stability. Has also weak histone acetyltransferase activity toward histone H4. Required for the normal progression through G1 and G2/M phases of the cell cycle. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Cytoplasm. Note=Mainly nuclear.

Answer 58

[3-methyl-2-oxobutanoate dehydrogenase [lipoamide]] kinase, mitochondrial (EC 2.11.4) (Branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase kinase) (BCKD-kinase) (BCKDHKIN) O14874 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the phosphorylation and inactivation of the branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase complex, the key regulatory enzyme of the valine, leucine and isoleucine catabolic pathways. Key enzyme that regulate the activity state of the BCKD complex.

Answer 59

Anaphase-promoting complex subunit 7 (APC7) (Cyclosome subunit 7) Q9UJX3 FUNCTION: Component of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C), a cell cycle-regulated E3 ubiquitin ligase that controls progression through mitosis and the G1 phase of the cell cycle. The APC/C complex acts by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of target proteins: it mainly mediates the formation of 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains and, to a lower extent, the formation of 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains.

Answer 60

Uncharacterized protein C9orf66 Q5T8R8

Answer 61

Putative Polycomb group protein ASXL3 (Additional sex combs-like protein 3) Q9C0F0 FUNCTION: Putative Polycomb group (PcG) protein. PcG proteins act by forming multiprotein complexes, which are required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of homeotic genes throughout development. PcG proteins are not required to initiate repression, but to maintain it during later stages of development. They probably act via methylation of histones, rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility (By similarity).

Answer 62

Cytosolic iron-sulfur assembly component 2A (MIP18 family protein FAM96A) Q9H5X1 FUNCTION: Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the incorporation of iron-sulfur cluster into extramitochondrial Fe/S proteins . As a CIA complex component and in collaboration with CIAO1 specifically matures ACO1 and stabilizes IREB2, connecting cytosolic iron-sulfur protein maturation with cellular iron regulation . May play a role in chromosome segregation through establishment of sister chromatid cohesion. May induce apoptosis in collaboration with APAF1 .

Answer 63

Probable phospholipid-transporting ATPase VD (EC 7.2.1) (ATPase class V type 10D) (P4-ATPase flippase complex alpha subunit ATP10D) Q9P241 FUNCTION: Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules (Probable). Note=Exit from the endoplasmic reticulum requires the presence of TMEM30A, but not that of TMEM30B.

Answer 64

Probable phospholipid-transporting ATPase IF (EC 7.2.1) (ATPase IR) (ATPase class VI type 11B) (P4-ATPase flippase complex alpha subunit ATP11B) Q9Y2G3 FUNCTION: Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules (Probable). Involved in regulation of sensitivity to cisplatin; may contribute to secretory vesicle transport of cisplatin from Golgi to plasma membrane.

Answer 65

Probable phospholipid-transporting ATPase VB (EC 7.2.1) (ATPase class V type 10B) (P4-ATPase flippase complex alpha subunit ATP10B) O94823 FUNCTION: Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules (Probable). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasmic vesicle membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Note=Exit from the endoplasmic reticulum requires the presence of TMEM30A, but not TMEM30B.

Answer 66

Cytochrome P450 4F22 (EC 1.14.14.-) Q6NT55 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane .

Answer 67

Autophagy-related protein 2 homolog A Q2TAZ0 FUNCTION: Involved in autophagosome assembly, regulating the size of nascent autophagosomes . Also regulates lipid droplets morphology and distribution within the cell (, ). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Preautophagosomal structure membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Lipid droplet.

Answer 68

Cytochrome P450 4Z1 (EC 1.14.14.1) (CYPIVZ1) Q86W10 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane .

Answer 69

Complement C4-A (Acidic complement C4) (C3 and PZP-like alpha-2-macroglobulin domain-containing protein 2) [Cleaved into: Complement C4 beta chain; Complement C4-A alpha chain; C4a anaphylatoxin; C4b-A; C4d-A; Complement C4 gamma chain] P0C0L4 FUNCTION: Non-enzymatic component of C3 and C5 convertases and thus essential for the propagation of the classical complement pathway. Covalently binds to immunoglobulins and immune complexes and enhances the solubilization of immune aggregates and the clearance of IC through CR1 on erythrocytes. C4A isotype is responsible for effective binding to form amide bonds with immune aggregates or protein antigens, while C4B isotype catalyzes the transacylation of the thioester carbonyl group to form ester bonds with carbohydrate antigens.; FUNCTION: Derived from proteolytic degradation of complement C4, C4a anaphylatoxin is a mediator of local inflammatory process. It induces the contraction of smooth muscle, increases vascular permeability and causes histamine release from mast cells and basophilic leukocytes. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted. Cell junction, synapse .

Answer 70

Cytochrome P450 7B1 (24-hydroxycholesterol 7-alpha-hydroxylase) (EC 1.14.14.26) (25/26-hydroxycholesterol 7-alpha-hydroxylase) (EC 1.14.14.29) (3-hydroxysteroid 7-alpha hydroxylase) (Oxysterol 7-alpha-hydroxylase) O75881 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of endogenous oxysterols and steroid hormones, including neurosteroids (, ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase) (, ). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bonds of steroids with a preference for 7-alpha position (, ). Usually metabolizes steroids carrying a hydroxy group at position 3, functioning as a 3-hydroxy steroid 7-alpha hydroxylase . Hydroxylates oxysterols, including 25-hydroxycholesterol and (25R)-cholest-5-ene-3beta,26-diol toward 7-alpha hydroxy derivatives, which may be transported to the liver and converted to bile acids (, ). Via its product 7-alpha,25-dihydroxycholesterol, a ligand for the chemotactic G protein-coupled receptor GPR183/EBI2, regulates B cell migration in germinal centers of lymphoid organs, thus guiding efficient maturation of plasma B cells and overall antigen-specific humoral immune response (By similarity). 7-alpha hydroxylates neurosteroids, including 3beta-hydroxyandrost-5-en-17-one (dehydroepiandrosterone) and pregnenolone, both involved in hippocampus-associated memory and learning . Metabolizes androstanoids toward 6- or 7-alpha hydroxy derivatives .

Answer 71

Uncharacterized protein C12orf54 Q6X4T0

Answer 72

Collagen alpha-2(V) chain P05997 FUNCTION: Type V collagen is a member of group I collagen (fibrillar forming collagen). It is a minor connective tissue component of nearly ubiquitous distribution. Type V collagen binds to DNA, heparan sulfate, thrombospondin, heparin, and insulin. Type V collagen is a key determinant in the assembly of tissue-specific matrices (By similarity).

Answer 73

Probable peptide chain release factor C12orf65, mitochondrial Q9H3J6 FUNCTION: May act as a codon-independent translation release factor that has lost all stop codon specificity and directs the termination of translation in mitochondrion. May help rescuing stalled mitoribosomes during translation (By similarity).

Answer 74

F-box/LRR-repeat protein 20 (F-box and leucine-rich repeat protein 20) (F-box/LRR-repeat protein 2-like) Q96IG2 FUNCTION: Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Role in neural transmission (By similarity).

Answer 75

Aquaporin-4 (AQP-4) (Mercurial-insensitive water channel) (MIWC) (WCH4) P55087 FUNCTION: Forms a water-specific channel (, , ). Plays an important role in brain water homeostasis and in glymphatic solute transport. Required for a normal rate of water exchange across the blood brain interface. Required for normal levels of cerebrospinal fluid influx into the brain cortex and parenchyma along paravascular spaces that surround penetrating arteries, and for normal drainage of interstitial fluid along paravenous drainage pathways. Thereby, it is required for normal clearance of solutes from the brain interstitial fluid, including soluble beta-amyloid peptides derived from APP. Plays a redundant role in urinary water homeostasis and urinary concentrating ability (By similarity).

Answer 76

Peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase FKBP14 (PPIase FKBP14) (EC 5.1.8) (22 kDa FK506-binding protein) (22 kDa FKBP) (FKBP-22) (FK506-binding protein 14) (FKBP-14) (Rotamase) Q9NWM8 FUNCTION: PPIase which accelerates the folding of proteins during protein synthesis. Has a preference for substrates containing 4-hydroxylproline modifications, including type III collagen. May also target type VI and type X collagens.

Answer 77

CLIP-associating protein 1 (Cytoplasmic linker-associated protein 1) (Multiple asters homolog 1) (Protein Orbit homolog 1) (hOrbit1) Q7Z460 FUNCTION: Microtubule plus-end tracking protein that promotes the stabilization of dynamic microtubules. Involved in the nucleation of noncentrosomal microtubules originating from the trans-Golgi network (TGN). Required for the polarization of the cytoplasmic microtubule arrays in migrating cells towards the leading edge of the cell. May act at the cell cortex to enhance the frequency of rescue of depolymerizing microtubules by attaching their plus-ends to cortical platforms composed of ERC1 and PHLDB2. This cortical microtubule stabilizing activity is regulated at least in part by phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase signaling. Also performs a similar stabilizing function at the kinetochore which is essential for the bipolar alignment of chromosomes on the mitotic spindle. Note=Localizes to microtubule plus ends. Localizes to centrosomes, kinetochores and the mitotic spindle from prometaphase. Subsequently localizes to the spindle midzone from anaphase and to the midbody from telophase. In migrating cells localizes to the plus ends of microtubules within the cell body and to the entire microtubule lattice within the lamella. Localizes to the cell cortex and this requires ERC1 and PHLDB2.

Answer 78

Protein FAM180B Q6P0A1 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 79

FK506-binding protein 15 (FKBP-15) (133 kDa FK506-binding protein) (133 kDa FKBP) (FKBP-133) (WASP- and FKBP-like protein) (WAFL) Q5T1M5 FUNCTION: May be involved in the cytoskeletal organization of neuronal growth cones. Seems to be inactive as a PPIase (By similarity). Involved in the transport of early endosomes at the level of transition between microfilament-based and microtubule-based movement.

Answer 80

Autophagy-related protein 9B (APG9-like 2) (Nitric oxide synthase 3-overlapping antisense gene protein) (Protein sONE) Q674R7 FUNCTION: Involved in autophagy and cytoplasm to vacuole transport (Cvt) vesicle formation. Plays a key role in the organization of the preautophagosomal structure/phagophore assembly site (PAS), the nucleating site for formation of the sequestering vesicle (By similarity). Note=Under amino acid starvation or rapamycin treatment, redistributes from a juxtanuclear clustered pool to a dispersed peripheral cytosolic pool. The starvation-induced redistribution depends on ULK1 and ATG13.

Answer 81

Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase DDX5 (EC 3.4.13) (DEAD box protein 5) (RNA helicase p68) P17844 FUNCTION: Involved in the alternative regulation of pre-mRNA splicing; its RNA helicase activity is necessary for increasing tau exon 10 inclusion and occurs in a RBM4-dependent manner. Binds to the tau pre-mRNA in the stem-loop region downstream of exon 10. The rate of ATP hydrolysis is highly stimulated by single-stranded RNA. Involved in transcriptional regulation; the function is independent of the RNA helicase activity. Transcriptional coactivator for androgen receptor AR but probably not ESR1. Synergizes with DDX17 and SRA1 RNA to activate MYOD1 transcriptional activity and involved in skeletal muscle differentiation. Transcriptional coactivator for p53/TP53 and involved in p53/TP53 transcriptional response to DNA damage and p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis. Transcriptional coactivator for RUNX2 and involved in regulation of osteoblast differentiation. Acts as transcriptional repressor in a promoter-specific manner; the function probably involves association with histone deacetylases, such as HDAC1. As component of a large PER complex is involved in the inhibition of 3' transcriptional termination of circadian target genes such as PER1 and NR1D1 and the control of the circadian rhythms.

Answer 82

Protein FAM183BP (Testis highly expressed protein 6) Q6ZVS7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, cilium basal body .

Answer 83

Copine-5 (Copine V) Q9HCH3 FUNCTION: Probable calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that may play a role in calcium-mediated intracellular processes (By similarity). Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes .

Answer 84

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase CPPED1 (EC 3.3.16) (Calcineurin-like phosphoesterase domain-containing protein 1) (Complete S-transactivated protein 1) Q9BRF8 FUNCTION: Protein phosphatase that dephosphorylates AKT family kinase specifically at 'Ser-473', blocking cell cycle progression and promoting cell apoptosis. May play an inhibitory role in glucose uptake by adipocytes.

Answer 85

APC membrane recruitment protein 2 (Amer2) (Protein FAM123A) Q8N7J2 FUNCTION: Negative regulator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway involved in neuroectodermal patterning. Acts by specifically binding phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2), translocating to the cell membrane and interacting with key regulators of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway, such as components of the beta-catenin destruction complex. Note=Translocates to the cell membrane following binding to PtdIns(4,5)P2.

Answer 86

Atlastin-2 (EC 3.5.-) (ADP-ribosylation factor-like protein 6-interacting protein 2) (ARL-6-interacting protein 2) (Aip-2) Q8NHH9 FUNCTION: GTPase tethering membranes through formation of trans-homooligomers and mediating homotypic fusion of endoplasmic reticulum membranes. Functions in endoplasmic reticulum tubular network biogenesis (, , ).

Answer 87

CPX chromosomal region candidate gene 1 protein (Cancer/testis antigen 77) (CT77) Q8N123

Answer 88

Atrophin-1 (Dentatorubral-pallidoluysian atrophy protein) P54259 FUNCTION: Transcriptional corepressor. Recruits NR2E1 to repress transcription. Promotes vascular smooth cell (VSMC) migration and orientation (By similarity). Corepressor of MTG8 transcriptional repression. Has some intrinsic repression activity which is independent of the number of poly-Gln (polyQ) repeats.

Answer 89

Inactive carboxypeptidase-like protein X2 Q8N436 FUNCTION: May be involved in cell-cell interactions. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 90

Claudin-14 O95500 FUNCTION: Plays a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell junction, tight junction. Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 91

Fibronectin type III domain-containing protein 8 Q8TC99

Answer 92

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase CHFR (EC 2.2.27) (Checkpoint with forkhead and RING finger domains protein) (RING finger protein 196) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase CHFR) Q96EP1 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that functions in the antephase checkpoint by actively delaying passage into mitosis in response to microtubule poisons. Acts in early prophase before chromosome condensation, when the centrosome move apart from each other along the periphery of the nucleus. Probably involved in signaling the presence of mitotic stress caused by microtubule poisons by mediating the 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of target proteins, leading to their degradation by the proteasome. Promotes the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of AURKA and PLK1. Probably acts as a tumor suppressor, possibly by mediating the polyubiquitination of HDAC1, leading to its degradation. May also promote the formation of 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains and functions with the specific ubiquitin-conjugating UBC13-MMS2 (UBE2N-UBE2V2) heterodimer. Substrates that are polyubiquitinated at 'Lys-63' are usually not targeted for degradation, but are rather involved in signaling cellular stress.

Answer 93

Alkaline ceramidase 1 (AlkCDase 1) (Alkaline CDase 1) (EC 3.1.-) (EC 3.1.23) (Acylsphingosine deacylase 3) (N-acylsphingosine amidohydrolase 3) Q8TDN7 FUNCTION: Endoplasmic reticulum ceramidase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of ceramides into sphingosine and free fatty acids at alkaline pH (, , ). Ceramides, sphingosine, and its phosphorylated form sphingosine-1-phosphate are bioactive lipids that mediate cellular signaling pathways regulating several biological processes including cell proliferation, apoptosis and differentiation . Exhibits a strong substrate specificity towards the natural stereoisomer of ceramides with D-erythro-sphingosine as a backbone and has a higher activity towards very long-chain unsaturated fatty acids like the C24:1-ceramide (, ). May also hydrolyze dihydroceramides to produce dihydrosphingosine (, ). ACER1 is a skin-specific ceramidase that regulates the levels of ceramides, sphingosine and sphingosine-1-phosphate in the epidermis, mediates the calcium-induced differentiation of epidermal keratinocytes and more generally plays an important role in skin homeostasis .

Answer 94

Long-chain-fatty-acid--CoA ligase 5 (EC 6.1.3) (Arachidonate--CoA ligase) (EC 6.1.15) (Long-chain acyl-CoA synthetase 5) (LACS 5) Q9ULC5 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the conversion of long-chain fatty acids to their active form acyl-CoAs for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation (, , ). ACSL5 may activate fatty acids from exogenous sources for the synthesis of triacylglycerol destined for intracellular storage (By similarity). Utilizes a wide range of saturated fatty acids with a preference for C16-C18 unsaturated fatty acids (By similarity). It was suggested that it may also stimulate fatty acid oxidation (By similarity). At the villus tip of the crypt-villus axis of the small intestine may sensitize epithelial cells to apoptosis specifically triggered by the death ligand TRAIL. May have a role in the survival of glioma cells.

Answer 95

Acyl-coenzyme A thioesterase 11 (Acyl-CoA thioesterase 11) (EC 3.2.-) (Acyl-CoA thioester hydrolase 11) (Adipose-associated thioesterase) (Brown fat-inducible thioesterase) (BFIT) (Palmitoyl-coenzyme A thioesterase) (EC 3.2.2) Q8WXI4 FUNCTION: Has an acyl-CoA thioesterase activity with a preference for the long chain fatty acyl-CoA thioesters hexadecanoyl-CoA/palmitoyl-CoA and tetradecanoyl-CoA/myristoyl-CoA which are the main substrates in the mitochondrial beta-oxidation pathway.

Answer 96

Acidic leucine-rich nuclear phosphoprotein 32 family member E (LANP-like protein) (LANP-L) Q9BTT0 FUNCTION: Histone chaperone that specifically mediates the genome-wide removal of histone H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from the nucleosome: removes H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from its normal sites of deposition, especially from enhancer and insulator regions. Not involved in deposition of H2A.Z/H2AZ1 in the nucleosome. May stabilize the evicted H2A.Z/H2AZ1-H2B dimer, thus shifting the equilibrium towards dissociation and the off-chromatin state . Inhibits activity of protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A). Does not inhibit protein phosphatase 1. May play a role in cerebellar development and synaptogenesis.

Answer 97

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 55 kDa regulatory subunit B gamma isoform (IMYPNO1) (PP2A subunit B isoform B55-gamma) (PP2A subunit B isoform PR55-gamma) (PP2A subunit B isoform R2-gamma) (PP2A subunit B isoform gamma) Q9Y2T4 FUNCTION: The B regulatory subunit might modulate substrate selectivity and catalytic activity, and also might direct the localization of the catalytic enzyme to a particular subcellular compartment.

Answer 98

Peroxisomal succinyl-coenzyme A thioesterase (EC 3.2.3) (Acyl-coenzyme A thioesterase 4) (Acyl-CoA thioesterase 4) (EC 3.2.2) (PTE-2b) (Peroxisomal acyl coenzyme A thioester hydrolase Ib) (Peroxisomal long-chain acyl-CoA thioesterase Ib) (PTE-Ib) Q8N9L9 FUNCTION: Acyl-CoA thioesterases are a group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs to the free fatty acid and coenzyme A (CoASH), providing the potential to regulate intracellular levels of acyl-CoAs, free fatty acids and CoASH . ACOT4 is a peroxisomal succinyl-coenzyme A thioesterase can also hydrolyze glutaryl-CoA and long chain saturated acyl-CoAs .

Answer 99

Alanine and arginine-rich domain-containing protein Q4LEZ3

Answer 100

Guanine nucleotide-binding protein subunit beta-5 (Gbeta5) (Transducin beta chain 5) O14775 FUNCTION: Enhances GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity of regulator of G protein signaling (RGS) proteins, hence involved in the termination of the signaling initiated by the G protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) by accelerating the GTP hydrolysis on the G-alpha subunits, thereby promoting their inactivation (Probable). Increases RGS9 GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity, hence contributes to the deactivation of G protein signaling initiated by D(2) dopamine receptors . May play an important role in neuronal signaling, including in the parasympathetic, but not sympathetic, control of heart rate (By similarity).

Answer 101

Angiopoietin-related protein 2 (Angiopoietin-like protein 2) Q9UKU9 FUNCTION: Induces sprouting in endothelial cells through an autocrine and paracrine action. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 102

Protein ANKUB1 (Ankyrin repeat and ubiquitin domain-containing 1) A6NFN9

Answer 103

Annexin A13 (Annexin XIII) (Annexin-13) (Intestine-specific annexin) (ISA) P27216 FUNCTION: [Isoform A]: Binds to membranes enriched in phosphatidylserine or phosphatidylglycerol in a calcium-dependent manner (, ). Half-maximal membrane binding requires about 60 uM calcium. Does not bind to membranes that lack phospholipids with an acidic headgroup .

Answer 104

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 6 regulatory ankyrin repeat subunit B (PP6-ARS-B) (Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 6 regulatory subunit ARS-B) (Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 44) Q8N8A2 FUNCTION: Putative regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 6 (PP6) that may be involved in the recognition of phosphoprotein substrates.

Answer 105

Adenosine deaminase (EC 3.4.4) (Adenosine aminohydrolase) P00813 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the hydrolytic deamination of adenosine and 2-deoxyadenosine (, ). Plays an important role in purine metabolism and in adenosine homeostasis. Modulates signaling by extracellular adenosine, and so contributes indirectly to cellular signaling events. Acts as a positive regulator of T-cell coactivation, by binding DPP4 . Its interaction with DPP4 regulates lymphocyte-epithelial cell adhesion . Enhances dendritic cell immunogenicity by affecting dendritic cell costimulatory molecule expression and cytokines and chemokines secretion (By similarity). Enhances CD4+ T-cell differentiation and proliferation . Acts as a positive modulator of adenosine receptors ADORA1 and ADORA2A, by enhancing their ligand affinity via conformational change . Stimulates plasminogen activation . Plays a role in male fertility (, ). Plays a protective role in early postimplantation embryonic development (By similarity).

Answer 106

Galactoside 2-alpha-L-fucosyltransferase 1 (EC 2.1.344) (Alpha(1,2)FT 1) (Blood group H alpha 2-fucosyltransferase) (Fucosyltransferase 1) (GDP-L-fucose:beta-D-galactoside 2-alpha-L-fucosyltransferase 1) P19526 FUNCTION: Creates a soluble precursor oligosaccharide FuC-alpha ((1,2)Gal-beta-) called the H antigen which is an essential substrate for the final step in the soluble A and B antigen synthesis pathway. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus, Golgi stack membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein. Note=Membrane-bound form in trans cisternae of Golgi.

Answer 107

Galactoside 2-alpha-L-fucosyltransferase 2 (EC 2.1.344) (EC 2.1.69) (Alpha(1,2)FT 2) (Fucosyltransferase 2) (GDP-L-fucose:beta-D-galactoside 2-alpha-L-fucosyltransferase 2) (SE2) (Secretor blood group alpha-2-fucosyltransferase) (Secretor factor) (Se) Q10981 FUNCTION: Mediates the transfer of fucose to the terminal galactose on glycan chains of cell surface glycoproteins and glycolipids . The resulting epitope plays a role in cell-cell interaction including host-microbe interaction (, ). Mediates interaction with intestinal microbiota influencing its composition (, , ). Creates a soluble precursor oligosaccharide FuC-alpha ((1,2)Galbeta-) called the H antigen which is an essential substrate for the final step in the soluble ABO blood group antigen synthesis pathway . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus, Golgi stack membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein. Note=Membrane-bound form in trans cisternae of Golgi.

Answer 108

Alpha-(1,3)-fucosyltransferase 4 (EC 2.1.-) (ELAM-1 ligand fucosyltransferase) (Fucosyltransferase 4) (Fucosyltransferase IV) (Fuc-TIV) (FucT-IV) (Galactoside 3-L-fucosyltransferase) P22083 FUNCTION: May catalyze alpha-1,3 glycosidic linkages involved in the expression of Lewis X/SSEA-1 and VIM-2 antigens. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus, Golgi stack membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein. Note=Membrane-bound form in trans cisternae of Golgi.

Answer 109

F-box/LRR-repeat protein 12 (F-box and leucine-rich repeat protein 12) (F-box protein FBL12) Q9NXK8 FUNCTION: Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Mediates the polyubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of CAMK1 leading to disruption of cyclin D1/CDK4 complex assembly which results in G1 cell cycle arrest in lung epithelia.

Answer 110

Protein FAM171A1 (Astroprincin) (APCN) Q5VUB5 FUNCTION: Involved in the regulation of the cytoskeletal dynamics, plays a role in actin stress fiber formation.

Answer 111

Fatty acid hydroxylase domain-containing protein 2 Q96IV6 FUNCTION: Promotes megakaryocyte differentiation by enhancing ERK phosphorylation and up-regulating RUNX1 expression.

Answer 112

Forkhead box protein D4-like 5 (FOXD4-like 5) Q5VV16 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 113

Protein FAM229B Q4G0N7

Answer 114

Formin-binding protein 1 (Formin-binding protein 17) (hFBP17) Q96RU3 FUNCTION: May act as a link between RND2 signaling and regulation of the actin cytoskeleton (By similarity). Required to coordinate membrane tubulation with reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton during the late stage of clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Binds to lipids such as phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate and phosphatidylserine and promotes membrane invagination and the formation of tubules. Also enhances actin polymerization via the recruitment of WASL/N-WASP, which in turn activates the Arp2/3 complex. Actin polymerization may promote the fission of membrane tubules to form endocytic vesicles. May be required for the lysosomal retention of FASLG/FASL. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton. Cytoplasm, cell cortex. Lysosome. Cytoplasmic vesicle. Cell membrane; Peripheral membrane protein; Cytoplasmic side. Membrane, clathrin-coated pit. Note=Enriched in cortical regions coincident with F-actin. Also localizes to endocytic vesicles and lysosomes.

Answer 115

Protein FAM236B A0A1B0GV22

Answer 116

Formin-binding protein 4 (Formin-binding protein 30) Q8N3X1

Answer 117

Protein FAM122C Q6P4D5

Answer 118

Putative protein FAM86C2P (EC 2.1.-) A6NEL3

Answer 119

Protein farnesyltransferase/geranylgeranyltransferase type-1 subunit alpha (EC 2.1.58) (EC 2.1.59) (CAAX farnesyltransferase subunit alpha) (FTase-alpha) (Ras proteins prenyltransferase subunit alpha) (Type I protein geranyl-geranyltransferase subunit alpha) (GGTase-I-alpha) P49354 FUNCTION: Essential subunit of both the farnesyltransferase and the geranylgeranyltransferase complex. Contributes to the transfer of a farnesyl or geranylgeranyl moiety from farnesyl or geranylgeranyl diphosphate to a cysteine at the fourth position from the C-terminus of several proteins having the C-terminal sequence Cys-aliphatic-aliphatic-X. May positively regulate neuromuscular junction development downstream of MUSK via its function in RAC1 prenylation and activation.

Answer 120

Putative protein FAM90A8P A6NJQ4

Answer 121

Glycogenin-1 (GN-1) (GN1) (EC 2.1.186) P46976 FUNCTION: Self-glucosylates, via an inter-subunit mechanism, to form an oligosaccharide primer that serves as substrate for glycogen synthase.

Answer 122

Protein FAM72B Q86X60

Answer 123

Protein FAM47B Q8NA70

Answer 124

Glia maturation factor gamma (GMF-gamma) O60234

Answer 125

GMP reductase 1 (GMPR 1) (EC 1.1.7) (Guanosine 5'-monophosphate oxidoreductase 1) (Guanosine monophosphate reductase 1) P36959 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the irreversible NADPH-dependent deamination of GMP to IMP. It functions in the conversion of nucleobase, nucleoside and nucleotide derivatives of G to A nucleotides, and in maintaining the intracellular balance of A and G nucleotides.

Answer 126

Centrosomal protein of 112 kDa (Cep112) (Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 46) Q8N8E3 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, microtubule organizing center, centrosome .

Answer 127

Protein BNIP5 P0C671

Answer 128

Mast cell carboxypeptidase A (MC-CPA) (EC 3.17.1) (Carboxypeptidase A3) P15088 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasmic vesicle, secretory vesicle. Note=Secretory granules.

Answer 129

Bromodomain testis-specific protein (Cancer/testis antigen 9) (CT9) (RING3-like protein) Q58F21 FUNCTION: Testis-specific chromatin protein that specifically binds histone H4 acetylated at 'Lys-5' and 'Lys-8' (H4K5ac and H4K8ac, respectively) and plays a key role in spermatogenesis (, ). Required in late pachytene spermatocytes: plays a role in meiotic and post-meiotic cells by binding to acetylated histones at the promoter of specific meiotic and post-meiotic genes, facilitating their activation at the appropriate time . In the post-meiotic phase of spermatogenesis, binds to hyperacetylated histones and participates in their general removal from DNA . Also recognizes and binds a subset of butyrylated histones: able to bind histone H4 butyrylated at 'Lys-8' (H4K8ac), while it is not able to bind H4 butyrylated at 'Lys-5' (H4K5ac) (By similarity). Also acts as a component of the splicing machinery in pachytene spermatocytes and round spermatids and participates in 3'-UTR truncation of specific mRNAs in post-meiotic spermatids (By similarity). Required for chromocenter organization, a structure comprised of peri-centromeric heterochromatin.

Answer 130

Dual specificity protein phosphatase CDC14C (EC 3.3.16) (EC 3.3.48) (CDC14 cell division cycle 14 homolog C) A4D256 FUNCTION: Dual-specificity phosphatase. Preferentially dephosphorylates proteins modified by proline-directed kinases (By similarity).

Answer 131

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00518 Q8N0U6

Answer 132

Alpha-ketoglutarate-dependent dioxygenase alkB homolog 4 (Alkylated DNA repair protein alkB homolog 4) (DNA N6-methyl adenine demethylase ALKBH4) (EC 1.14.11.51) (Lysine-specific demethylase ALKBH4) (EC 1.14.11.-) Q9NXW9 FUNCTION: Dioxygenase that mediates demethylation of actin monomethylated at 'Lys-84' (K84me1), thereby acting as a regulator of actomyosin-processes . Demethylation of actin K84me1 is required for maintaining actomyosin dynamics supporting normal cleavage furrow ingression during cytokinesis and cell migration . In addition to proteins, also demethylates DNA: specifically demethylates DNA methylated on the 6th position of adenine (N(6)-methyladenosine) DNA, thereby regulating Polycomb silencing (By similarity).

Answer 133

Cilia- and flagella-associated protein 70 (Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 18) (TPR repeat protein 18) Q5T0N1 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell projection, cilium .

Answer 134

Cilia- and flagella-associated protein 61 Q8NHU2 FUNCTION: May regulate cilium motility through its role in the assembly of the axonemal radial spokes.

Answer 135

C2 calcium-dependent domain-containing protein 4D B7Z1M9

Answer 136

C-C motif chemokine 28 (Mucosae-associated epithelial chemokine) (MEC) (Protein CCK1) (Small-inducible cytokine A28) Q9NRJ3 FUNCTION: Chemotactic activity for resting CD4, CD8 T-cells and eosinophils. Binds to CCR3 and CCR10 and induces calcium mobilization in a dose-dependent manner. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 137

Voltage-dependent calcium channel gamma-2 subunit (Neuronal voltage-gated calcium channel gamma-2 subunit) (Transmembrane AMPAR regulatory protein gamma-2) (TARP gamma-2) Q9Y698 FUNCTION: Regulates the trafficking and gating properties of AMPA-selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by slowing their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization. Does not show subunit-specific AMPA receptor regulation and regulates all AMPAR subunits. Thought to stabilize the calcium channel in an inactivated (closed) state.

Answer 138

C-C motif chemokine 13 (CK-beta-10) (Monocyte chemoattractant protein 4) (Monocyte chemotactic protein 4) (MCP-4) (NCC-1) (Small-inducible cytokine A13) [Cleaved into: C-C motif chemokine 13, long chain; C-C motif chemokine 13, medium chain; C-C motif chemokine 13, short chain] Q99616 FUNCTION: Chemotactic factor that attracts monocytes, lymphocytes, basophils and eosinophils, but not neutrophils. Signals through CCR2B and CCR3 receptors. Plays a role in the accumulation of leukocytes at both sides of allergic and non-allergic inflammation. May be involved in the recruitment of monocytes into the arterial wall during the disease process of atherosclerosis. May play a role in the monocyte attraction in tissues chronically exposed to exogenous pathogens. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 139

Histone chaperone ASF1A (Anti-silencing function protein 1 homolog A) (hAsf1) (hAsf1a) (CCG1-interacting factor A) (CIA) (hCIA) Q9Y294 FUNCTION: Histone chaperone that facilitates histone deposition and histone exchange and removal during nucleosome assembly and disassembly. Cooperates with chromatin assembly factor 1 (CAF-1) to promote replication-dependent chromatin assembly and with HIRA to promote replication-independent chromatin assembly. Required for the formation of senescence-associated heterochromatin foci (SAHF) and efficient senescence-associated cell cycle exit.

Answer 140

A disintegrin and metalloproteinase with thrombospondin motifs 13 (ADAM-TS 13) (ADAM-TS13) (ADAMTS-13) (EC 3.24.87) (von Willebrand factor-cleaving protease) (vWF-CP) (vWF-cleaving protease) Q76LX8 FUNCTION: Cleaves the vWF multimers in plasma into smaller forms thereby controlling vWF-mediated platelet thrombus formation. Note=Secretion enhanced by O-fucosylation of TSP type-1 repeats.

Answer 141

Transcription factor COE2 (Early B-cell factor 2) (EBF-2) Q9HAK2 FUNCTION: Transcription factor that, in osteoblasts, activates the decoy receptor for RANKL, TNFRSF11B, which in turn regulates osteoclast differentiation. Acts in synergy with the Wnt-responsive LEF1/CTNNB1 pathway. Recognizes variations of the palindromic sequence 5'-ATTCCCNNGGGAATT-3' (By similarity).

Answer 142

Uncharacterized protein C1orf198 Q9H425 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 143

Bcl-2-like protein 2 (Bcl2-L-2) (Apoptosis regulator Bcl-W) Q92843 FUNCTION: Promotes cell survival. Blocks dexamethasone-induced apoptosis. Mediates survival of postmitotic Sertoli cells by suppressing death-promoting activity of BAX. Note=Loosely associated with the mitochondrial membrane in healthy cells. During apoptosis, tightly bound to the membrane.

Answer 144

Bcl-2-like protein 13 (Bcl2-L-13) (Bcl-rambo) (Protein Mil1) Q9BXK5 FUNCTION: May promote the activation of caspase-3 and apoptosis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 2]: Mitochondrion membrane .

Answer 145

Voltage-dependent L-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1F (Voltage-gated calcium channel subunit alpha Cav1.4) O60840 FUNCTION: [Isoform 1]: Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells and are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. The isoform alpha-1F gives rise to L-type calcium currents. Long-lasting (L-type) calcium channels belong to the 'high-voltage activated' (HVA) group. They are blocked by dihydropyridines (DHP), phenylalkylamines, and by benzothiazepines. Activates at more negative voltages and does not undergo calcium-dependent inactivation (CDI), due to incoming calcium ions, during depolarization. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 146

Uncharacterized protein C4orf50 Q6ZRC1

Answer 147

Cryptochrome-2 Q49AN0 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor which forms a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, ARNTL/BMAL1, ARNTL2/BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post-translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndromes and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and ARNTL/BMAL1 or ARNTL2/BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-ARNTL/BMAL1|ARNTL2/BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1/2 and RORA/B/G, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repress ARNTL/BMAL1 transcription, respectively. CRY1 and CRY2 have redundant functions but also differential and selective contributions at least in defining the pace of the SCN circadian clock and its circadian transcriptional outputs. Less potent transcriptional repressor in cerebellum and liver than CRY1, though less effective in lengthening the period of the SCN oscillator. Seems to play a critical role in tuning SCN circadian period by opposing the action of CRY1. With CRY1, dispensable for circadian rhythm generation but necessary for the development of intercellular networks for rhythm synchrony. May mediate circadian regulation of cAMP signaling and gluconeogenesis by blocking glucagon-mediated increases in intracellular cAMP concentrations and in CREB1 phosphorylation. Besides its role in the maintenance of the circadian clock, is also involved in the regulation of other processes. Plays a key role in glucose and lipid metabolism modulation, in part, through the transcriptional regulation of genes involved in these pathways, such as LEP or ACSL4. Represses glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1/GR-induced transcriptional activity by binding to glucocorticoid response elements (GREs). Represses the CLOCK-ARNTL/BMAL1 induced transcription of BHLHE40/DEC1. Represses the CLOCK-ARNTL/BMAL1 induced transcription of NAMPT (By similarity). Represses PPARD and its target genes in the skeletal muscle and limits exercise capacity (By similarity). Represses the transcriptional activity of NR1I2 (By similarity). Note=Translocated to the nucleus through interaction with other Clock proteins such as PER2 or ARNTL.

Answer 148

Arf-GAP domain and FG repeat-containing protein 2 (HIV-1 Rev-binding protein-like protein) (Rev/Rex activation domain-binding protein related) (RAB-R) O95081

Answer 149

T-cell surface glycoprotein CD8 beta chain (CD antigen CD8b) P10966 FUNCTION: Integral membrane glycoprotein that plays an essential role in the immune response and serves multiple functions in responses against both external and internal offenses. In T-cells, functions primarily as a coreceptor for MHC class I molecule:peptide complex. The antigens presented by class I peptides are derived from cytosolic proteins while class II derived from extracellular proteins. Interacts simultaneously with the T-cell receptor (TCR) and the MHC class I proteins presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). In turn, recruits the Src kinase LCK to the vicinity of the TCR-CD3 complex. A palmitoylation site in the cytoplasmic tail of CD8B chain contributes to partitioning of CD8 into the plasma membrane lipid rafts where signaling proteins are enriched. Once LCK recruited, it initiates different intracellular signaling pathways by phosphorylating various substrates ultimately leading to lymphokine production, motility, adhesion and activation of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). Additionally, plays a critical role in thymic selection of CD8+ T-cells.

Answer 150

Voltage-dependent L-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1D (Calcium channel, L type, alpha-1 polypeptide, isoform 2) (Voltage-gated calcium channel subunit alpha Cav1.3) Q01668 FUNCTION: Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells and are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. The isoform alpha-1D gives rise to L-type calcium currents. Long-lasting (L-type) calcium channels belong to the 'high-voltage activated' (HVA) group. They are blocked by dihydropyridines (DHP), phenylalkylamines, and by benzothiazepines.

Answer 151

Transcription regulator protein BACH1 (BTB and CNC homolog 1) (HA2303) O14867 FUNCTION: Transcriptional regulator that acts as repressor or activator, depending on the context. Binds to NF-E2 DNA binding sites. Play important roles in coordinating transcription activation and repression by MAFK (By similarity). Together with MAF, represses the transcription of genes under the control of the NFE2L2 oxidative stress pathway .

Answer 152

Cell adhesion molecule 2 (Immunoglobulin superfamily member 4D) (IgSF4D) (Nectin-like protein 3) (NECL-3) (Synaptic cell adhesion molecule 2) (SynCAM 2) Q8N3J6 FUNCTION: Adhesion molecule that engages in homo- and heterophilic interactions with the other nectin-like family members, leading to cell aggregation. Important for synapse organization, providing regulated trans-synaptic adhesion. Preferentially binds to oligodendrocytes. Note=Found in the axoplasm of myelinated axons.

Answer 153

Carbonic anhydrase 13 (EC 4.1.1) (Carbonate dehydratase XIII) (Carbonic anhydrase XIII) (CA-XIII) Q8N1Q1 FUNCTION: Reversible hydration of carbon dioxide.

Answer 154

Adhesion G protein-coupled receptor E1 (EGF-like module receptor 1) (EGF-like module-containing mucin-like hormone receptor-like 1) (EMR1 hormone receptor) Q14246 FUNCTION: Orphan receptor involved in cell adhesion and probably in cell-cell interactions specifically involving cells of the immune system. May play a role in regulatory T-cells (Treg) development.

Answer 155

Cadherin-related family member 4 (Cadherin-like protein 29) A6H8M9 FUNCTION: Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types (By similarity).

Answer 156

Calmodulin-regulated spectrin-associated protein 1 Q5T5Y3 FUNCTION: Key microtubule-organizing protein that specifically binds the minus-end of non-centrosomal microtubules and regulates their dynamics and organization (, , , , ). Specifically recognizes growing microtubule minus-ends and stabilizes microtubules (, ). Acts on free microtubule minus-ends that are not capped by microtubule-nucleating proteins or other factors and protects microtubule minus-ends from depolymerization (, ). In contrast to CAMSAP2 and CAMSAP3, tracks along the growing tips of minus-end microtubules without significantly affecting the polymerization rate: binds at the very tip of the microtubules minus-end and acts as a minus-end tracking protein (-TIP) that dissociates from microtubules after allowing tubulin incorporation (, ). Through interaction with spectrin may regulate neurite outgrowth .

Answer 157

Dual specificity protein kinase CLK1 (EC 2.12.1) (CDC-like kinase 1) P49759 FUNCTION: Dual specificity kinase acting on both serine/threonine and tyrosine-containing substrates. Phosphorylates serine- and arginine-rich (SR) proteins of the spliceosomal complex and may be a constituent of a network of regulatory mechanisms that enable SR proteins to control RNA splicing. Phosphorylates: SRSF1, SRSF3 and PTPN1. Regulates the alternative splicing of tissue factor (F3) pre-mRNA in endothelial cells and adenovirus E1A pre-mRNA. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 158

Chordin Q9H2X0 FUNCTION: Dorsalizing factor. Key developmental protein that dorsalizes early vertebrate embryonic tissues by binding to ventralizing TGF-beta family bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) and sequestering them in latent complexes (By similarity).

Answer 159

Chemokine-like receptor 1 (G-protein coupled receptor ChemR23) (G-protein coupled receptor DEZ) Q99788 FUNCTION: Receptor for the chemoattractant adipokine chemerin/RARRES2 and for the omega-3 fatty acid derived molecule resolvin E1. Interaction with RARRES2 induces activation of intracellular signaling molecules, such as SKY, MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2), MAPK14/P38MAPK and PI3K leading to multifunctional effects, like, reduction of immune responses, enhancing of adipogenesis and angionesis. Resolvin E1 down-regulates cytokine production in macrophages by reducing the activation of MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) and NF-kappa-B. Positively regulates adipogenesis and adipocyte metabolism. Acts as a coreceptor for several SIV strains (SIVMAC316, SIVMAC239, SIVMACL7E-FR and SIVSM62A), as well as a primary HIV-1 strain (92UG024-2).

Answer 160

Chromatin target of PRMT1 protein (Friend of PRMT1 protein) (Small arginine- and glycine-rich protein) (SRAG) Q9Y3Y2 FUNCTION: Plays an important role in the ligand-dependent activation of estrogen receptor target genes . May play a role in the silencing of fetal globin genes . Recruits the 5FMC complex to ZNF148, leading to desumoylation of ZNF148 and subsequent transactivation of ZNF148 target genes (By similarity). Plays an important role in the tumorigenicity of glioblastoma cells. Binds to 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and associates with the methylosome complex containing PRMT1, PRMT5, MEP50 and ERH. The CHTOP-methylosome complex associated with 5hmC is recruited to selective sites on the chromosome, where it methylates H4R3 and activates the transcription of genes involved in glioblastomagenesis .

Answer 161

C-type lectin domain family 4 member C (Blood dendritic cell antigen 2) (BDCA-2) (C-type lectin superfamily member 7) (Dendritic lectin) (CD antigen CD303) Q8WTT0 FUNCTION: Lectin-type cell surface receptor which may play a role in antigen capturing by dendritic cells (, , ). Specifically recognizes non-sialylated galactose-terminated biantennary glycans containing the trisaccharide epitope Gal(beta1-3/4)GlcNAc(beta1-2)Man (, ). Binds to serum IgG . Efficiently targets ligand into antigen-processing and peptide-loading compartments for presentation to T-cells . May mediate potent inhibition of induction of IFN-alpha/beta expression in plasmacytoid dendritic cells (, ). May act as a signaling receptor that activates protein-tyrosine kinases and mobilizes intracellular calcium .

Answer 162

Calpain small subunit 1 (CSS1) (Calcium-activated neutral proteinase small subunit) (CANP small subunit) (Calcium-dependent protease small subunit) (CDPS) (Calcium-dependent protease small subunit 1) (Calpain regulatory subunit) P04632 FUNCTION: Regulatory subunit of the calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease which catalyzes limited proteolysis of substrates involved in cytoskeletal remodeling and signal transduction. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 163

ADAMTS-like protein 3 (ADAMTSL-3) (Punctin-2) P82987 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix .

Answer 164

Atlastin-1 (EC 3.5.-) (Brain-specific GTP-binding protein) (GTP-binding protein 3) (GBP-3) (hGBP3) (Guanine nucleotide-binding protein 3) (Spastic paraplegia 3 protein A) Q8WXF7 FUNCTION: GTPase tethering membranes through formation of trans-homooligomers and mediating homotypic fusion of endoplasmic reticulum membranes. Functions in endoplasmic reticulum tubular network biogenesis . May also regulate Golgi biogenesis. May regulate axonal development.

Answer 165

Coiled-coil-helix-coiled-coil-helix domain-containing protein 7 Q9BUK0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion intermembrane space .

Answer 166

Chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein 1 (CHD-1) (EC 3.4.12) (ATP-dependent helicase CHD1) O14646 FUNCTION: ATP-dependent chromatin-remodeling factor which functions as substrate recognition component of the transcription regulatory histone acetylation (HAT) complex SAGA. Regulates polymerase II transcription. Also required for efficient transcription by RNA polymerase I, and more specifically the polymerase I transcription termination step. Regulates negatively DNA replication. Not only involved in transcription-related chromatin-remodeling, but also required to maintain a specific chromatin configuration across the genome. Is also associated with histone deacetylase (HDAC) activity (By similarity). Required for the bridging of SNF2, the FACT complex, the PAF complex as well as the U2 snRNP complex to H3K4me3. Functions to modulate the efficiency of pre-mRNA splicing in part through physical bridging of spliceosomal components to H3K4me3 (, ). Required for maintaining open chromatin and pluripotency in embryonic stem cells (By similarity).

Answer 167

Claudin-12 P56749 FUNCTION: Plays a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity.

Answer 168

Protein AMN1 homolog Q8IY45

Answer 169

H(+)/Cl(-) exchange transporter 4 (Chloride channel protein 4) (ClC-4) (Chloride transporter ClC-4) P51793 FUNCTION: Proton-coupled chloride transporter. Functions as antiport system and exchanges chloride ions against protons.

Answer 170

Putative uncharacterized protein LINC02693 A8MQB3

Answer 171

Protein atonal homolog 7 (Class A basic helix-loop-helix protein 13) (bHLHa13) (Helix-loop-helix protein hATH-5) (hATH5) Q8N100 FUNCTION: Transcription factor involved in the differentiation of retinal ganglion cells.

Answer 172

Mitochondrial inner membrane protease ATP23 homolog (EC 3.24.-) (Ku70-binding protein 3) (XRCC6-binding protein 1) Q9Y6H3

Answer 173

Protein amnionless [Cleaved into: Soluble protein amnionless] Q9BXJ7 FUNCTION: Membrane-bound component of the endocytic receptor formed by AMN and CUBN (, , ). Required for normal CUBN glycosylation and trafficking to the cell surface (, ). The complex formed by AMN and CUBN is required for efficient absorption of vitamin B12 (, , ). Required for normal CUBN-mediated protein transport in the kidney (Probable).

Answer 174

Uncharacterized protein C17orf47 Q8NEP4

Answer 175

Claudin-1 (Senescence-associated epithelial membrane protein) O95832 FUNCTION: Claudins function as major constituents of the tight junction complexes that regulate the permeability of epithelia. While some claudin family members play essential roles in the formation of impermeable barriers, others mediate the permeability to ions and small molecules. Often, several claudin family members are coexpressed and interact with each other, and this determines the overall permeability. CLDN1 is required to prevent the paracellular diffusion of small molecules through tight junctions in the epidermis and is required for the normal barrier function of the skin. Required for normal water homeostasis and to prevent excessive water loss through the skin, probably via an indirect effect on the expression levels of other proteins, since CLDN1 itself seems to be dispensable for water barrier formation in keratinocyte tight junctions .

Answer 176

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00526 Q96FQ7

Answer 177

Putative uncharacterized protein CRYM-AS1 (CRYM antisense RNA 1) (CRYM antisense gene protein 1) A6NIL9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 178

ATP synthase subunit e, mitochondrial (ATPase subunit e) (ATP synthase membrane subunit e) [Cleaved into: ATP synthase subunit e, mitochondrial, N-terminally processed] P56385 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain. Minor subunit located with subunit a in the membrane. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion. Mitochondrion inner membrane.

Answer 179

Alpha-2-macroglobulin-like protein 1 (C3 and PZP-like alpha-2-macroglobulin domain-containing protein 9) A8K2U0 FUNCTION: Is able to inhibit all four classes of proteinases by a unique 'trapping' mechanism. This protein has a peptide stretch, called the 'bait region' which contains specific cleavage sites for different proteinases. When a proteinase cleaves the bait region, a conformational change is induced in the protein which traps the proteinase. The entrapped enzyme remains active against low molecular weight substrates (activity against high molecular weight substrates is greatly reduced). Following cleavage in the bait region a thioester bond is hydrolyzed and mediates the covalent binding of the protein to the proteinase (By similarity). Displays inhibitory activity against chymotrypsin, papain, thermolysin, subtilisin A and, to a lesser extent, elastase but not trypsin. May play an important role during desquamation by inhibiting extracellular proteases.

Answer 180

14-3-3 protein zeta/delta (Protein kinase C inhibitor protein 1) (KCIP-1) P63104 FUNCTION: Adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Binds to a large number of partners, usually by recognition of a phosphoserine or phosphothreonine motif. Binding generally results in the modulation of the activity of the binding partner. Induces ARHGEF7 activity on RAC1 as well as lamellipodia and membrane ruffle formation . In neurons, regulates spine maturation through the modulation of ARHGEF7 activity (By similarity). Note=Located to stage I to stage IV melanosomes.

Answer 181

Neutral amino acid transporter B(0) (ATB(0)) (Baboon M7 virus receptor) (RD114/simian type D retrovirus receptor) (Sodium-dependent neutral amino acid transporter type 2) (Solute carrier family 1 member 5) Q15758 FUNCTION: Sodium-dependent amino acids transporter that has a broad substrate specificity, with a preference for zwitterionic amino acids. It accepts as substrates all neutral amino acids, including glutamine, asparagine, and branched-chain and aromatic amino acids, and excludes methylated, anionic, and cationic amino acids (, ). Through binding of the fusogenic protein syncytin-1/ERVW-1 may mediate trophoblasts syncytialization, the spontaneous fusion of their plasma membranes, an essential process in placental development (, ). Melanosome. Note=Identified by mass spectrometry in melanosome fractions from stage I to stage IV.

Answer 182

14-3-3 protein sigma (Epithelial cell marker protein 1) (Stratifin) P31947 FUNCTION: Adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Binds to a large number of partners, usually by recognition of a phosphoserine or phosphothreonine motif. Binding generally results in the modulation of the activity of the binding partner. When bound to KRT17, regulates protein synthesis and epithelial cell growth by stimulating Akt/mTOR pathway. May also regulate MDM2 autoubiquitination and degradation and thereby activate p53/TP53. Secreted. Note=May be secreted by a non-classical secretory pathway.

Answer 183

Atypical chemokine receptor 4 (C-C chemokine receptor type 11) (C-C CKR-11) (CC-CKR-11) (CCR-11) (CC chemokine receptor-like 1) (CCRL1) (CCX CKR) Q9NPB9 FUNCTION: Atypical chemokine receptor that controls chemokine levels and localization via high-affinity chemokine binding that is uncoupled from classic ligand-driven signal transduction cascades, resulting instead in chemokine sequestration, degradation, or transcytosis. Also known as interceptor (internalizing receptor) or chemokine-scavenging receptor or chemokine decoy receptor. Acts as a receptor for chemokines CCL2, CCL8, CCL13, CCL19, CCL21 and CCL25. Chemokine-binding does not activate G-protein-mediated signal transduction but instead induces beta-arrestin recruitment, leading to ligand internalization. Plays an important role in controlling the migration of immune and cancer cells that express chemokine receptors CCR7 and CCR9, by reducing the availability of CCL19, CCL21, and CCL25 through internalization. Negatively regulates CXCR3-induced chemotaxis. Regulates T-cell development in the thymus. Note=Predominantly localizes to endocytic vesicles, and upon stimulation by the ligand is internalized via caveolae. Once internalized, the ligand dissociates from the receptor, and is targeted to degradation while the receptor is recycled back to the cell membrane.

Answer 184

Acidic leucine-rich nuclear phosphoprotein 32 family member D (Phosphoprotein 32-related protein 2) (Tumorigenic protein pp32r2) O95626

Answer 185

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A 56 kDa regulatory subunit gamma isoform (PP2A B subunit isoform B'-gamma) (PP2A B subunit isoform B56-gamma) (PP2A B subunit isoform PR61-gamma) (PP2A B subunit isoform R5-gamma) (Renal carcinoma antigen NY-REN-29) Q13362 FUNCTION: The B regulatory subunit might modulate substrate selectivity and catalytic activity, and also might direct the localization of the catalytic enzyme to a particular subcellular compartment. The PP2A-PPP2R5C holoenzyme may specifically dephosphorylate and activate TP53 and play a role in DNA damage-induced inhibition of cell proliferation. PP2A-PPP2R5C may also regulate the ERK signaling pathway through ERK dephosphorylation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Chromosome, centromere.

Answer 186

Abscission/NoCut checkpoint regulator (ANCHR) (MLL partner containing FYVE domain) (Zinc finger FYVE domain-containing protein 19) Q96K21 FUNCTION: Key regulator of abscission step in cytokinesis: part of the cytokinesis checkpoint, a process required to delay abscission to prevent both premature resolution of intercellular chromosome bridges and accumulation of DNA damage. Together with CHMP4C, required to retain abscission-competent VPS4 (VPS4A and/or VPS4B) at the midbody ring until abscission checkpoint signaling is terminated at late cytokinesis. Deactivation of AURKB results in dephosphorylation of CHMP4C followed by its dissociation from ZFYVE19/ANCHR and VPS4 and subsequent abscission.

Answer 187

Long-chain-fatty-acid--CoA ligase 1 (EC 6.1.3) (Acyl-CoA synthetase 1) (ACS1) (Arachidonate--CoA ligase) (EC 6.1.15) (Long-chain acyl-CoA synthetase 1) (LACS 1) (Long-chain acyl-CoA synthetase 2) (LACS 2) (Long-chain fatty acid-CoA ligase 2) (Palmitoyl-CoA ligase 1) (Palmitoyl-CoA ligase 2) (Phytanate--CoA ligase) (EC 6.1.24) P33121 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the conversion of long-chain fatty acids to their active form acyl-CoAs for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation (, ). Preferentially uses palmitoleate, oleate and linoleate . Preferentially activates arachidonate than epoxyeicosatrienoic acids (EETs) or hydroxyeicosatrienoic acids (HETEs) (By similarity).

Answer 188

Crooked neck-like protein 1 (Crooked neck homolog) (hCrn) Q9BZJ0 FUNCTION: Involved in pre-mRNA splicing process.

Answer 189

Alpha-aminoadipic semialdehyde synthase, mitochondrial (LKR/SDH) [Includes: Lysine ketoglutarate reductase (LKR) (LOR) (EC 1.1.8); Saccharopine dehydrogenase (SDH) (EC 1.1.9)] Q9UDR5 FUNCTION: Bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the first two steps in lysine degradation. The N-terminal and the C-terminal contain lysine-ketoglutarate reductase and saccharopine dehydrogenase activity, respectively. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 190

Cysteine-rich PAK1 inhibitor (CRIPak) Q8N1N5 FUNCTION: Negative regulator of PAK1. It has been suggested that the lost of CRIPAK in breast tumors might contribute to hormonal independence. Note=Translocated to the nuclear compartment upon hormonal treatment by estrogen.

Answer 191

Acylamino-acid-releasing enzyme (AARE) (EC 3.19.1) (Acyl-peptide hydrolase) (APH) (Acylaminoacyl-peptidase) (Oxidized protein hydrolase) (OPH) P13798 FUNCTION: This enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of the N-terminal peptide bond of an N-acetylated peptide to generate an N-acetylated amino acid and a peptide with a free N-terminus. It preferentially cleaves off Ac-Ala, Ac-Met and Ac-Ser. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm.

Answer 192

Acyl carrier protein, mitochondrial (ACP) (CI-SDAP) (NADH-ubiquinone oxidoreductase 9.6 kDa subunit) O14561 FUNCTION: Carrier of the growing fatty acid chain in fatty acid biosynthesis (By similarity). Accessory and non-catalytic subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), which functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain .

Answer 193

Protein angel homolog 1 Q9UNK9

Answer 194

Actin-like protein 8 (Cancer/testis antigen 57) (CT57) Q9H568 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton .

Answer 195

DNA-3-methyladenine glycosylase (EC 3.2.21) (3-alkyladenine DNA glycosylase) (3-methyladenine DNA glycosidase) (ADPG) (N-methylpurine-DNA glycosylase) P29372 FUNCTION: Hydrolysis of the deoxyribose N-glycosidic bond to excise 3-methyladenine, and 7-methylguanine from the damaged DNA polymer formed by alkylation lesions. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 196

Adenine nucleotide translocase lysine N-methyltransferase (ANT-KMT) (EC 2.1.-) Q9BQD7 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial protein-lysine N-methyltransferase that trimethylates adenine nucleotide translocases ANT2/SLC25A5 and ANT3/SLC25A6, thereby regulating mitochondrial respiration . Probably also trimethylates ANT1/SLC25A4 .

Answer 197

ATP-binding cassette sub-family A member 2 (ATP-binding cassette transporter 2) (ATP-binding cassette 2) Q9BZC7 FUNCTION: Probable transporter, its natural substrate has not been found yet. May have a role in macrophage lipid metabolism and neural development. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endosome membrane .

Answer 198

ATP-binding cassette sub-family A member 8 O94911 FUNCTION: ATP-dependent lipophilic drug transporter.

Answer 199

Phospholipid-transporting ATPase ABCA1 (EC 7.2.1) (ATP-binding cassette sub-family A member 1) (ATP-binding cassette transporter 1) (ABC-1) (ATP-binding cassette 1) (Cholesterol efflux regulatory protein) O95477 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the translocation of specific phospholipids from the cytoplasmic to the extracellular/lumenal leaflet of membrane coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP . Thereby, participates to phospholipids transfer to apoliproteins to form nascent high density lipoproteins/HDLs . Transports preferentially phosphatidylcholine over phosphatidylserine . May play a similar role in the efflux of intracellular cholesterol to apoliproteins and the formation of nascent high density lipoproteins/HDLs (, , ).

Answer 200

Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4E-binding protein 3 (4E-BP3) (eIF4E-binding protein 3) O60516 FUNCTION: Repressor of translation initiation that regulates EIF4E activity by preventing its assembly into the eIF4F complex: hypophosphorylated form competes with EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and strongly binds to EIF4E, leading to repress translation. In contrast, hyperphosphorylated form dissociates from EIF4E, allowing interaction between EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and EIF4E, leading to initiation of translation.

Answer 201

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 6 regulatory ankyrin repeat subunit A (PP6-ARS-A) (Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 6 regulatory subunit ARS-A) (Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 28) (Phosphatase interactor targeting protein hnRNP K) (PITK) O15084 FUNCTION: Putative regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 6 (PP6) that may be involved in the recognition of phosphoprotein substrates. Involved in the PP6-mediated dephosphorylation of NFKBIE opposing its degradation in response to TNF-alpha. Selectively inhibits the phosphatase activity of PPP1C. Targets PPP1C to modulate HNRPK phosphorylation. Note=Seems to be excluded from nucleoli.

Answer 202

Ankyrin repeat and sterile alpha motif domain-containing protein 1B (Amyloid-beta protein intracellular domain-associated protein 1) (AIDA-1) (E2A-PBX1-associated protein) (EB-1) Q7Z6G8 FUNCTION: Isoform 2 may participate in the regulation of nucleoplasmic coilin protein interactions in neuronal and transformed cells.; FUNCTION: Isoform 3 can regulate global protein synthesis by altering nucleolar numbers.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 4]: Nucleus. Note=The interaction with APP causes its partial exclusion from the nucleus, when APP is overexpressed.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 6]: Nucleus.

Answer 203

Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 61 A6NGH8

Answer 204

7,8-dihydro-8-oxoguanine triphosphatase (EC 3.1.55) (2-hydroxy-dATP diphosphatase) (EC 3.1.56) (8-oxo-dGTPase) (Nucleoside diphosphate-linked moiety X motif 1) (Nudix motif 1) P36639 FUNCTION: Antimutagenic (, , ). Plays a redundant role in sanitizing oxidized nucleotide pools, such as 8-oxo-dGTP pools . Acts as a sanitizing enzyme for oxidized nucleotide pools, thus suppressing cell dysfunction and death induced by oxidative stress (, , ). Hydrolyzes 8-oxo-dGTP, 8-oxo-dATP and 2-OH-dATP, thus preventing misincorporation of oxidized purine nucleoside triphosphates into DNA and subsequently preventing A:T to C:G and G:C to T:A transversions (, , , , , , , , , ). Able to hydrolyze also the corresponding ribonucleotides, 2-OH-ATP, 8-oxo-GTP and 8-oxo-ATP (, ). Does not play a role in U8 snoRNA decapping activity. Binds U8 snoRNA (By similarity).

Answer 205

7-methylguanosine phosphate-specific 5'-nucleotidase (7-methylguanosine nucleotidase) (EC 3.3.91) (Cytosolic 5'-nucleotidase 3B) (Cytosolic 5'-nucleotidase III-like protein) (cN-III-like protein) (EC 3.3.5) (N(7)-methylguanylate 5'-phosphatase) Q969T7 FUNCTION: Specifically hydrolyzes 7-methylguanosine monophosphate (m(7)GMP) to 7-methylguanosine and inorganic phosphate (, ). The specific activity for m(7)GMP may protect cells against undesired salvage of m(7)GMP and its incorporation into nucleic acids . Also has weak activity for CMP (, ). UMP and purine nucleotides are poor substrates .

Answer 206

Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 49 (Fetal globin-inducing factor) Q8WVL7 FUNCTION: Induces HBG1 expression (, ). May have a role in spermatogenesis where it promotes autophagy in response to serum starvation, via the NF-kappaB pathway (By similarity).

Answer 207

Protein FAM71B Q8TC56 FUNCTION: May be involved in RNA biogenesis. Note=Cajal body and speckle localization.

Answer 208

Protein FAM87A P0C7U9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 209

Protein FAM50B (Protein XAP-5-like) Q9Y247

Answer 210

Fanconi anemia group E protein (Protein FACE) Q9HB96 FUNCTION: As part of the Fanconi anemia (FA) complex functions in DNA cross-links repair. Required for the nuclear accumulation of FANCC and provides a critical bridge between the FA complex and FANCD2.

Answer 211

Protein FAM43A Q8N2R8

Answer 212

Dual serine/threonine and tyrosine protein kinase (EC 2.12.1) (Dusty protein kinase) (Dusty PK) (RIP-homologous kinase) (Receptor-interacting serine/threonine-protein kinase 5) (Sugen kinase 496) (SgK496) Q6XUX3 FUNCTION: Acts as a positive regulator of ERK phosphorylation downstream of fibroblast growth factor-receptor activation (, ). Involved in the regulation of both caspase-dependent apoptosis and caspase-independent cell death . In the skin, it plays a predominant role in suppressing caspase-dependent apoptosis in response to UV stress in a range of dermal cell types .

Answer 213

Cathepsin W (EC 3.22.-) (Lymphopain) P56202 FUNCTION: May have a specific function in the mechanism or regulation of T-cell cytolytic activity.; FUNCTION: (Microbial infection) Plays a role during influenza virus infection in lungs cells ex vivo. Acts at the level of virus entering host cytoplasm from late endosome.

Answer 214

Cdc42 effector protein 3 (Binder of Rho GTPases 2) (MSE55-related Cdc42-binding protein) Q9UKI2 FUNCTION: Probably involved in the organization of the actin cytoskeleton. May act downstream of CDC42 to induce actin filament assembly leading to cell shape changes. Induces pseudopodia formation in fibroblasts.

Answer 215

Uncharacterized protein C5orf67 F2Z3F1

Answer 216

Putative BPES syndrome breakpoint region protein (BPES candidate 1) Q9GZL8

Answer 217

A-kinase anchor protein 4 (AKAP-4) (A-kinase anchor protein 82 kDa) (AKAP 82) (hAKAP82) (Major sperm fibrous sheath protein) (HI) (Protein kinase A-anchoring protein 4) (PRKA4) Q5JQC9 FUNCTION: Major structural component of sperm fibrous sheath. Plays a role in sperm motility. Note=Localizes to the principle piece of the sperm flagellum.

Answer 218

Coatomer subunit alpha (Alpha-coat protein) (Alpha-COP) (HEP-COP) (HEPCOP) [Cleaved into: Xenin (Xenopsin-related peptide); Proxenin] P53621 FUNCTION: The coatomer is a cytosolic protein complex that binds to dilysine motifs and reversibly associates with Golgi non-clathrin-coated vesicles, which further mediate biosynthetic protein transport from the ER, via the Golgi up to the trans Golgi network. Coatomer complex is required for budding from Golgi membranes, and is essential for the retrograde Golgi-to-ER transport of dilysine-tagged proteins. In mammals, the coatomer can only be recruited by membranes associated to ADP-ribosylation factors (ARFs), which are small GTP-binding proteins; the complex also influences the Golgi structural integrity, as well as the processing, activity, and endocytic recycling of LDL receptors (By similarity).

Answer 219

Bone morphogenetic protein 8B (BMP-8) (BMP-8B) (Osteogenic protein 2) (OP-2) P34820 FUNCTION: Induces cartilage and bone formation. May be the osteoinductive factor responsible for the phenomenon of epithelial osteogenesis. Plays a role in calcium regulation and bone homeostasis (By similarity).

Answer 220

Bactericidal permeability-increasing protein (BPI) (CAP 57) P17213 FUNCTION: The cytotoxic action of BPI is limited to many species of Gram-negative bacteria; this specificity may be explained by a strong affinity of the very basic N-terminal half for the negatively charged lipopolysaccharides that are unique to the Gram-negative bacterial outer envelope. Has antibacterial activity against the Gram-negative bacterium P.aeruginosa, this activity is inhibited by LPS from P.aeruginosa.

Answer 221

Cerebellar degeneration-related antigen 1 (CDR34) P51861

Answer 222

Cullin-associated NEDD8-dissociated protein 1 (Cullin-associated and neddylation-dissociated protein 1) (TBP-interacting protein of 120 kDa A) (TBP-interacting protein 120A) (p120 CAND1) Q86VP6 FUNCTION: Key assembly factor of SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complexes that promotes the exchange of the substrate-recognition F-box subunit in SCF complexes, thereby playing a key role in the cellular repertoire of SCF complexes. Acts as a F-box protein exchange factor. The exchange activity of CAND1 is coupled with cycles of neddylation conjugation: in the deneddylated state, cullin-binding CAND1 binds CUL1-RBX1, increasing dissociation of the SCF complex and promoting exchange of the F-box protein. Probably plays a similar role in other cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase complexes. Note=Predominantly cytoplasmic.

Answer 223

ARL14 effector protein (ARF7 effector protein) Q8N8R7 FUNCTION: Through its interaction with ARL14 and MYO1E, may connect MHC class II-containing cytoplasmic vesicles to the actin network and hence controls the movement of these vesicles along the actin cytoskeleton in dendritic cells.

Answer 224

Centromere protein X (CENP-X) (FANCM-associated histone fold protein 2) (FANCM-interacting histone fold protein 2) (Fanconi anemia-associated polypeptide of 10 kDa) (Retinoic acid-inducible gene D9 protein homolog) (Stimulated by retinoic acid gene 13 protein homolog) A8MT69 FUNCTION: DNA-binding component of the Fanconi anemia (FA) core complex. Required for the normal activation of the FA pathway, leading to monoubiquitination of the FANCI-FANCD2 complex in response to DNA damage, cellular resistance to DNA cross-linking drugs, and prevention of chromosomal breakage (, ). In complex with CENPS (MHF heterodimer), crucial cofactor for FANCM in both binding and ATP-dependent remodeling of DNA. Stabilizes FANCM. In complex with CENPS and FANCM (but not other FANC proteins), rapidly recruited to blocked forks and promotes gene conversion at blocked replication forks (, ). In complex with CENPS, CENPT and CENPW (CENP-T-W-S-X heterotetramer), involved in the formation of a functional kinetochore outer plate, which is essential for kinetochore-microtubule attachment and faithful mitotic progression . As a component of MHF and CENP-T-W-S-X complexes, binds DNA and bends it to form a nucleosome-like structure (, ). DNA-binding function is fulfilled in the presence of CENPS, with the following preference for DNA substates: Holliday junction > double-stranded > splay arm > single-stranded. Does not bind DNA on its own .

Answer 225

Cadherin EGF LAG seven-pass G-type receptor 3 (Cadherin family member 11) (Epidermal growth factor-like protein 1) (EGF-like protein 1) (Flamingo homolog 1) (hFmi1) (Multiple epidermal growth factor-like domains protein 2) (Multiple EGF-like domains protein 2) Q9NYQ7 FUNCTION: Receptor that may have an important role in cell/cell signaling during nervous system formation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 226

ADP-ribosylation factor-like protein 10 Q8N8L6

Answer 227

ADP-dependent glucokinase (ADP-GK) (ADPGK) (EC 2.1.147) (RbBP-35) Q9BRR6 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the phosphorylation of D-glucose to D-glucose 6-phosphate using ADP as the phosphate donor. GDP and CDP can replace ADP, but with reduced efficiency (By similarity).

Answer 228

Brain-specific angiogenesis inhibitor 1-associated protein 2-like protein 2 (BAI1-associated protein 2-like protein 2) (Planar intestinal- and kidney-specific BAR domain protein) (Pinkbar) Q6UXY1 FUNCTION: Phosphoinositides-binding protein that induces the formation of planar or gently curved membrane structures. Binds to phosphoinositides, including to phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2) headgroups. There seems to be no clear preference for a specific phosphoinositide (By similarity). Note=Localizes to RAB13-positive vesicles and to the plasma membrane at intercellular contacts.

Answer 229

Protein ADM2 (Intermedin) [Cleaved into: Adrenomedullin-2 (AM2) (Intermedin-long) (IMDL); Intermedin-short (IMDS)] Q7Z4H4 FUNCTION: [Adrenomedullin-2]: May play a role as physiological regulators of gastrointestinal, cardiovascular bioactivities mediated by the CALCRL/RAMPs receptor complexes. Activates the cAMP-dependent pathway. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 230

CASP8-associated protein 2 (FLICE-associated huge protein) Q9UKL3 FUNCTION: Participates in TNF-alpha-induced blockade of glucocorticoid receptor (GR) transactivation at the nuclear receptor coactivator level, upstream and independently of NF-kappa-B. Suppresses both NCOA2- and NCOA3-induced enhancement of GR transactivation. Involved in TNF-alpha-induced activation of NF-kappa-B via a TRAF2-dependent pathway. Acts as a downstream mediator for CASP8-induced activation of NF-kappa-B. Required for the activation of CASP8 in FAS-mediated apoptosis. Required for histone gene transcription and progression through S phase. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus. Nucleus, PML body. Mitochondrion. Note=Exported from the nucleus to the mitochondria upon FAS activation.

Answer 231

Afamin (Alpha-albumin) (Alpha-Alb) P43652 FUNCTION: Functions as carrier for hydrophobic molecules in body fluids (Probable). Essential for the solubility and activity of lipidated Wnt family members, including WNT1, WNT2B, WNT3, WNT3A, WNT5A, WNT7A, WNT7B, WNT8, WNT9A, WNT9B, WNT10A and WNT10B . Binds vitamin E (, ). May transport vitamin E in body fluids under conditions where the lipoprotein system is not sufficient . May be involved in the transport of vitamin E across the blood-brain barrier .

Answer 232

Arf-GAP with GTPase, ANK repeat and PH domain-containing protein 2 (AGAP-2) (Centaurin-gamma-1) (Cnt-g1) (GTP-binding and GTPase-activating protein 2) (GGAP2) (Phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase enhancer) (PIKE) Q99490 FUNCTION: GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for ARF1 and ARF5, which also shows strong GTPase activity. Isoform 1 participates in the prevention of neuronal apoptosis by enhancing PI3 kinase activity. It aids the coupling of metabotropic glutamate receptor 1 (GRM1) to cytoplasmic PI3 kinase by interacting with Homer scaffolding proteins, and also seems to mediate anti-apoptotic effects of NGF by activating nuclear PI3 kinase. Isoform 2 does not stimulate PI3 kinase but may protect cells from apoptosis by stimulating Akt. It also regulates the adapter protein 1 (AP-1)-dependent trafficking of proteins in the endosomal system. It seems to be oncogenic. It is overexpressed in cancer cells, prevents apoptosis and promotes cancer cell invasion. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Cytoplasm. Nucleus.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 2]: Cytoplasm.

Answer 233

Cartilage-associated protein O75718 FUNCTION: Necessary for efficient 3-hydroxylation of fibrillar collagen prolyl residues.

Answer 234

Alpha-crystallin A chain (Heat shock protein beta-4) (HspB4) [Cleaved into: Alpha-crystallin A(1-172); Alpha-crystallin A(1-168); Alpha-crystallin A(1-162)] P02489 FUNCTION: Contributes to the transparency and refractive index of the lens . Has chaperone-like activity, preventing aggregation of various proteins under a wide range of stress conditions . Required for the correct formation of lens intermediate filaments as part of a complex composed of BFSP1, BFSP2 and CRYAA . Note=Translocates to the nucleus during heat shock and resides in sub-nuclear structures known as SC35 speckles or nuclear splicing speckles.

Answer 235

Uncharacterized protein C19orf71 A6NCJ1

Answer 236

Cancer-associated gene 1 protein (CAGE-1) (Cancer/testis antigen 3) (CT3) Q8TC20

Answer 237

Chloride intracellular channel protein 1 (Chloride channel ABP) (Nuclear chloride ion channel 27) (NCC27) (Regulatory nuclear chloride ion channel protein) (hRNCC) O00299 FUNCTION: Can insert into membranes and form chloride ion channels. Channel activity depends on the pH. Membrane insertion seems to be redox-regulated and may occur only under oxydizing conditions. Involved in regulation of the cell cycle.

Answer 238

Calcitonin gene-related peptide 1 (Alpha-type CGRP) (Calcitonin gene-related peptide I) (CGRP-I) P06881 FUNCTION: CGRP induces vasodilation. It dilates a variety of vessels including the coronary, cerebral and systemic vasculature. Its abundance in the CNS also points toward a neurotransmitter or neuromodulator role. It also elevates platelet cAMP. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 239

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00346 Q8IVM7

Answer 240

Uncharacterized protein C13orf42 A0A1B0GVH6

Answer 241

ADP-ribosylation factor GTPase-activating protein 2 (ARF GAP 2) (GTPase-activating protein ZNF289) (Zinc finger protein 289) Q8N6H7 FUNCTION: GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for ADP ribosylation factor 1 (ARF1). Implicated in coatomer-mediated protein transport between the Golgi complex and the endoplasmic reticulum. Hydrolysis of ARF1-bound GTP may lead to dissociation of coatomer from Golgi-derived membranes to allow fusion with target membranes. Note=Also found on peripheral punctate structures likely to be endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate compartment.

Answer 242

BRCA2 and CDKN1A-interacting protein (P21- and CDK-associated protein 1) (Protein TOK-1) Q9P287 FUNCTION: During interphase, required for microtubule organizing and anchoring activities. During mitosis, required for the organization and stabilization of the spindle pole . Isoform 2/alpha is particularly important for the regulation of microtubule anchoring, microtubule stability, spindle architecture and spindle orientation, compared to isoform 1/beta . May promote cell cycle arrest by enhancing the inhibition of CDK2 activity by CDKN1A. May be required for repair of DNA damage by homologous recombination in conjunction with BRCA2. May not be involved in non-homologous end joining (NHEJ).

Answer 243

Carbohydrate sulfotransferase 4 (EC 2.2.-) (Galactose/N-acetylglucosamine/N-acetylglucosamine 6-O-sulfotransferase 3) (GST-3) (High endothelial cells N-acetylglucosamine 6-O-sulfotransferase) (HEC-GlcNAc6ST) (L-selectin ligand sulfotransferase) (LSST) (N-acetylglucosamine 6-O-sulfotransferase 2) (GlcNAc6ST-2) (Gn6st-2) Q8NCG5 FUNCTION: Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the transfer of sulfate to position 6 of non-reducing N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) residues within mucin-associated glycans that ultimately serve as SELL ligands. SELL ligands are present in high endothelial cells (HEVs) and play a central role in lymphocyte homing at sites of inflammation. Participates in biosynthesis of the SELL ligand sialyl 6-sulfo Lewis X on receptors SPN/CD43, GLYCAM1 and MADCAM1. Also involved in biosynthesis of SELL ligand recognized by MECA-79 antibody. Plays a central role in lymphocyte trafficking during chronic inflammation. Has a catalytic preference for core 2-branched mucin-type O-glycans. Can use GlcNAcbeta1-6[Galbeta1-3]GalNAc-pNP (core 2), GlcNAcbeta1-6ManOMe and GlcNAcbeta1-2Man oligosaccharide structures as acceptors. Has also activity toward core 3 of GlcNAcbeta1-3GalNAc-pNP. Its substrate specificity may be influenced by its subcellular location.

Answer 244

FH1/FH2 domain-containing protein 1 (Formin homolog overexpressed in spleen 1) (FHOS) (Formin homology 2 domain-containing protein 1) Q9Y613 FUNCTION: Required for the assembly of F-actin structures, such as stress fibers. Depends on the Rho-ROCK cascade for its activity. Contributes to the coordination of microtubules with actin fibers and plays a role in cell elongation. Acts synergistically with ROCK1 to promote SRC-dependent non-apoptotic plasma membrane blebbing. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton. Cell projection, bleb. Note=Predominantly cytoplasmic.

Answer 245

Protein asteroid homolog 1 Q2TB18 FUNCTION: Possible role in EGF receptor signaling.

Answer 246

Dual specificity protein phosphatase 13 isoform B (DUSP13B) (EC 3.3.16) (EC 3.3.48) (Dual specificity phosphatase SKRP4) (Testis- and skeletal-muscle-specific DSP) Q9UII6 FUNCTION: Dual specificity phosphatase that dephosphorylates MAPK8/JNK and MAPK14/p38, but not MAPK1/ERK2, in vitro. Exhibits intrinsic phosphatase activity towards both phospho-seryl/threonyl and -tyrosyl residues, with similar specific activities in vitro.

Answer 247

UPF0691 protein C9orf116 (p53-induced expression in RB-null cells protein 1) (Pierce1) Q5BN46

Answer 248

Uncharacterized protein C9orf57 Q5W0N0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 249

Complement factor H-related protein 4 (FHR-4) Q92496 FUNCTION: Involved in complement regulation. Can associate with lipoproteins and may play a role in lipid metabolism. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 250

Phospholipid-transporting ATPase IG (EC 7.2.1) (ATPase IQ) (ATPase class VI type 11C) (P4-ATPase flippase complex alpha subunit ATP11C) Q8NB49 FUNCTION: Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. In the cell membrane of erythrocytes, it is required to maintain phosphatidylserine (PS) in the inner leaflet preventing its exposure on the surface. This asymmetric distribution is critical for the survival of erythrocytes in circulation since externalized PS is a phagocytic signal for splenic macrophages . Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules (By similarity). Required for B cell differentiation past the pro-B cell stage (By similarity). Seems to mediate PS flipping in pro-B cells (By similarity). May be involved in the transport of cholestatic bile acids (By similarity). Note=Efficient exit from the endoplasmic reticulum requires the presence of TMEM30A. Some cell membrane localization observed in the presence of TMEM30B.

Answer 251

Cytochrome P450 4F11 (CYPIVF11) (EC 1.14.14.1) (3-hydroxy fatty acids omega-hydroxylase CYP4F11) (Docosahexaenoic acid omega-hydroxylase) (EC 1.14.14.79) (Long-chain fatty acid omega-monooxygenase) (EC 1.14.14.80) (Phylloquinone omega-hydroxylase CYP4F11) (EC 1.14.14.78) Q9HBI6 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids and their oxygenated derivatives (oxylipins) (, , ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase) (, , ). Catalyzes with high efficiency the oxidation of the terminal carbon (omega-oxidation) of 3-hydroxy fatty acids, such as 3-hydroxyhexadecanoic and 3-hydroxyoctadecanoic acids, likely participating in the biosynthesis of long-chain 3-hydroxydicarboxylic acids (, ). Omega-hydroxylates and inactivates phylloquinone (vitamin K1), and menaquinone-4 (MK-4, a form of vitamin K2), both acting as cofactors in blood coagulation . Metabolizes with low efficiciency fatty acids, including (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenoic acid (arachidonate) and its oxygenated metabolite 8-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (8-HETE) (, ). Catalyzes N- and O-demethylation of drugs such as erythromycin, benzphetamine, ethylmorphine, chlorpromazine, imipramine and verapamil .

Answer 252

Collagen alpha-1(IV) chain [Cleaved into: Arresten] P02462 FUNCTION: Type IV collagen is the major structural component of glomerular basement membranes (GBM), forming a 'chicken-wire' meshwork together with laminins, proteoglycans and entactin/nidogen.

Answer 253

Complement C5 (C3 and PZP-like alpha-2-macroglobulin domain-containing protein 4) [Cleaved into: Complement C5 beta chain; Complement C5 alpha chain; C5a anaphylatoxin; Complement C5 alpha' chain] P01031 FUNCTION: Activation of C5 by a C5 convertase initiates the spontaneous assembly of the late complement components, C5-C9, into the membrane attack complex. C5b has a transient binding site for C6. The C5b-C6 complex is the foundation upon which the lytic complex is assembled.; FUNCTION: Derived from proteolytic degradation of complement C5, C5 anaphylatoxin is a mediator of local inflammatory process. Binding to the receptor C5AR1 induces a variety of responses including intracellular calcium release, contraction of smooth muscle, increased vascular permeability, and histamine release from mast cells and basophilic leukocytes . C5a is also a potent chemokine which stimulates the locomotion of polymorphonuclear leukocytes and directs their migration toward sites of inflammation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 254

Uncharacterized protein C12orf42 Q96LP6

Answer 255

Collagen alpha-3(V) chain P25940 FUNCTION: Type V collagen is a member of group I collagen (fibrillar forming collagen). It is a minor connective tissue component of nearly ubiquitous distribution. Type V collagen binds to DNA, heparan sulfate, thrombospondin, heparin, and insulin. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix .

Answer 256

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00615 Q96LM1

Answer 257

60 kDa heat shock protein, mitochondrial (EC 5.1.7) (60 kDa chaperonin) (Chaperonin 60) (CPN60) (Heat shock protein 60) (HSP-60) (Hsp60) (HuCHA60) (Mitochondrial matrix protein P1) (P60 lymphocyte protein) P10809 FUNCTION: Chaperonin implicated in mitochondrial protein import and macromolecular assembly. Together with Hsp10, facilitates the correct folding of imported proteins. May also prevent misfolding and promote the refolding and proper assembly of unfolded polypeptides generated under stress conditions in the mitochondrial matrix (, ). The functional units of these chaperonins consist of heptameric rings of the large subunit Hsp60, which function as a back-to-back double ring. In a cyclic reaction, Hsp60 ring complexes bind one unfolded substrate protein per ring, followed by the binding of ATP and association with 2 heptameric rings of the co-chaperonin Hsp10. This leads to sequestration of the substrate protein in the inner cavity of Hsp60 where, for a certain period of time, it can fold undisturbed by other cell components. Synchronous hydrolysis of ATP in all Hsp60 subunits results in the dissociation of the chaperonin rings and the release of ADP and the folded substrate protein (Probable). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion matrix.

Answer 258

Cytoplasmic polyadenylation element-binding protein 1 (CPE-BP1) (CPE-binding protein 1) (h-CPEB) (hCPEB-1) Q9BZB8 FUNCTION: Sequence-specific RNA-binding protein that regulates mRNA cytoplasmic polyadenylation and translation initiation during oocyte maturation, early development and at postsynapse sites of neurons. Binds to the cytoplasmic polyadenylation element (CPE), an uridine-rich sequence element (consensus sequence 5'-UUUUUAU-3') within the mRNA 3'-UTR. RNA binding results in a clear conformational change analogous to the Venus fly trap mechanism . In absence of phosphorylation and in association with TACC3 is also involved as a repressor of translation of CPE-containing mRNA; a repression that is relieved by phosphorylation or degradation (By similarity). Involved in the transport of CPE-containing mRNA to dendrites; those mRNAs may be transported to dendrites in a translationally dormant form and translationally activated at synapses (By similarity). Its interaction with APLP1 promotes local CPE-containing mRNA polyadenylation and translation activation (By similarity). Induces the assembly of stress granules in the absence of stress. Required for cell cycle progression, specifically for prophase entry .

Answer 259

Aquaporin-7 (AQP-7) (Aquaglyceroporin-7) (Aquaporin adipose) (AQPap) (Aquaporin-7-like) O14520 FUNCTION: Forms a channel that mediates water and glycerol transport across cell membranes at neutral pH (, , , ). The channel is also permeable to urea . Plays an important role in body energy homeostasis under conditions that promote lipid catabolism, giving rise to glycerol and free fatty acids. Mediates glycerol export from adipocytes. After release into the blood stream, glycerol is used for gluconeogenesis in the liver to maintain normal blood glucose levels and prevent fasting hypoglycemia. Required for normal glycerol reabsorption in the kidney (By similarity).

Answer 260

CLK4-associating serine/arginine rich protein (Splicing factor, arginine/serine-rich 16) (Suppressor of white-apricot homolog 2) Q8N2M8 FUNCTION: Probably functions as an alternative splicing regulator. May regulate the mRNA splicing of genes such as CLK1. May act by regulating members of the CLK kinase family (By similarity).

Answer 261

Anamorsin (Cytokine-induced apoptosis inhibitor 1) (Fe-S cluster assembly protein DRE2 homolog) Q6FI81 FUNCTION: Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur (Fe-S) protein assembly (CIA) machinery required for the maturation of extramitochondrial Fe-S proteins. Part of an electron transfer chain functioning in an early step of cytosolic Fe-S biogenesis, facilitating the de novo assembly of a [4Fe-4S] cluster on the scaffold complex NUBP1-NUBP2. Electrons are transferred to CIAPIN1 from NADPH via the FAD- and FMN-containing protein NDOR1 . NDOR1-CIAPIN1 are also required for the assembly of the diferric tyrosyl radical cofactor of ribonucleotide reductase (RNR), probably by providing electrons for reduction during radical cofactor maturation in the catalytic small subunit (By similarity). Has anti-apoptotic effects in the cell. Involved in negative control of cell death upon cytokine withdrawal. Promotes development of hematopoietic cells (By similarity).

Answer 262

Cytochrome c oxidase assembly factor 7 (Beta-lactamase hcp-like protein) (Respiratory chain assembly factor 1) (Sel1 repeat-containing protein 1) Q96BR5 FUNCTION: Required for assembly of mitochondrial respiratory chain complex I and complex IV.

Answer 263

C-type lectin domain family 2 member L P0C7M8 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 264

ADP-ribosylation factor-like protein 2-binding protein (ARF-like 2-binding protein) (ARL2-binding protein) (Binder of ARF2 protein 1) Q9Y2Y0 FUNCTION: Together with ARL2, plays a role in the nuclear translocation, retention and transcriptional activity of STAT3. May play a role as an effector of ARL2.

Answer 265

Ameloblastin Q9NP70 FUNCTION: Involved in the mineralization and structural organization of enamel. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix.

Answer 266

Glutathione-specific gamma-glutamylcyclotransferase 2 (Gamma-GCG 2) (EC 4.2.7) (Cation transport regulator-like protein 2) Q8WUX2 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the cleavage of glutathione into 5-oxo-L-proline and a Cys-Gly dipeptide. Acts specifically on glutathione, but not on other gamma-glutamyl peptides.

Answer 267

APC membrane recruitment protein 3 (Amer3) (Protein FAM123C) Q8N944 FUNCTION: Regulator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Acts by specifically binding phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2), translocating to the cell membrane (By similarity).

Answer 268

Cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor subunit 2 (Cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor 100 kDa subunit) (CPSF 100 kDa subunit) Q9P2I0 FUNCTION: Component of the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF) complex that play a key role in pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, recognizing the AAUAAA signal sequence and interacting with poly(A) polymerase and other factors to bring about cleavage and poly(A) addition. Involved in the histone 3' end pre-mRNA processing.

Answer 269

Clathrin light chain B (Lcb) P09497 FUNCTION: Clathrin is the major protein of the polyhedral coat of coated pits and vesicles. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasmic vesicle membrane; Peripheral membrane protein; Cytoplasmic side. Membrane, coated pit; Peripheral membrane protein; Cytoplasmic side. Note=Cytoplasmic face of coated pits and vesicles.

Answer 270

Uncharacterized protein C17orf53 Q8N3J3

Answer 271

Putative uncharacterized protein C18orf65 Q6ZTR6

Answer 272

Protein atonal homolog 1 (Class A basic helix-loop-helix protein 14) (bHLHa14) (Helix-loop-helix protein hATH-1) (hATH1) Q92858 FUNCTION: Transcriptional regulator. Activates E box-dependent transcription in collaboration with TCF3/E47, but the activity is completely antagonized by the negative regulator of neurogenesis HES1. Plays a role in the differentiation of subsets of neural cells by activating E box-dependent transcription (By similarity).

Answer 273

Uncharacterized protein C18orf63 Q68DL7

Answer 274

Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase domain-containing protein 2A (EC 3.-.-) Q96GK7 FUNCTION: May have hydrolase activity.

Answer 275

Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 20A4 Q4UJ75

Answer 276

Putative ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 20A5 (Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 20A5 pseudogene) A0PJZ0

Answer 277

Alkaline ceramidase 3 (AlkCDase 3) (Alkaline CDase 3) (EC 3.1.-) (EC 3.1.23) (Alkaline dihydroceramidase SB89) (Alkaline phytoceramidase) (aPHC) Q9NUN7 FUNCTION: Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi ceramidase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of unsaturated long-chain C18:1-, C20:1- and C20:4-ceramides, dihydroceramides and phytoceramides into sphingoid bases like sphingosine and free fatty acids at alkaline pH (, , , , ). Ceramides, sphingosine, and its phosphorylated form sphingosine-1-phosphate are bioactive lipids that mediate cellular signaling pathways regulating several biological processes including cell proliferation, apoptosis and differentiation . Controls the generation of sphingosine in erythrocytes, and thereby sphingosine-1-phosphate in plasma . Through the regulation of ceramides and sphingosine-1-phosphate homeostasis in the brain may play a role in neurons survival and function (By similarity). By regulating the levels of proinflammatory ceramides in immune cells and tissues, may modulate the inflammatory response (By similarity).

Answer 278

Glutamyl aminopeptidase (EAP) (EC 3.11.7) (Aminopeptidase A) (AP-A) (Differentiation antigen gp160) (CD antigen CD249) Q07075 FUNCTION: Regulates central hypertension through its calcium-modulated preference to cleave N-terminal acidic residues from peptides such as angiotensin II. ; Single-pass type II membrane protein.

Answer 279

AMP deaminase 3 (EC 3.4.6) (AMP deaminase isoform E) (Erythrocyte AMP deaminase) Q01432 FUNCTION: AMP deaminase plays a critical role in energy metabolism.

Answer 280

Aminopeptidase O (AP-O) (EC 3.11.-) Q8N6M6 FUNCTION: Aminopeptidases catalyze the hydrolysis of amino acid residues from the N-terminus of peptide or protein substrates. Able to cleave angiotensin III to generate angiotensin IV, a bioactive peptide of the renin-angiotensin pathway. Not able to cleave angiotensin I and angiotensin II. May play a role in the proteolytic processing of bioactive peptides in tissues such as testis and heart.

Answer 281

Cysteine-rich hydrophobic domain-containing protein 2 (BrX-like translocated in leukemia) Q9UKJ5 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane . Note=Also present at a Golgi-like vesicular compartment and at scattered vesicles.

Answer 282

Acidic mammalian chitinase (AMCase) (EC 3.1.14) (Lung-specific protein TSA1902) Q9BZP6 FUNCTION: Degrades chitin and chitotriose. May participate in the defense against nematodes, fungi and other pathogens. Plays a role in T-helper cell type 2 (Th2) immune response. Contributes to the response to IL-13 and inflammation in response to IL-13. Stimulates chemokine production by pulmonary epithelial cells. Protects lung epithelial cells against apoptosis and promotes phosphorylation of AKT1. Its function in the inflammatory response and in protecting cells against apoptosis is inhibited by allosamidin, suggesting that the function of this protein depends on carbohydrate binding. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Secreted. Note=Secretion depends on EGFR activity.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 2]: Cytoplasm.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 3]: Cytoplasm.

Answer 283

Acetylcholine receptor subunit delta Q07001 FUNCTION: After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell junction, synapse, postsynaptic cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 284

Choline/ethanolamine kinase (Choline kinase beta) (CK) (CKB) (EC 2.1.32) (Choline kinase-like protein) (Ethanolamine kinase) (EK) (EC 2.1.82) (Ethanolamine kinase beta) (EKB) (choline/ethanolamine kinase beta) (CKEKB) Q9Y259 FUNCTION: Has a key role in phospholipid metabolism, and catalyzes the first step of phosphatidylethanolamine and phosphatidylcholine biosynthesis.

Answer 285

Alpha-amylase 1 (EC 3.1.1) (1,4-alpha-D-glucan glucanohydrolase 1) (Salivary alpha-amylase) P04745 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 286

Acrosin-binding protein (Cancer/testis antigen 23) (CT23) (Cancer/testis antigen OY-TES-1) (Proacrosin-binding protein sp32) Q8NEB7 FUNCTION: May be involved in packaging and condensation of the acrosin zymogen in the acrosomal matrix via its association with proacrosin.

Answer 287

Alpha-1-antichymotrypsin (ACT) (Cell growth-inhibiting gene 24/25 protein) (Serpin A3) [Cleaved into: Alpha-1-antichymotrypsin His-Pro-less] P01011 FUNCTION: Although its physiological function is unclear, it can inhibit neutrophil cathepsin G and mast cell chymase, both of which can convert angiotensin-1 to the active angiotensin-2. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 288

ATP synthase subunit C lysine N-methyltransferase (EC 2.1.-) (Protein N-lysine methyltransferase FAM173B) (hFAM173B) Q6P4H8 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial protein-lysine N-methyltransferase that trimethylates ATP synthase subunit C, ATP5MC1 and ATP5MC2. Trimethylation is required for proper incorporation of the C subunit into the ATP synthase complex and mitochondrial respiration (, ). Promotes chronic pain . Involved in persistent inflammatory and neuropathic pain: methyltransferase activity in the mitochondria of sensory neurons promotes chronic pain via a pathway that depends on the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) and on the engagement of spinal cord microglia .

Answer 289

Acrosin (EC 3.21.10) [Cleaved into: Acrosin light chain; Acrosin heavy chain] P10323 FUNCTION: Acrosin is the major protease of mammalian spermatozoa. It is a serine protease of trypsin-like cleavage specificity, it is synthesized in a zymogen form, proacrosin and stored in the acrosome.

Answer 290

Ankyrin repeat and LEM domain-containing protein 2 (LEM domain-containing protein 4) Q86XL3 FUNCTION: Involved in mitotic nuclear envelope reassembly by promoting dephosphorylation of BAF/BANF1 during mitotic exit. Coordinates the control of BAF/BANF1 dephosphorylation by inhibiting VRK1 kinase and promoting dephosphorylation of BAF/BANF1 by protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), thereby facilitating nuclear envelope assembly. It is unclear whether it acts as a real PP2A regulatory subunit or whether it is involved in recruitment of the PP2A complex. Involved in brain development .

Answer 291

DNA dC->dU-editing enzyme APOBEC-3H (EC 3.4.38) (APOBEC-related protein 10) (ARP-10) (Apolipoprotein B mRNA-editing enzyme catalytic polypeptide-like 3H) (A3H) Q6NTF7 FUNCTION: DNA deaminase (cytidine deaminase) which acts as an inhibitor of retrovirus replication and retrotransposon mobility via deaminase-dependent and -independent mechanisms. The A3H-var/haplotype 2 exhibits antiviral activity against vif-deficient HIV-1. After the penetration of retroviral nucleocapsids into target cells of infection and the initiation of reverse transcription, it can induce the conversion of cytosine to uracil in the minus-sense single-strand viral DNA, leading to G-to-A hypermutations in the subsequent plus-strand viral DNA. The resultant detrimental levels of mutations in the proviral genome, along with a deamination-independent mechanism that works prior to the proviral integration, together exert efficient antiretroviral effects in infected target cells. Selectively targets single-stranded DNA and does not deaminate double-stranded DNA or single- or double-stranded RNA. Exhibits antiviral activity also against T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1) and may inhibit the mobility of LTR and non-LTR retrotransposons. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Cytoplasm. Cytoplasm, P-body. Note=Haplotype 1 is distributed in both the nucleus and cytoplasm, whereas haplotype 2 is predominantly cytoplasmic.

Answer 292

Endogenous retrovirus group V member 2 Env polyprotein (HERV-V_19q13.41 provirus ancestral Env polyprotein 2) B6SEH9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 293

Protein ABHD11 (EC 3.-.-) (Alpha/beta hydrolase domain-containing protein 11) (Abhydrolase domain-containing protein 11) (Williams-Beuren syndrome chromosomal region 21 protein) Q8NFV4

Answer 294

Protein ABHD13 (EC 3.-.-) (Alpha/beta hydrolase domain-containing protein 13) (Abhydrolase domain-containing protein 13) Q7L211 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 295

ATP-binding cassette sub-family F member 1 (ATP-binding cassette 50) (TNF-alpha-stimulated ABC protein) Q8NE71 FUNCTION: Isoform 2 is required for efficient Cap- and IRES-mediated mRNA translation initiation. Isoform 2 is not involved in the ribosome biogenesis.

Answer 296

Long-chain-fatty-acid--CoA ligase ACSBG2 (EC 6.1.3) (Acyl-CoA synthetase bubblegum family member 2) (Arachidonate--CoA ligase ACSBG2) (EC 6.1.15) (Bubblegum-related protein) (PRTD-NY3) Q5FVE4 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the conversion of fatty acids such as long chain and very long-chain fatty acids to their active form acyl-CoAs for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation. Can activate diverse saturated, monosaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids (, ). Has increased ability to activate oleic and linoleic acid . May play a role in spermatogenesis . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 297

Flotillin-1 O75955 FUNCTION: May act as a scaffolding protein within caveolar membranes, functionally participating in formation of caveolae or caveolae-like vesicles. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Peripheral membrane protein .

Answer 298

Eyes absent homolog 2 (EC 3.3.48) O00167 FUNCTION: Functions both as protein phosphatase and as transcriptional coactivator for SIX1, and probably also for SIX2, SIX4 and SIX5 (, ). Tyrosine phosphatase that dephosphorylates 'Tyr-142' of histone H2AX (H2AXY142ph) and promotes efficient DNA repair via the recruitment of DNA repair complexes containing MDC1. 'Tyr-142' phosphorylation of histone H2AX plays a central role in DNA repair and acts as a mark that distinguishes between apoptotic and repair responses to genotoxic stress . Its function as histone phosphatase may contribute to its function in transcription regulation during organogenesis. Plays an important role in hypaxial muscle development together with SIX1 and DACH2; in this it is functionally redundant with EYA1 .

Answer 299

Pseudokinase FAM20A Q96MK3 FUNCTION: Pseudokinase that acts as an allosteric activator of the Golgi serine/threonine protein kinase FAM20C and is involved in biomineralization of teeth. Forms a complex with FAM20C and increases the ability of FAM20C to phosphorylate the proteins that form the 'matrix' that guides the deposition of the enamel minerals.

Answer 300

Zinc finger RNA-binding protein 2 Q9UPR6

Answer 301

Zinc finger protein with KRAB and SCAN domains 3 (Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 13) (Zinc finger protein 306) (Zinc finger protein 309) (Zinc finger protein 47 homolog) (Zf47) (Zfp-47) Q9BRR0 FUNCTION: Transcriptional factor that binds to the consensus sequence 5'-[GT][AG][AGT]GGGG-3' and acts as a repressor of autophagy. Specifically represses expression of genes involved in autophagy and lysosome biogenesis/function such as MAP1LC3B, ULK1 or WIPI2. Associates with chromatin at the ITGB4 and VEGF promoters. Also acts as a transcription activator and promotes cancer cell progression and/or migration in various tumors and myelomas. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Cytoplasm. Note=Mainly localizes in the nucleus. Under starvation conditions translocates to the cytoplasm, allowing expression of target genes involved in autophagy and lysosome biogenesis/function.

Answer 302

Zinc finger protein with KRAB and SCAN domains 2 (Zinc finger protein 694) Q63HK3 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 303

Zinc finger protein 136 P52737 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation as a weak repressor when alone, or a potent one when fused with a heterologous protein containing a KRAB B-domain. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 304

Zinc finger protein 224 (Bone marrow zinc finger 2) (BMZF-2) (Zinc finger protein 233) (Zinc finger protein 255) (Zinc finger protein 27) (Zinc finger protein KOX22) Q9NZL3 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation as a transcriptional repressor. The DEPDC1A-ZNF224 complex may play a critical role in bladder carcinogenesis by repressing the transcription of the A20 gene, leading to transport of NF-KB protein into the nucleus, resulting in suppression of apoptosis of bladder cancer cells. Note=Colocalizes with DEPDC1A at the nucleus.

Answer 305

Zinc finger protein 813 Q6ZN06 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 306

Zinc finger protein 407 Q9C0G0 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 307

Zinc finger protein 786 Q8N393 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 308

Netrin receptor UNC5C (Protein unc-5 homolog 3) (Protein unc-5 homolog C) O95185 FUNCTION: Receptor for netrin required for axon guidance (By similarity). Mediates axon repulsion of neuronal growth cones in the developing nervous system upon ligand binding (By similarity). NTN1/Netrin-1 binding might cause dissociation of UNC5C from polymerized TUBB3 in microtubules and thereby lead to increased microtubule dynamics and axon repulsion . Axon repulsion in growth cones may also be caused by its association with DCC that may trigger signaling for repulsion (By similarity). Might also collaborate with DSCAM in NTN1-mediated axon repulsion independently of DCC (By similarity). Also involved in corticospinal tract axon guidance independently of DCC (By similarity). Involved in dorsal root ganglion axon projection towards the spinal cord . It also acts as a dependence receptor required for apoptosis induction when not associated with netrin ligand (By similarity).

Answer 309

Zinc finger protein 846 Q147U1 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Answer 310

Zinc finger protein 880 Q6PDB4

Answer 311

Zinc finger protein 484 Q5JVG2 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 312

Zinc finger protein 587 Q96SQ5 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 313

Zinc transporter 4 (ZnT-4) (Solute carrier family 30 member 4) O14863 FUNCTION: Probably involved in zinc transport out of the cytoplasm, maybe by sequestration into an intracellular compartment. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endosome membrane .

Answer 314

Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 26 (Protein SRE-ZBP) (Zinc finger protein 187) Q16670 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Answer 315

ZZ-type zinc finger-containing protein 3 Q8IYH5 FUNCTION: Component of the ATAC complex, a complex with histone acetyltransferase activity on histones H3 and H4.

Answer 316

Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 5A (Zinc finger protein 495) Q9BUG6 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 317

Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 37C (hVps37C) (ESCRT-I complex subunit VPS37C) A5D8V6 FUNCTION: Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process. Required for the sorting of endocytic ubiquitinated cargos into multivesicular bodies. May be involved in cell growth and differentiation. Note=Probably associates with membranes. Recruited to the plasma membrane by HIV-1.

Answer 318

Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 37B (hVps37B) (ESCRT-I complex subunit VPS37B) Q9H9H4 FUNCTION: Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process. Required for the sorting of endocytic ubiquitinated cargos into multivesicular bodies. May be involved in cell growth and differentiation. Note=Recruited to the endosomal membrane in a VPS4A-dependent fashion.

Answer 319

Zinc finger SWIM domain-containing protein 3 Q96MP5

Answer 320

Vesicle-associated membrane protein 1 (VAMP-1) (Synaptobrevin-1) P23763 FUNCTION: Involved in the targeting and/or fusion of transport vesicles to their target membrane. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Cytoplasmic vesicle, secretory vesicle, synaptic vesicle membrane .

Answer 321

Tubulin--tyrosine ligase-like protein 12 (Inactive tubulin--tyrosine ligase-like protein 12) Q14166 FUNCTION: Negatively regulates post-translational modifications of tubulin, including detyrosination of the C-terminus and polyglutamylation of glutamate residues (, ). Also, indirectly promotes histone H4 trimethylation at 'Lys-20' (H4K20me3) . Probably by controlling tubulin and/or histone H4 post-translational modifications, plays a role in mitosis and in maintaining chromosome number stability (, ). During RNA virus-mediated infection, acts as a negative regulator of the DDX58/RIG-I pathway by preventing MAVS binding to TBK1 and IKBKE .

Answer 322

Vimentin-type intermediate filament-associated coiled-coil protein Q2NL98 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 323

Protein zwilch homolog (hZwilch) Q9H900 FUNCTION: Essential component of the mitotic checkpoint, which prevents cells from prematurely exiting mitosis. Required for the assembly of the dynein-dynactin and MAD1-MAD2 complexes onto kinetochores. Its function related to the spindle assembly machinery is proposed to depend on its association in the mitotic RZZ complex .

Answer 324

Protein zyg-11 homolog B Q9C0D3 FUNCTION: Serves as substrate adapter subunit in the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex ZYG11B-CUL2-Elongin BC. Acts redudantly with ZER1 to target substrates bearing N-terminal glycine degrons for proteasomal degradation. Involved in the clearance of proteolytic fragments generated by caspase cleavage during apoptosis since N-terminal glycine degrons are strongly enriched at caspase cleavage sites. Also important in the quality control of protein N-myristoylation in which N-terminal glycine degrons are conditionally exposed after a failure of N-myristoylation .

Answer 325

Zinc finger protein 507 Q8TCN5 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 326

Zinc finger SWIM domain-containing protein 5 Q9P217

Answer 327

Tubulin monoglycylase TTLL3 (EC 6.2.-) (HOTTL) (Tubulin--tyrosine ligase-like protein 3) Q9Y4R7 FUNCTION: Monoglycylase which modifies alpha- and beta-tubulin, generating side chains of glycine on the gamma-carboxyl groups of specific glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of alpha- and beta-tubulin. Involved in the side-chain initiation step of the glycylation reaction by adding a single glycine chain to generate monoglycine side chains. Not involved in elongation step of the polyglycylation reaction.

Answer 328

Tubulin polyglutamylase TTLL4 (EC 6.-.-) (Tubulin--tyrosine ligase-like protein 4) Q14679 FUNCTION: Glutamylase which preferentially modifies beta-tubulin and non-tubulin proteins, such as NAP1L1, NAP1L4 and CGAS. Involved in the side-chain initiation step of the polyglutamylation reaction rather than in the elongation step. Involved in formation of short side-chains. Mediates initiation of polyglutamylation of nucleosome assembly proteins NAP1L1 and NAP1L4. Also acts as a monoglutamylase: generates monoglutamylation of CGAS, leading to impair the nucleotidyltransferase activity of CGAS.

Answer 329

Vesicle-associated membrane protein-associated protein B/C (VAMP-B/VAMP-C) (VAMP-associated protein B/C) (VAP-B/VAP-C) O95292 FUNCTION: Participates in the endoplasmic reticulum unfolded protein response (UPR) by inducing ERN1/IRE1 activity. Involved in cellular calcium homeostasis regulation.

Answer 330

Sodium/bile acid cotransporter (Cell growth-inhibiting gene 29 protein) (Na(+)/bile acid cotransporter) (Na(+)/taurocholate transport protein) (Sodium/taurocholate cotransporting polypeptide) (Solute carrier family 10 member 1) Q14973 FUNCTION: The hepatic sodium/bile acid uptake system exhibits broad substrate specificity and transports various non-bile acid organic compounds as well. It is strictly dependent on the extracellular presence of sodium.; FUNCTION: (Microbial infection) Acts as a receptor for hepatitis B virus. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 331

Placenta-specific gene 8 protein (Protein C15) Q9NZF1

Answer 332

Phospholipase A and acyltransferase 3 (EC 2.1.-) (EC 3.1.32) (EC 3.1.4) (Adipose-specific phospholipase A2) (AdPLA) (Group XVI phospholipase A1/A2) (H-rev 107 protein homolog) (H-REV107) (HREV107-1) (HRAS-like suppressor 1) (HRAS-like suppressor 3) (HRSL3) (HREV107-3) (Renal carcinoma antigen NY-REN-65) P53816 FUNCTION: Exhibits both phospholipase A1/2 and acyltransferase activities (, , , , ). Shows phospholipase A1 (PLA1) and A2 (PLA2) activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent release of fatty acids from the sn-1 or sn-2 position of glycerophospholipids (, , , , ). For most substrates, PLA1 activity is much higher than PLA2 activity . Shows O-acyltransferase activity,catalyzing the transfer of a fatty acyl group from glycerophospholipid to the hydroxyl group of lysophospholipid . Shows N-acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent transfer of a fatty acyl group at the sn-1 position of phosphatidylcholine (PC) and other glycerophospholipids to the primary amine of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE), forming N-acylphosphatidylethanolamine (NAPE), which serves as precursor for N-acylethanolamines (NAEs) (, , , ). Exhibits high N-acyltransferase activity and low phospholipase A1/2 activity .

Answer 333

Paraneoplastic antigen-like protein 6A P0CW24

Answer 334

Protein-tyrosine kinase 6 (EC 2.10.2) (Breast tumor kinase) (Tyrosine-protein kinase BRK) Q13882 FUNCTION: Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase implicated in the regulation of a variety of signaling pathways that control the differentiation and maintenance of normal epithelia, as well as tumor growth. Function seems to be context dependent and differ depending on cell type, as well as its intracellular localization. A number of potential nuclear and cytoplasmic substrates have been identified. These include the RNA-binding proteins: KHDRBS1/SAM68, KHDRBS2/SLM1, KHDRBS3/SLM2 and SFPQ/PSF; transcription factors: STAT3 and STAT5A/B and a variety of signaling molecules: ARHGAP35/p190RhoGAP, PXN/paxillin, BTK/ATK, STAP2/BKS. Associates also with a variety of proteins that are likely upstream of PTK6 in various signaling pathways, or for which PTK6 may play an adapter-like role. These proteins include ADAM15, EGFR, ERBB2, ERBB3 and IRS4. In normal or non-tumorigenic tissues, PTK6 promotes cellular differentiation and apoptosis. In tumors PTK6 contributes to cancer progression by sensitizing cells to mitogenic signals and enhancing proliferation, anchorage-independent survival and migration/invasion. Association with EGFR, ERBB2, ERBB3 may contribute to mammary tumor development and growth through enhancement of EGF-induced signaling via BTK/AKT and PI3 kinase. Contributes to migration and proliferation by contributing to EGF-mediated phosphorylation of ARHGAP35/p190RhoGAP, which promotes association with RASA1/p120RasGAP, inactivating RhoA while activating RAS. EGF stimulation resulted in phosphorylation of PNX/Paxillin by PTK6 and activation of RAC1 via CRK/CrKII, thereby promoting migration and invasion. PTK6 activates STAT3 and STAT5B to promote proliferation. Nuclear PTK6 may be important for regulating growth in normal epithelia, while cytoplasmic PTK6 might activate oncogenic signaling pathways.; FUNCTION: Isoform 2 inhibits PTK6 phosphorylation and PTK6 association with other tyrosine-phosphorylated proteins. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus. Cell projection, ruffle. Membrane . Note=Colocalizes with KHDRBS1, KHDRBS2 or KHDRBS3, within the nucleus. Nuclear localization in epithelial cells of normal prostate but cytoplasmic localization in cancer prostate.

Answer 335

RNA-binding protein 4 (Lark homolog) (hLark) (RNA-binding motif protein 4) (RNA-binding motif protein 4a) Q9BWF3 FUNCTION: RNA-binding factor involved in multiple aspects of cellular processes like alternative splicing of pre-mRNA and translation regulation. Modulates alternative 5'-splice site and exon selection. Acts as a muscle cell differentiation-promoting factor. Activates exon skipping of the PTB pre-mRNA during muscle cell differentiation. Antagonizes the activity of the splicing factor PTBP1 to modulate muscle cell-specific exon selection of alpha tropomyosin. Binds to intronic pyrimidine-rich sequence of the TPM1 and MAPT pre-mRNAs. Required for the translational activation of PER1 mRNA in response to circadian clock. Binds directly to the 3'-UTR of the PER1 mRNA. Exerts a suppressive activity on Cap-dependent translation via binding to CU-rich responsive elements within the 3'UTR of mRNAs, a process increased under stress conditions or during myocytes differentiation. Recruits EIF4A1 to stimulate IRES-dependent translation initiation in respons to cellular stress. Associates to internal ribosome entry segment (IRES) in target mRNA species under stress conditions. Plays a role for miRNA-guided RNA cleavage and translation suppression by promoting association of AGO2-containing miRNPs with their cognate target mRNAs. Associates with miRNAs during muscle cell differentiation. Binds preferentially to 5'-CGCGCG[GCA]-3' motif in vitro. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Nucleus, nucleolus. Nucleus speckle. Cytoplasm. Cytoplasmic granule. Note=Undergoes continuous nucleocytoplasmic shuttling. Upon nuclear import colocalizes with SR proteins in nuclear speckles. Arsenite stress-induced phosphorylation increases its subcellular relocalization from the nucleus to the cytoplasm and to cytoplasmic stress granules (SG) via a p38 MAPK signaling pathway. Primarily localized in nucleus and nucleoli under cell growth conditions and accumulated in the cytoplasm and cytoplasm perinuclear granules upon muscle cell differentiation.

Answer 336

RNA-binding protein 26 (CTCL tumor antigen se70-2) (RNA-binding motif protein 26) Q5T8P6

Answer 337

p53-regulated apoptosis-inducing protein 1 (p53AIP1) Q9HCN2 FUNCTION: May play an important role in mediating p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis.

Answer 338

DNA-binding protein SATB2 (Special AT-rich sequence-binding protein 2) Q9UPW6 FUNCTION: Binds to DNA, at nuclear matrix- or scaffold-associated regions. Thought to recognize the sugar-phosphate structure of double-stranded DNA. Transcription factor controlling nuclear gene expression, by binding to matrix attachment regions (MARs) of DNA and inducing a local chromatin-loop remodeling. Acts as a docking site for several chromatin remodeling enzymes and also by recruiting corepressors (HDACs) or coactivators (HATs) directly to promoters and enhancers. Required for the initiation of the upper-layer neurons (UL1) specific genetic program and for the inactivation of deep-layer neurons (DL) and UL2 specific genes, probably by modulating BCL11B expression. Repressor of Ctip2 and regulatory determinant of corticocortical connections in the developing cerebral cortex. May play an important role in palate formation. Acts as a molecular node in a transcriptional network regulating skeletal development and osteoblast differentiation.

Answer 339

Schlafen family member 13 (EC 3.-.-) (Schlafen-13) (hSLFN13) Q68D06 FUNCTION: Endoribonuclease that cleaves tRNAs and rRNAs . Cleaves tRNAs 11 nucleotides from the 3'-terminus at the acceptor stem . Does not act on tRNA(Sec) . Able to restrict HIV-1 virus replication; ability to inhibit HIV-1 replication is dependent on endoribonuclease activity .

Answer 340

Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 49 (EC 3.19.12) (Deubiquitinating enzyme 49) (Ubiquitin thioesterase 49) (Ubiquitin-specific-processing protease 49) Q70CQ1 FUNCTION: Specifically deubiquitinates histone H2B at 'Lys-120' (H2BK120Ub). H2BK120Ub is a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation and acts as a regulator of mRNA splicing. Deubiquitination is required for efficient cotranscriptional splicing of a large set of exons.

Answer 341

Thioredoxin domain-containing protein 15 Q96J42 FUNCTION: Acts as a positive regulator of ciliary hedgehog signaling (By similarity). Involved in ciliogenesis .

Answer 342

Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 46 (EC 3.19.12) (Deubiquitinating enzyme 46) (Ubiquitin thioesterase 46) (Ubiquitin-specific-processing protease 46) P62068 FUNCTION: Deubiquitinating enzyme that plays a role in behavior, possibly by regulating GABA action. May act by mediating the deubiquitination of GAD1/GAD67 (By similarity). Has almost no deubiquitinating activity by itself and requires the interaction with WDR48 to have a high activity (, ). Not involved in deubiquitination of monoubiquitinated FANCD2 .

Answer 343

Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 34 (EC 3.19.12) (Deubiquitinating enzyme 34) (Ubiquitin thioesterase 34) (Ubiquitin-specific-processing protease 34) Q70CQ2 FUNCTION: Ubiquitin hydrolase that can remove conjugated ubiquitin from AXIN1 and AXIN2, thereby acting as a regulator of Wnt signaling pathway. Acts as an activator of the Wnt signaling pathway downstream of the beta-catenin destruction complex by deubiquitinating and stabilizing AXIN1 and AXIN2, leading to promote nuclear accumulation of AXIN1 and AXIN2 and positively regulate beta-catenin (CTNBB1)-mediated transcription. Recognizes and hydrolyzes the peptide bond at the C-terminal Gly of ubiquitin. Involved in the processing of poly-ubiquitin precursors as well as that of ubiquitinated proteins.

Answer 344

Zinc finger protein 1 homolog (Zfp-1) (Zinc finger protein 475) Q6P2D0 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 345

Zinc finger homeobox protein 3 (AT motif-binding factor 1) (AT-binding transcription factor 1) (Alpha-fetoprotein enhancer-binding protein) (Zinc finger homeodomain protein 3) (ZFH-3) Q15911 FUNCTION: Transcriptional regulator which can act as an activator or a repressor. Inhibits the enhancer element of the AFP gene by binding to its AT-rich core sequence. In concert with SMAD-dependent TGF-beta signaling can repress the transcription of AFP via its interaction with SMAD2/3 . Regulates the circadian locomotor rhythms via transcriptional activation of neuropeptidergic genes which are essential for intercellular synchrony and rhythm amplitude in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain (By similarity). Regulator of myoblasts differentiation through the binding to the AT-rich sequence of MYF6 promoter and promoter repression . Down-regulates the MUC5AC promoter in gastric cancer . In association with RUNX3, upregulates CDKN1A promoter activity following TGF-beta stimulation . Inhibits estrogen receptor (ESR1) function by selectively competing with coactivator NCOA3 for binding to ESR1 in ESR1-positive breast cancer cells .

Answer 346

Zinc finger protein ZIC 4 (Zinc finger protein of the cerebellum 4) Q8N9L1 FUNCTION: Binds to DNA.

Answer 347

Vacuolar ATPase assembly integral membrane protein VMA21 (Myopathy with excessive autophagy protein) Q3ZAQ7 FUNCTION: Required for the assembly of the V0 complex of the vacuolar ATPase (V-ATPase) in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer 348

Fractalkine (C-X3-C motif chemokine 1) (CX3C membrane-anchored chemokine) (Neurotactin) (Small-inducible cytokine D1) [Cleaved into: Processed fractalkine] P78423 FUNCTION: Acts as a ligand for both CX3CR1 and integrins. Binds to CX3CR1 (, , ). Binds to integrins ITGAV:ITGB3 and ITGA4:ITGB1. Can activate integrins in both a CX3CR1-dependent and CX3CR1-independent manner. In the presence of CX3CR1, activates integrins by binding to the classical ligand-binding site (site 1) in integrins. In the absence of CX3CR1, binds to a second site (site 2) in integrins which is distinct from site 1 and enhances the binding of other integrin ligands to site 1 (, ). The soluble form is chemotactic for T-cells and monocytes and not for neutrophils. The membrane-bound form promotes adhesion of those leukocytes to endothelial cells. May play a role in regulating leukocyte adhesion and migration processes at the endothelium (, ).

Answer 349

Relaxin receptor 1 (Leucine-rich repeat-containing G-protein coupled receptor 7) (Relaxin family peptide receptor 1) Q9HBX9 FUNCTION: Receptor for relaxins. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins leading to stimulation of adenylate cyclase and an increase of cAMP. Binding of the ligand may also activate a tyrosine kinase pathway that inhibits the activity of a phosphodiesterase that degrades cAMP. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 350

Protein S100-A2 (CAN19) (Protein S-100L) (S100 calcium-binding protein A2) P29034 FUNCTION: May function as calcium sensor and modulator, contributing to cellular calcium signaling. May function by interacting with other proteins, such as TPR-containing proteins, and indirectly play a role in many physiological processes. May also play a role in suppressing tumor cell growth.

Answer 351

Chemokine-like protein TAFA-1 Q7Z5A9 FUNCTION: Regulatory factor which is ligand for GPR1 and is involved in the modulation of neural stem-cell proliferation and differentiation.

Answer 352

Protein S100-Z (S100 calcium-binding protein Z) Q8WXG8

Answer 353

Telomeric repeat-binding factor 1 (NIMA-interacting protein 2) (TTAGGG repeat-binding factor 1) (Telomeric protein Pin2/TRF1) P54274 FUNCTION: Binds the telomeric double-stranded 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeat and negatively regulates telomere length. Involved in the regulation of the mitotic spindle. Component of the shelterin complex (telosome) that is involved in the regulation of telomere length and protection. Shelterin associates with arrays of double-stranded 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeats added by telomerase and protects chromosome ends; without its protective activity, telomeres are no longer hidden from the DNA damage surveillance and chromosome ends are inappropriately processed by DNA repair pathways. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, spindle. Chromosome, telomere. Note=Colocalizes with telomeric DNA in interphase and prophase cells. Telomeric localization decreases in metaphase, anaphase and telophase. Associates with the mitotic spindle.

Answer 354

Protein shisa-6 Q6ZSJ9 FUNCTION: Involved in maintenance of high-frequency synaptic transmission at hippocampal CA3-CA1 synapses. Regulates AMPA-type glutamate receptor (AMPAR) immobilization at postsynaptic density keeping the channels in an activated state in the presence of glutamate and preventing synaptic depression. May play a role in self-renewal and differentiation of spermatogonial stem cells by inhibiting canonical Wnt signaling pathway.

Answer 355

Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein SOWAHA (Ankyrin repeat domain-containing protein 43) (Protein sosondowah homolog A) Q2M3V2

Answer 356

Transgelin-3 (Neuronal protein 22) (NP22) (Neuronal protein NP25) Q9UI15

Answer 357

Tumor protein D55 (hD55) (Testis development protein NYD-SP25) (Tumor protein D52-like 3) Q96J77

Answer 358

Schlafen-like protein 1 Q499Z3

Answer 359

Alpha-N-acetylgalactosaminide alpha-2,6-sialyltransferase 5 (EC 2.99.-) (GD1 alpha synthase) (GalNAc alpha-2,6-sialyltransferase V) (ST6GalNAc V) (ST6GalNAcV) (Sialyltransferase 7E) (SIAT7-E) Q9BVH7 FUNCTION: Involved in the biosynthesis of ganglioside GD1a from GM1b. It exhibits higher activity with glycolipids than with glycoproteins (By similarity).

Answer 360

Mothers against decapentaplegic homolog 7 (MAD homolog 7) (Mothers against DPP homolog 7) (Mothers against decapentaplegic homolog 8) (MAD homolog 8) (Mothers against DPP homolog 8) (SMAD family member 7) (SMAD 7) (Smad7) (hSMAD7) O15105 FUNCTION: Antagonist of signaling by TGF-beta (transforming growth factor) type 1 receptor superfamily members; has been shown to inhibit TGF-beta (Transforming growth factor) and activin signaling by associating with their receptors thus preventing SMAD2 access. Functions as an adapter to recruit SMURF2 to the TGF-beta receptor complex. Also acts by recruiting the PPP1R15A-PP1 complex to TGFBR1, which promotes its dephosphorylation. Positively regulates PDPK1 kinase activity by stimulating its dissociation from the 14-3-3 protein YWHAQ which acts as a negative regulator.

Answer 361

T-complex protein 10A homolog Q12799

Answer 362

Mitochondrial import inner membrane translocase subunit TIM50 Q3ZCQ8 FUNCTION: Essential component of the TIM23 complex, a complex that mediates the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins across the mitochondrial inner membrane. Has some phosphatase activity in vitro; however such activity may not be relevant in vivo.

Answer 363

Tumor suppressor candidate 2 (Fusion 1 protein) (Fus-1 protein) (PDGFA-associated protein 2) O75896 FUNCTION: May function as a tumor suppressor, inhibiting colony formation, causing G1 arrest and ultimately inducing apoptosis in homozygous 3p21.3 120-kb region-deficient cells.

Answer 364

T cell receptor alpha variable 36/delta variable 7 A0A075B6V5 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Answer 365

T cell receptor beta variable 30 A0A0K0K1B3 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) beta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Answer 366

Protein YAE1 homolog (Yae1 domain-containing protein 1) Q9NRH1 FUNCTION: The complex LTO1:YAE1 functions as a target specific adapter that probably recruits apo-ABCE1 to the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex machinery . May be required for biogenesis of the large ribosomal subunit and initiation of translation .

Answer 367

von Willebrand factor (vWF) [Cleaved into: von Willebrand antigen 2 (von Willebrand antigen II)] P04275 FUNCTION: Important in the maintenance of hemostasis, it promotes adhesion of platelets to the sites of vascular injury by forming a molecular bridge between sub-endothelial collagen matrix and platelet-surface receptor complex GPIb-IX-V. Also acts as a chaperone for coagulation factor VIII, delivering it to the site of injury, stabilizing its heterodimeric structure and protecting it from premature clearance from plasma. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted . Note=Localized to storage granules.

Answer 368

Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 5 (TPR repeat protein 5) (Stress-responsive activator of p300) (Strap) Q8N0Z6 FUNCTION: Adapter protein involved in p53/TP53 response that acts by regulating and mediating the assembly of multi-protein complexes. Required to facilitate the interaction between JMY and p300/EP300 and increase p53/TP53-dependent transcription and apoptosis. Prevents p53/TP53 degradation by MDM2 (By similarity).

Answer 369

TPA-induced transmembrane protein Q5BVD1 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane .

Answer 370

Maestro heat-like repeat-containing protein family member 2A (HEAT repeat-containing protein 7B1) A6NES4

Answer 371

Monocarboxylate transporter 7 (MCT 7) (Monocarboxylate transporter 6) (MCT 6) (Solute carrier family 16 member 6) O15403 FUNCTION: Proton-linked monocarboxylate transporter. Catalyzes the rapid transport across the plasma membrane of many monocarboxylates such as lactate, pyruvate, branched-chain oxo acids derived from leucine, valine and isoleucine, and the ketone bodies acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetate (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 372

Myotubularin-related protein 8 (Phosphatidylinositol-3,5-bisphosphate 3-phosphatase) (EC 3.3.95) (Phosphatidylinositol-3-phosphate phosphatase) (EC 3.3.64) Q96EF0 FUNCTION: Phosphatase that acts on lipids with a phosphoinositol headgroup (, ). Has phosphatase activity towards phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (, ). In complex with MTMR9, negatively regulates autophagy .

Answer 373

Molybdenum cofactor biosynthesis protein 1 (Cell migration-inducing gene 11 protein) (Molybdenum cofactor synthesis-step 1 protein A-B) [Includes: GTP 3',8-cyclase (EC 4.99.22) (Molybdenum cofactor biosynthesis protein A); Cyclic pyranopterin monophosphate synthase (EC 4.1.17) (Molybdenum cofactor biosynthesis protein C)] Q9NZB8 FUNCTION: Isoform MOCS1A and isoform MOCS1B probably form a complex that catalyzes the conversion of 5'-GTP to cyclic pyranopterin monophosphate (cPMP). MOCS1A catalyzes the cyclization of GTP to (8S)-3',8-cyclo-7,8-dihydroguanosine 5'-triphosphate and MOCS1B catalyzes the subsequent conversion of (8S)-3',8-cyclo-7,8-dihydroguanosine 5'-triphosphate to cPMP.

Answer 374

MAPK/MAK/MRK overlapping kinase (EC 2.11.22) (MOK protein kinase) (Renal tumor antigen 1) (RAGE-1) Q9UQ07 FUNCTION: Able to phosphorylate several exogenous substrates and to undergo autophosphorylation. Negatively regulates cilium length in a cAMP and mTORC1 signaling-dependent manner.

Answer 375

39S ribosomal protein L21, mitochondrial (L21mt) (MRP-L21) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein bL21m) Q7Z2W9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 376

Sodium/calcium exchanger 3 (Na(+)/Ca(2+)-exchange protein 3) (Solute carrier family 8 member 3) P57103 FUNCTION: Mediates the electrogenic exchange of Ca(2+) against Na(+) ions across the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to the regulation of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels and Ca(2+)-dependent cellular processes. Contributes to cellular Ca(2+) homeostasis in excitable cells, both in muscle and in brain. In a first phase, voltage-gated channels mediate the rapid increase of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels due to release of Ca(2+) stores from the endoplasmic reticulum. SLC8A3 mediates the export of Ca(2+) from the cell during the next phase, so that cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels rapidly return to baseline. Contributes to Ca(2+) transport during excitation-contraction coupling in muscle. In neurons, contributes to the rapid decrease of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels back to baseline after neuronal activation, and thereby contributes to modulate synaptic plasticity, learning and memory (By similarity). Required for normal oligodendrocyte differentiation and for normal myelination . Mediates Ca(2+) efflux from mitochondria and contributes to mitochondrial Ca(2+) ion homeostasis (By similarity).

Answer 377

Zinc finger protein PLAGL2 (Pleiomorphic adenoma-like protein 2) Q9UPG8 FUNCTION: Shows weak transcriptional activatory activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 378

Surfeit locus protein 6 O75683 FUNCTION: Binds to both DNA and RNA in vitro, with a stronger binding capacity for RNA. May represent a nucleolar constitutive protein involved in ribosomal biosynthesis or assembly (By similarity).

Answer 379

Something about silencing protein 10 (Charged amino acid-rich leucine zipper 1) (CRL1) (Disrupter of silencing SAS10) (UTP3 homolog) Q9NQZ2 FUNCTION: Essential for gene silencing: has a role in the structure of silenced chromatin. Plays a role in the developing brain (By similarity).

Answer 380

RWD domain-containing protein 4 (Protein FAM28A) Q6NW29

Answer 381

RWD domain-containing protein 2B P57060

Answer 382

TATA box-binding protein-associated factor RNA polymerase I subunit A (RNA polymerase I-specific TBP-associated factor 48 kDa) (TAFI48) (TATA box-binding protein-associated factor 1A) (TBP-associated factor 1A) (Transcription factor SL1) (Transcription initiation factor SL1/TIF-IB subunit A) Q15573 FUNCTION: Component of the transcription factor SL1/TIF-IB complex, which is involved in the assembly of the PIC (pre-initiation complex) during RNA polymerase I-dependent transcription. The rate of PIC formation probably is primarily dependent on the rate of association of SL1/TIF-IB with the rDNA promoter. SL1/TIF-IB is involved in stabilization of nucleolar transcription factor 1/UBTF on rDNA. Formation of SL1/TIF-IB excludes the association of TBP with TFIID subunits. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 383

Sushi domain-containing protein 5 O60279 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 384

Polycomb protein SUZ12 (Chromatin precipitated E2F target 9 protein) (ChET 9 protein) (Joined to JAZF1 protein) (Suppressor of zeste 12 protein homolog) Q15022 FUNCTION: Polycomb group (PcG) protein. Component of the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex, which methylates 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) and 'Lys-27' (H3K27me) of histone H3, leading to transcriptional repression of the affected target gene. The PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex may also serve as a recruiting platform for DNA methyltransferases, thereby linking two epigenetic repression systems. Genes repressed by the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex include HOXC8, HOXA9, MYT1 and CDKN2A.

Answer 385

Transcription factor 24 (TCF-24) Q7RTU0 FUNCTION: Putative transcription factor.

Answer 386

Transcription elongation regulator 1-like protein Q5VWI1

Answer 387

T cell receptor alpha variable 35 P0DPF4 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .

Answer 388

T cell receptor alpha variable 1-2 A0A0B4J238 FUNCTION: V region of the variable domain of T cell receptor (TR) alpha chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Alpha-beta T cell receptors are antigen specific receptors which are essential to the immune response and are present on the cell surface of T lymphocytes. Recognize peptide-major histocompatibility (MH) (pMH) complexes that are displayed by antigen presenting cells (APC), a prerequisite for efficient T cell adaptive immunity against pathogens . Binding of alpha-beta TR to pMH complex initiates TR-CD3 clustering on the cell surface and intracellular activation of LCK that phosphorylates the ITAM motifs of CD3G, CD3D, CD3E and CD247 enabling the recruitment of ZAP70. In turn ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT, which recruits numerous signaling molecules to form the LAT signalosome. The LAT signalosome propagates signal branching to three major signaling pathways, the calcium, the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) kinase and the nuclear factor NF-kappa-B (NF-kB) pathways, leading to the mobilization of transcription factors that are critical for gene expression and essential for T cell growth and differentiation . The T cell repertoire is generated in the thymus, by V-(D)-J rearrangement. This repertoire is then shaped by intrathymic selection events to generate a peripheral T cell pool of self-MH restricted, non-autoaggressive T cells. Post-thymic interaction of alpha-beta TR with the pMH complexes shapes TR structural and functional avidity .