Human Genes Group 10 Flashcards

Question

TMTC3

Answer 1

Protein O-mannosyl-transferase TMTC3 (EC 2.1.109) (Protein SMILE) (Transmembrane and TPR repeat-containing protein 3) Q6ZXV5 FUNCTION: Transfers mannosyl residues to the hydroxyl group of serine or threonine residues. The 4 members of the TMTC family are O-mannosyl-transferases dedicated primarily to the cadherin superfamily, each member seems to have a distinct role in decorating the cadherin domains with O-linked mannose glycans at specific regions. Also acts as O-mannosyl-transferase on other proteins such as PDIA3 . Involved in the positive regulation of proteasomal protein degradation in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), and the control of ER stress response.

Answer 2

Transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily M member 5 (Long transient receptor potential channel 5) (LTrpC-5) (LTrpC5) (MLSN1- and TRP-related gene 1 protein) Q9NZQ8 FUNCTION: Voltage-modulated Ca(2+)-activated, monovalent cation channel (VCAM) that mediates a transient membrane depolarization and plays a central role in taste transduction. Monovalent-specific, non-selective cation channel that mediates the transport of Na(+), K(+) and Cs(+) ions equally well. Activated directly by increases in intracellular Ca(2+), but is impermeable to it. Gating is voltage-dependent and displays rapid activation and deactivation kinetics upon channel stimulation even during sustained elevations in Ca(2+). Also activated by a fast intracellular Ca(2+) increase in response to inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate-producing receptor agonists. The channel is blocked by extracellular acidification. External acidification has 2 effects, a fast reversible block of the current and a slower irreversible enhancement of current inactivation. Is a highly temperature-sensitive, heat activated channel showing a steep increase of inward currents at temperatures between 15 and 35 degrees Celsius. Heat activation is due to a shift of the voltage-dependent activation curve to negative potentials. Activated by arachidonic acid in vitro. May be involved in perception of bitter, sweet and umami tastes. May also be involved in sensing semiochemicals.

Answer 3

Thioredoxin-related transmembrane protein 1 (Thioredoxin domain-containing protein 1) (Transmembrane Trx-related protein) Q9H3N1 FUNCTION: May participate in various redox reactions through the reversible oxidation of its active center dithiol to a disulfide and catalyze dithiol-disulfide exchange reactions. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 4

Thioredoxin-related transmembrane protein 2 (Cell proliferation-inducing gene 26 protein) (Thioredoxin domain-containing protein 14) Q9Y320 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 5

Serine/threonine-protein kinase 16 (EC 2.11.1) (Myristoylated and palmitoylated serine/threonine-protein kinase) (MPSK) (Protein kinase PKL12) (TGF-beta-stimulated factor 1) (TSF-1) (Tyrosine-protein kinase STK16) (EC 2.10.2) (hPSK) O75716 FUNCTION: Membrane-associated protein kinase that phosphorylates on serine and threonine residues. In vitro substrates include DRG1, ENO1 and EIF4EBP1. Also autophosphorylates. May be involved in secretory vesicle trafficking or intracellular signaling. May have a role in regulating stromal-epithelial interactions that occur during ductal morphogenesis in the mammary gland. May be involved in TGF-beta signaling. Able to autophosphorylate on Tyr residue; it is however unclear whether it has tyrosine-protein kinase toward other proteins.

Answer 6

Transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily M member 7 (EC 2.11.1) (Channel-kinase 1) (Long transient receptor potential channel 7) (LTrpC-7) (LTrpC7) Q96QT4 FUNCTION: Essential ion channel and serine/threonine-protein kinase. Divalent cation channel permeable to calcium and magnesium. Has a central role in magnesium ion homeostasis and in the regulation of anoxic neuronal cell death. Involved in TNF-induced necroptosis downstream of MLKL by mediating calcium influx. The kinase activity is essential for the channel function. May be involved in a fundamental process that adjusts plasma membrane divalent cation fluxes according to the metabolic state of the cell. Phosphorylates annexin A1 (ANXA1).

Answer 7

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent tRNA 4-demethylwyosine synthase TYW1B (EC 4.3.44) (Radical S-adenosyl methionine and flavodoxin domain-containing protein 2) (tRNA wybutosine-synthesizing protein 1 homolog B) Q6NUM6 FUNCTION: Probable component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA. Catalyzes the condensation of N-methylguanine with 2 carbon atoms from pyruvate to form the tricyclic 4-demethylwyosine, an intermediate in wybutosine biosynthesis (By similarity).

Answer 8

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent tRNA 4-demethylwyosine synthase TYW1 (EC 4.3.44) (Radical S-adenosyl methionine and flavodoxin domain-containing protein 1) (tRNA wybutosine-synthesizing protein 1 homolog) (tRNA-yW-synthesizing protein) Q9NV66 FUNCTION: Probable component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA. Catalyzes the condensation of N-methylguanine with 2 carbon atoms from pyruvate to form the tricyclic 4-demethylwyosine, an intermediate in wybutosine biosynthesis (By similarity).

Answer 9

tRNA wybutosine-synthesizing protein 2 homolog (tRNA-yW-synthesizing protein 2) (EC 2.1.114) (tRNA(Phe) (4-demethylwyosine(37)-C(7)) aminocarboxypropyltransferase) Q53H54 FUNCTION: S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent transferase that acts as a component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA. Catalyzes the transfer of the alpha-amino-alpha-carboxypropyl (acp) group from S-adenosyl-L-methionine to the C-7 position of 4-demethylwyosine (imG-14) to produce wybutosine-86.

Answer 10

tRNA wybutosine-synthesizing protein 3 homolog (tRNA-yW-synthesizing protein 3) (EC 2.1.282) (tRNA(Phe) 7-((3-amino-3-carboxypropyl)-4-demethylwyosine(37)-N(4))-methyltransferase) Q6IPR3 FUNCTION: Probable S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that acts as a component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA (By similarity).

Answer 11

Transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily M member 8 (Long transient receptor potential channel 6) (LTrpC-6) (LTrpC6) (Transient receptor potential p8) (Trp-p8) Q7Z2W7 FUNCTION: Receptor-activated non-selective cation channel involved in detection of sensations such as coolness, by being activated by cold temperature below 25 degrees Celsius. Activated by icilin, eucalyptol, menthol, cold and modulation of intracellular pH. Involved in menthol sensation. Permeable for monovalent cations sodium, potassium, and cesium and divalent cation calcium. Temperature sensing is tightly linked to voltage-dependent gating. Activated upon depolarization, changes in temperature resulting in graded shifts of its voltage-dependent activation curves. The chemical agonist menthol functions as a gating modifier, shifting activation curves towards physiological membrane potentials. Temperature sensitivity arises from a tenfold difference in the activation energies associated with voltage-dependent opening and closing. In prostate cancer cells, shows strong inward rectification and high calcium selectivity in contrast to its behavior in normal cells which is characterized by outward rectification and poor cationic selectivity. Plays a role in prostate cancer cell migration . Isoform 2 and isoform 3 negatively regulate menthol- and cold-induced channel activity by stabilizing the closed state of the channel.

Answer 12

Serine/threonine-protein kinase 24 (EC 2.11.1) (Mammalian STE20-like protein kinase 3) (MST-3) (STE20-like kinase MST3) [Cleaved into: Serine/threonine-protein kinase 24 36 kDa subunit (Mammalian STE20-like protein kinase 3 N-terminal) (MST3/N); Serine/threonine-protein kinase 24 12 kDa subunit (Mammalian STE20-like protein kinase 3 C-terminal) (MST3/C)] Q9Y6E0 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts on both serine and threonine residues and promotes apoptosis in response to stress stimuli and caspase activation. Mediates oxidative-stress-induced cell death by modulating phosphorylation of JNK1-JNK2 (MAPK8 and MAPK9), p38 (MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and MAPK14) during oxidative stress. Plays a role in a staurosporine-induced caspase-independent apoptotic pathway by regulating the nuclear translocation of AIFM1 and ENDOG and the DNase activity associated with ENDOG. Phosphorylates STK38L on 'Thr-442' and stimulates its kinase activity. In association with STK26 negatively regulates Golgi reorientation in polarized cell migration upon RHO activation . Regulates also cellular migration with alteration of PTPN12 activity and PXN phosphorylation: phosphorylates PTPN12 and inhibits its activity and may regulate PXN phosphorylation through PTPN12. May act as a key regulator of axon regeneration in the optic nerve and radial nerve. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus. Membrane. Note=The truncated form (MST3/N) translocates to the nucleus. Colocalizes with STK38L in the membrane.

Answer 13

3-ketoacyl-CoA thiolase, mitochondrial (EC 2.1.16) (Acetyl-CoA acetyltransferase) (EC 2.1.9) (Acetyl-CoA acyltransferase) (Acyl-CoA hydrolase, mitochondrial) (EC 3.2.-) (EC 3.2.1) (EC 3.2.2) (Beta-ketothiolase) (Mitochondrial 3-oxoacyl-CoA thiolase) (T1) P42765 FUNCTION: In the production of energy from fats, this is one of the enzymes that catalyzes the last step of the mitochondrial beta-oxidation pathway, an aerobic process breaking down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA (Probable). Using free coenzyme A/CoA, catalyzes the thiolytic cleavage of medium- to long-chain unbranched 3-oxoacyl-CoAs into acetyl-CoA and a fatty acyl-CoA shortened by two carbon atoms (Probable). Also catalyzes the condensation of two acetyl-CoA molecules into acetoacetyl-CoA and could be involved in the production of ketone bodies (Probable). Also displays hydrolase activity on various fatty acyl-CoAs . Thereby, could be responsible for the production of acetate in a side reaction to beta-oxidation (Probable). Abolishes BNIP3-mediated apoptosis and mitochondrial damage .

Answer 14

tRNA wybutosine-synthesizing protein 4 (tRNA yW-synthesizing protein 4) (EC 2.1.290) (EC 2.1.231) (Leucine carboxyl methyltransferase 2) (tRNA(Phe) (7-(3-amino-3-(methoxycarbonyl)propyl)wyosine(37)-N)-methoxycarbonyltransferase) (tRNA(Phe) (7-(3-amino-3-carboxypropyl)wyosine(37)-O)-methyltransferase) O60294 FUNCTION: Probable S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that acts as a component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA (By similarity). May methylate the carboxyl group of leucine residues to form alpha-leucine ester residues.

Answer 15

Serine/threonine-protein kinase 36 (EC 2.11.1) (Fused homolog) Q9NRP7 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine protein kinase which plays an important role in the sonic hedgehog (Shh) pathway by regulating the activity of GLI transcription factors . Controls the activity of the transcriptional regulators GLI1, GLI2 and GLI3 by opposing the effect of SUFU and promoting their nuclear localization . GLI2 requires an additional function of STK36 to become transcriptionally active, but the enzyme does not need to possess an active kinase catalytic site for this to occur . Required for postnatal development, possibly by regulating the homeostasis of cerebral spinal fluid or ciliary function (By similarity). Essential for construction of the central pair apparatus of motile cilia.

Answer 16

Transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 2 (TrpV2) (Osm-9-like TRP channel 2) (OTRPC2) (Vanilloid receptor-like protein 1) (VRL-1) Q9Y5S1 FUNCTION: Calcium-permeable, non-selective cation channel with an outward rectification. Seems to be regulated, at least in part, by IGF-I, PDGF and neuropeptide head activator. May transduce physical stimuli in mast cells. Activated by temperatures higher than 52 degrees Celsius; is not activated by vanilloids and acidic pH.

Answer 17

Transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 4 (TrpV4) (Osm-9-like TRP channel 4) (OTRPC4) (Transient receptor potential protein 12) (TRP12) (Vanilloid receptor-like channel 2) (Vanilloid receptor-like protein 2) (VRL-2) (Vanilloid receptor-related osmotically-activated channel) (VR-OAC) Q9HBA0 FUNCTION: Non-selective calcium permeant cation channel involved in osmotic sensitivity and mechanosensitivity. Activation by exposure to hypotonicity within the physiological range exhibits an outward rectification (, ). Also activated by heat, low pH, citrate and phorbol esters (, , , , , ). Increase of intracellular Ca(2+) potentiates currents. Channel activity seems to be regulated by a calmodulin-dependent mechanism with a negative feedback mechanism (, ). Promotes cell-cell junction formation in skin keratinocytes and plays an important role in the formation and/or maintenance of functional intercellular barriers (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of intracellular Ca(2+) in synoviocytes . Plays an obligatory role as a molecular component in the nonselective cation channel activation induced by 4-alpha-phorbol 12,13-didecanoate and hypotonic stimulation in synoviocytes and also regulates production of IL-8 . Together with PKD2, forms mechano- and thermosensitive channels in cilium . Negatively regulates expression of PPARGC1A, UCP1, oxidative metabolism and respiration in adipocytes (By similarity). Regulates expression of chemokines and cytokines related to proinflammatory pathway in adipocytes (By similarity). Together with AQP5, controls regulatory volume decrease in salivary epithelial cells (By similarity). Required for normal development and maintenance of bone and cartilage .

Answer 18

Telomere zinc finger-associated protein (TZAP) (Krueppel-related zinc finger protein 3) (hKR3) (Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 48) (Zinc finger protein 855) P10074 FUNCTION: Telomere-binding protein that acts as a regulator of telomere length (, ). Directly binds the telomeric double-stranded 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeat (, ). Preferentially binds to telomeres that have a low concentration of shelterin complex and acts as a regulator of telomere length by initiating telomere trimming, a process that prevents the accumulation of aberrantly long telomeres . Also acts as a transcription regulator that binds to promoter regions (, , ). Regulates expression of a small subset of genes, including MTFP1 . Regulates expression the J and/or S elements in MHC II promoter . Acts as a negative regulator of cell proliferation by specifically activating expression of ARF, a tumor suppressor isoform of CDKN2A .

Answer 19

Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 17-like protein 1 (EC 3.19.12) (Deubiquitinating enzyme 17-like protein 1) (Ubiquitin thioesterase 17-like protein 1) (Ubiquitin-specific-processing protease 17-like protein 1) Q7RTZ2 FUNCTION: Deubiquitinating enzyme that removes conjugated ubiquitin from specific proteins to regulate different cellular processes that may include cell proliferation, progression through the cell cycle, apoptosis, cell migration, and the cellular response to viral infection.

Answer 20

Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 17-like protein 5 (EC 3.19.12) (Deubiquitinating enzyme 17-like protein 5) (Ubiquitin thioesterase 17-like protein 5) (Ubiquitin-specific-processing protease 17-like protein 5) A8MUK1 FUNCTION: Deubiquitinating enzyme that removes conjugated ubiquitin from specific proteins to regulate different cellular processes that may include cell proliferation, progression through the cell cycle, apoptosis, cell migration, and the cellular response to viral infection.

Answer 21

Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 17-like protein 10 (EC 3.19.12) C9JJH3 FUNCTION: Deubiquitinating enzyme that removes conjugated ubiquitin from specific proteins to regulate different cellular processes that may include cell proliferation, progression through the cell cycle, apoptosis, cell migration, and the cellular response to viral infection.

Answer 22

Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 17-like protein 11 (EC 3.19.12) C9JVI0 FUNCTION: Deubiquitinating enzyme that removes conjugated ubiquitin from specific proteins to regulate different cellular processes that may include cell proliferation, progression through the cell cycle, apoptosis, cell migration, and the cellular response to viral infection.

Answer 23

Dimethyladenosine transferase 1, mitochondrial (EC 2.1.-) (Mitochondrial 12S rRNA dimethylase 1) (Mitochondrial transcription factor B1) (h-mtTFB) (h-mtTFB1) (hTFB1M) (mtTFB1) (S-adenosylmethionine-6-N', N'-adenosyl(rRNA) dimethyltransferase 1) Q8WVM0 FUNCTION: S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase which specifically dimethylates mitochondrial 12S rRNA at the conserved stem loop. Also required for basal transcription of mitochondrial DNA, probably via its interaction with POLRMT and TFAM. Stimulates transcription independently of the methyltransferase activity.

Answer 24

Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 17-like protein 22 (EC 3.19.12) D6RA61 FUNCTION: Deubiquitinating enzyme that removes conjugated ubiquitin from specific proteins to regulate different cellular processes that may include cell proliferation, progression through the cell cycle, apoptosis, cell migration, and the cellular response to viral infection.

Answer 25

28S ribosomal protein S11, mitochondrial (MRP-S11) (S11mt) (Cervical cancer proto-oncogene 2 protein) (HCC-2) (Mitochondrial small ribosomal subunit protein uS11m) P82912 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 26

Carabin (TBC1 domain family member 10C) Q8IV04 FUNCTION: Inhibits the Ras signaling pathway through its intrinsic Ras GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity. Acts as a negative feedback inhibitor of the calcineurin signaling pathway that also mediates crosstalk between calcineurin and Ras.

Answer 27

Protein THEMIS (Thymocyte-expressed molecule involved in selection) Q8N1K5 FUNCTION: Plays a central role in late thymocyte development by controlling both positive and negative T-cell selection. Required to sustain and/or integrate signals required for proper lineage commitment and maturation of T-cells. Regulates T-cell development through T-cell antigen receptor (TCR) signaling and in particular through the regulation of calcium influx and phosphorylation of Erk.

Answer 28

Protein THEMIS2 (Induced by contact to basement membrane 1 protein) (Protein ICB-1) (Thymocyte-expressed molecule involved in selection protein 2) Q5TEJ8 FUNCTION: May constitute a control point in macrophage inflammatory response, promoting LPS-induced TNF production.

Answer 29

28S ribosomal protein S12, mitochondrial (MRP-S12) (S12mt) (MT-RPS12) (Mitochondrial small ribosomal subunit protein uS12m) O15235 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 30

Xin actin-binding repeat-containing protein 2 (Beta-xin) (Cardiomyopathy-associated protein 3) (Xeplin) A4UGR9 FUNCTION: Protects actin filaments from depolymerization.

Answer 31

Storkhead-box protein 1 (Winged-helix domain-containing protein) Q6ZVD7 FUNCTION: Involved in regulating the levels of reactive oxidative species and reactive nitrogen species and in mitochondrial homeostasis in the placenta . Required for regulation of inner ear epithelial cell proliferation via the AKT signaling pathway (By similarity).; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform B]: Nucleus.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform C]: Nucleus, nucleolus.

Answer 32

Transmembrane protein 106A Q96A25 FUNCTION: Activates macrophages and polarizes them into M1-like macrophages through the activation of the MAPK and NF-kappaB signaling pathway. Upon activation, upregulates the expression of CD80, CD86, CD69 and MHC II on macrophages, and induces the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines such as TNF, IL1B, IL6, CCL2 and nitric oxide (By similarity). May play a role in inhibition of proliferation and migration (, ).

Answer 33

TBC1 domain family member 22B Q9NU19 FUNCTION: May act as a GTPase-activating protein for Rab family protein(s).

Answer 34

28S ribosomal protein S15, mitochondrial (MRP-S15) (S15mt) (Mitochondrial small ribosomal subunit protein uS15m) P82914 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 35

28S ribosomal protein S16, mitochondrial (MRP-S16) (S16mt) (Mitochondrial small ribosomal subunit protein bS16m) Q9Y3D3 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 36

Tubulin alpha-1B chain (Alpha-tubulin ubiquitous) (Tubulin K-alpha-1) (Tubulin alpha-ubiquitous chain) [Cleaved into: Detyrosinated tubulin alpha-1B chain] P68363 FUNCTION: Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules. It binds two moles of GTP, one at an exchangeable site on the beta chain and one at a non-exchangeable site on the alpha chain. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton.

Answer 37

Transmembrane protein 184A Q6ZMB5 FUNCTION: Acts as a heparin receptor in vascular cells (By similarity). May be involved in vesicle transport in exocrine cells and Sertoli cells (By similarity).

Answer 38

STE20-related kinase adapter protein alpha (STRAD alpha) (STE20-related adapter protein) (Serologically defined breast cancer antigen NY-BR-96) Q7RTN6 FUNCTION: Pseudokinase which, in complex with CAB39/MO25 (CAB39/MO25alpha or CAB39L/MO25beta), binds to and activates STK11/LKB1. Adopts a closed conformation typical of active protein kinases and binds STK11/LKB1 as a pseudosubstrate, promoting conformational change of STK11/LKB1 in an active conformation.

Answer 39

Transmembrane protein 183A Q8IXX5 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 40

Trefoil factor 1 (Breast cancer estrogen-inducible protein) (PNR-2) (Polypeptide P1.A) (hP1.A) (Protein pS2) P04155 FUNCTION: Stabilizer of the mucous gel overlying the gastrointestinal mucosa that provides a physical barrier against various noxious agents. May inhibit the growth of calcium oxalate crystals in urine.

Answer 41

Protein TFG (TRK-fused gene protein) Q92734 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the normal dynamic function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and its associated microtubules (, ). Required for secretory cargo traffic from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus .

Answer 42

Trefoil factor 2 (Spasmolysin) (Spasmolytic polypeptide) (SP) Q03403 FUNCTION: Inhibits gastrointestinal motility and gastric acid secretion. Could function as a structural component of gastric mucus, possibly by stabilizing glycoproteins in the mucus gel through interactions with carbohydrate side chains (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 43

Transmembrane protein 229A B2RXF0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 44

Transmembrane protein 200B (Transmembrane protein TTMA) (Two transmembrane domain-containing family member B) Q69YZ2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 45

Tubulin beta-2B chain Q9BVA1 FUNCTION: Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules (, , ). It binds two moles of GTP, one at an exchangeable site on the beta chain and one at a non-exchangeable site on the alpha chain (By similarity). Plays a critical role in proper axon guidance in both central and peripheral axon tracts . Implicated in neuronal migration .

Answer 46

Probable tRNA pseudouridine synthase 1 (EC 5.99.-) Q8WWH5 FUNCTION: Pseudouridine synthase that catalyzes pseudouridylation of mRNAs . Mediates pseudouridylation of mRNAs with the consensus sequence 5'-GUUCNANNC-3', harboring a stem-loop structure . Constitutes the major pseudouridine synthase acting on mRNAs .

Answer 47

Thy-1 membrane glycoprotein (CDw90) (Thy-1 antigen) (CD antigen CD90) P04216 FUNCTION: May play a role in cell-cell or cell-ligand interactions during synaptogenesis and other events in the brain. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 48

Steryl-sulfatase (EC 3.6.2) (Arylsulfatase C) (ASC) (Estrone sulfatase) (Steroid sulfatase) (Steryl-sulfate sulfohydrolase) P08842 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the conversion of sulfated steroid precursors, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S) and estrone sulfate to the free steroid. ; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 49

NEDD4 family-interacting protein 2 (NEDD4 WW domain-binding protein 5A) (Putative MAPK-activating protein PM04/PM05/PM06/PM07) (Putative NF-kappa-B-activating protein 413) Q9NV92 FUNCTION: Activates HECT domain-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases, including ITCH, NEDD4, NEDD4L, SMURF2, WWP1 and WWP2, and consequently modulates the stability of their targets. As a result, may control many cellular processes. Recruits ITCH, NEDD4 and SMURF2 to endosomal membranes. Negatively regulates KCNH2 potassium channel activity by decreasing its cell-surface expression and interfering with channel maturation through recruitment of NEDD4L to the Golgi apparatus and multivesicular body where it mediates KCNH2 degradation . May modulate EGFR signaling. Together with NDFIP1, limits the cytokine signaling and expansion of effector Th2 T-cells by promoting degradation of JAK1, probably by ITCH- and NEDD4L-mediated ubiquitination (By similarity).

Answer 50

NFU1 iron-sulfur cluster scaffold homolog, mitochondrial (HIRA-interacting protein 5) Q9UMS0 FUNCTION: Iron-sulfur cluster scaffold protein which can assemble [4Fe-4S] clusters and deliver them to target proteins. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion. Cytoplasm, cytosol.

Answer 51

5'(3')-deoxyribonucleotidase, mitochondrial (5',3'-nucleotidase, mitochondrial) (EC 3.3.-) (Deoxy-5'-nucleotidase 2) (dNT-2) Q9NPB1 FUNCTION: Dephosphorylates specifically the 5' and 2'(3')-phosphates of uracil and thymine deoxyribonucleotides, and so protects mitochondrial DNA replication from excess dTTP. Has only marginal activity towards dIMP and dGMP.

Answer 52

Rab effector MyRIP (Exophilin-8) (Myosin-VIIa- and Rab-interacting protein) (Synaptotagmin-like protein lacking C2 domains C) (SlaC2-c) (Slp homolog lacking C2 domains c) Q8NFW9 FUNCTION: Rab effector protein involved in melanosome transport. Serves as link between melanosome-bound RAB27A and the motor proteins MYO5A and MYO7A. May link RAB27A-containing vesicles to actin filaments. Functions as a protein kinase A-anchoring protein (AKAP). May act as a scaffolding protein that links PKA to components of the exocytosis machinery, thus facilitating exocytosis, including insulin release (By similarity).

Answer 53

PSME3-interacting protein (NEFA-interacting nuclear protein NIP30) (PA28G-interacting protein) Q9GZU8 FUNCTION: Promotes the association of the proteasome activator complex subunit PSME3 with the 20S proteasome and regulates its activity. Inhibits PSME3-mediated degradation of some proteasome substrates, probably by affecting their diffusion rate into the catalytic chamber of the proteasome. Also inhibits the interaction of PSME3 with COIL, inhibits accumulation of PSME3 in Cajal bodies and positively regulates the number of Cajal bodies in the nucleus.

Answer 54

39S ribosomal protein L52, mitochondrial (L52mt) (MRP-L52) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein mL52) Q86TS9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 55

Peroxisomal membrane protein PMP34 (34 kDa peroxisomal membrane protein) (Solute carrier family 25 member 17) O43808 FUNCTION: Peroxisomal transporter for multiple cofactors like coenzyme A (CoA), flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD), flavin mononucleotide (FMN) and nucleotide adenosine monophosphate (AMP), and to a lesser extent for nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD(+)), adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and adenosine 3',5'-diphosphate (PAP). May catalyze the transport of free CoA, FAD and NAD(+) from the cytosol into the peroxisomal matrix by a counter-exchange mechanism. Inhibited by pyridoxal 5'-phosphate and bathophenanthroline in vitro. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Peroxisome membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 56

Paraneoplastic antigen Ma6F A0A0J9YX94

Answer 57

39S ribosomal protein L54, mitochondrial (L54mt) (MRP-L54) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein mL54) Q6P161 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 58

Pirin (EC 1.13.11.24) (Probable quercetin 2,3-dioxygenase PIR) (Probable quercetinase) O00625 FUNCTION: Transcriptional coregulator of NF-kappa-B which facilitates binding of NF-kappa-B proteins to target kappa-B genes in a redox-state-dependent manner. May be required for efficient terminal myeloid maturation of hematopoietic cells. Has quercetin 2,3-dioxygenase activity (in vitro).

Answer 59

Protein phosphatase methylesterase 1 (PME-1) (EC 3.1.89) Q9Y570 FUNCTION: Demethylates proteins that have been reversibly carboxymethylated. Demethylates PPP2CB (in vitro) and PPP2CA. Binding to PPP2CA displaces the manganese ion and inactivates the enzyme.

Answer 60

Pleckstrin homology domain-containing family F member 1 (PH domain-containing family F member 1) (Lysosome-associated apoptosis-inducing protein containing PH and FYVE domains) (Apoptosis-inducing protein) (PH and FYVE domain-containing protein 1) (Phafin-1) (Zinc finger FYVE domain-containing protein 15) Q96S99 FUNCTION: May induce apoptosis through the lysosomal-mitochondrial pathway. Translocates to the lysosome initiating the permeabilization of lysosomal membrane (LMP) and resulting in the release of CTSD and CTSL to the cytoplasm. Triggers the caspase-independent apoptosis by altering mitochondrial membrane permeabilization (MMP) resulting in the release of PDCD8. Note=Translocates to lysosome during apoptosis.

Answer 61

Protein phosphatase 1 regulatory subunit 27 (Dysferlin-interacting protein 1) (Toonin) Q86WC6 FUNCTION: Inhibits phosphatase activity of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) complexes.

Answer 62

Protein kinase C-binding protein 1 (Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma-associated antigen se14-3) (CTCL-associated antigen se14-3) (Rack7) (Zinc finger MYND domain-containing protein 8) Q9ULU4 FUNCTION: May act as a transcriptional corepressor for KDM5D. Required for KDM5D-mediated down-regulation of diverse metastasis-associated genes; the function seems to involve the recognition of the dual histone signature H3K4me1-H3K14ac. Suppresses prostate cancer cell invasion.

Answer 63

39S ribosomal protein L1, mitochondrial (L1mt) (MRP-L1) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein uL1m) Q9BYD6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 64

39S ribosomal protein L16, mitochondrial (L16mt) (MRP-L16) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein uL16m) Q9NX20 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 65

RNA-binding protein 44 (RNA-binding motif protein 44) Q6ZP01 FUNCTION: Component of intercellular bridges during meiosis. Intercellular bridges are evolutionarily conserved structures that connect differentiating germ cells. Not required for fertility (By similarity).

Answer 66

Pentraxin-4 Q96A99 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 67

SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily A containing DEAD/H box 1 (EC 3.4.12) (ATP-dependent helicase 1) (hHEL1) Q9H4L7 FUNCTION: DNA helicase that possesses intrinsic ATP-dependent nucleosome-remodeling activity and is both required for DNA repair and heterochromatin organization. Promotes DNA end resection of double-strand breaks (DSBs) following DNA damage: probably acts by weakening histone DNA interactions in nucleosomes flanking DSBs. Required for the restoration of heterochromatin organization after replication. Acts at replication sites to facilitate the maintenance of heterochromatin by directing H3 and H4 histones deacetylation, H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation (H3K9me3) and restoration of silencing. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Chromosome. Note=Colocalizes with PCNA at replication forks during S phase. Recruited to double-strand breaks (DSBs) sites of DNA damage.

Answer 68

Tripeptidyl-peptidase 1 (TPP-1) (EC 3.14.9) (Cell growth-inhibiting gene 1 protein) (Lysosomal pepstatin-insensitive protease) (LPIC) (Tripeptidyl aminopeptidase) (Tripeptidyl-peptidase I) (TPP-I) O14773 FUNCTION: Lysosomal serine protease with tripeptidyl-peptidase I activity (, , ). May act as a non-specific lysosomal peptidase which generates tripeptides from the breakdown products produced by lysosomal proteinases (, , ). Requires substrates with an unsubstituted N-terminus .

Answer 69

Submaxillary gland androgen-regulated protein 3B (Proline-rich peptide P-B) (Proline-rich protein 3) [Cleaved into: Peptide P-A; Peptide D1A] P02814 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 70

Phosphatidylcholine:ceramide cholinephosphotransferase 2 (EC 2.8.27) (Sphingomyelin synthase 2) Q8NHU3 FUNCTION: Sphingomyelin synthases synthesize the sphingolipid, sphingomyelin, through transfer of the phosphatidyl head group, phosphatidylcholine, on to the primary hydroxyl of ceramide . The reaction is bidirectional depending on the respective levels of the sphingolipid and ceramide. Plasma membrane SMS2 can also convert phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) to ceramide phosphatidylethanolamine (CPE). Major form in liver. Required for cell growth in certain cell types. Regulator of cell surface levels of ceramide, an important mediator of signal transduction and apoptosis. Regulation of sphingomyelin (SM) levels at the cell surface affects insulin sensitivity. Involved in the regulation of bone mineralization . Golgi apparatus membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Note=Predominantly plasma membrane, some in Golgi apparatus. Some localization in the perinuclear region where it colocalizes with a sialyltransferase.

Answer 71

Speedy protein E3 A6NKU9

Answer 72

SET and MYND domain-containing protein 5 (EC 2.1.-) (Protein NN8-4AG) (Retinoic acid-induced protein 15) Q6GMV2

Answer 73

snRNA-activating protein complex subunit 3 (SNAPc subunit 3) (Proximal sequence element-binding transcription factor subunit beta) (PSE-binding factor subunit beta) (PTF subunit beta) (Small nuclear RNA-activating complex polypeptide 3) (snRNA-activating protein complex 50 kDa subunit) (SNAPc 50 kDa subunit) Q92966 FUNCTION: Part of the SNAPc complex required for the transcription of both RNA polymerase II and III small-nuclear RNA genes. Binds to the proximal sequence element (PSE), a non-TATA-box basal promoter element common to these 2 types of genes. Recruits TBP and BRF2 to the U6 snRNA TATA box. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 74

Spermatid maturation protein 1 Q8N4L4 FUNCTION: Required for proper cytoplasm removal during spermatogenesis.

Answer 75

Paraplegin (EC 3.24.-) (Cell matrix adhesion regulator) (Spastic paraplegia 7 protein) Q9UQ90 FUNCTION: ATP-dependent zinc metalloprotease. Plays a role in the formation and regulation of the mitochondrial permeability transition pore (mPTP) and its proteolytic activity is dispensable for this function .

Answer 76

Saccharopine dehydrogenase-like oxidoreductase (EC 1.-.-) Q8NBX0

Answer 77

Sorting nexin-20 (Selectin ligand-interactor cytoplasmic 1) (SLIC-1) Q7Z614 FUNCTION: May play a role in cellular vesicle trafficking. Has been proposed to function as a sorting protein that targets SELPLG into endosomes, but has no effect on SELPLG internalization from the cell surface, or on SELPLG-mediated cell-cell adhesion.

Answer 78

Sorting nexin-22 Q96L94 FUNCTION: May be involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking (By similarity). Interacts with membranes containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)).

Answer 79

Sorting nexin-27 Q96L92 FUNCTION: Involved in the retrograde transport from endosome to plasma membrane, a trafficking pathway that promotes the recycling of internalized transmembrane proteins. Following internalization, endocytosed transmembrane proteins are delivered to early endosomes and recycled to the plasma membrane instead of being degraded in lysosomes. SNX27 specifically binds and directs sorting of a subset of transmembrane proteins containing a PDZ-binding motif at the C-terminus: following interaction with target transmembrane proteins, associates with the retromer complex, preventing entry into the lysosomal pathway, and promotes retromer-tubule based plasma membrane recycling. SNX27 also binds with the WASH complex. Interacts with membranes containing phosphatidylinositol-3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)). May participate in establishment of natural killer cell polarity. Recruits CYTIP to early endosomes. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Early endosome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Cytoplasm, cytosol. Note=Localizes to immunological synapse in T-cells. In T-cells, recruited from the cytosol to sorting endosomes by phosphoinositide-3-kinase products.

Answer 80

T cell receptor delta constant B7Z8K6 FUNCTION: Constant region of T cell receptor (TR) delta chain that participates in the antigen recognition . Gamma-delta TRs recognize a variety of self and foreign non-peptide antigens frequently expressed at the epithelial boundaries between the host and external environment, including endogenous lipids presented by MH-like protein CD1D and phosphoantigens presented by butyrophilin-like molecule BTN3A1. Upon antigen recognition induces rapid, innate-like immune responses involved in pathogen clearance and tissue repair (, ). Binding of gamma-delta TR complex to antigen triggers phosphorylation of immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs (ITAMs) in the CD3 chains by the LCK and FYN kinases, allowing the recruitment, phosphorylation, and activation of ZAP70 that facilitates phosphorylation of the scaffolding proteins LCP2 and LAT. This lead to the formation of a supramolecular signalosome that recruits the phospholipase PLCG1, resulting in calcium mobilization and ERK activation, ultimately leading to T cell expansion and differentiation into effector cells . Gamma-delta TRs are produced through somatic rearrangement of a limited repertoire of variable (V), diversity (D), and joining (J) genes. The potential diversity of gamma-delta TRs is conferred by the unique ability to rearrange (D) genes in tandem and to utilize all three reading frames. The combinatorial diversity is considerably increased by the sequence exonuclease trimming and random nucleotide (N) region additions which occur during the V-(D)-J rearrangements .

Answer 81

Spindlin-2A (Protein DXF34) (Spindlin-like protein 2A) (SPIN-2) (SPIN-2A) Q99865 FUNCTION: May be involved in the regulation of cell cycle progression (By similarity). Exhibits H3K4me3-binding activity .

Answer 82

Probable glutamate--tRNA ligase, mitochondrial (EC 6.1.17) (Glutamyl-tRNA synthetase) (GluRS) Q5JPH6 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the attachment of glutamate to tRNA(Glu) in a two-step reaction: glutamate is first activated by ATP to form Glu-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Glu).

Answer 83

Triggering receptor expressed on myeloid cells 2 (TREM-2) (Triggering receptor expressed on monocytes 2) Q9NZC2 FUNCTION: Forms a receptor signaling complex with TYROBP which mediates signaling and cell activation following ligand binding . Acts as a receptor for amyloid-beta protein 42, a cleavage product of the amyloid-beta precursor protein APP, and mediates its uptake and degradation by microglia (, ). Binding to amyloid-beta 42 mediates microglial activation, proliferation, migration, apoptosis and expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as IL6R and CCL3, and the anti-inflammatory cytokine ARG1 (By similarity). Acts as a receptor for lipoprotein particles such as LDL, VLDL, and HDL and for apolipoproteins such as APOA1, APOA2, APOB, APOE, APOE2, APOE3, APOE4, and CLU and enhances their uptake in microglia . Binds phospholipids (preferably anionic lipids) such as phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylglycerol and sphingomyelin . Regulates microglial proliferation by acting as an upstream regulator of the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling cascade (By similarity). Required for microglial phagocytosis of apoptotic neurons . Also required for microglial activation and phagocytosis of myelin debris after neuronal injury and of neuronal synapses during synapse elimination in the developing brain (By similarity). Regulates microglial chemotaxis and process outgrowth, and also the microglial response to oxidative stress and lipopolysaccharide (By similarity). It suppresses PI3K and NF-kappa-B signaling in response to lipopolysaccharide; thus promoting phagocytosis, suppressing pro-inflammatory cytokine and nitric oxide production, inhibiting apoptosis and increasing expression of IL10 and TGFB (By similarity). During oxidative stress, it promotes anti-apoptotic NF-kappa-B signaling and ERK signaling (By similarity). Plays a role in microglial MTOR activation and metabolism (By similarity). Regulates age-related changes in microglial numbers . Triggers activation of the immune responses in macrophages and dendritic cells . Mediates cytokine-induced formation of multinucleated giant cells which are formed by the fusion of macrophages (By similarity). In dendritic cells, it mediates up-regulation of chemokine receptor CCR7 and dendritic cell maturation and survival . Involved in the positive regulation of osteoclast differentiation .

Answer 84

TOX high mobility group box family member 2 (Granulosa cell HMG box protein 1) (GCX-1) Q96NM4 FUNCTION: Putative transcriptional activator involved in the hypothalamo-pituitary-gonadal system. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 85

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone receptor (TRH-R) (Thyroliberin receptor) P34981 FUNCTION: Receptor for thyrotropin-releasing hormone. This receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 86

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone-degrading ectoenzyme (TRH-DE) (TRH-degrading ectoenzyme) (EC 3.19.6) (Pyroglutamyl-peptidase II) (PAP-II) (TRH-specific aminopeptidase) (Thyroliberinase) Q9UKU6 FUNCTION: Specific inactivation of TRH after its release. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein.

Answer 87

Selenoprotein S (SelS) (VCP-interacting membrane protein) Q9BQE4 FUNCTION: Involved in the degradation process of misfolded endoplasmic reticulum (ER) luminal proteins. Participates in the transfer of misfolded proteins from the ER to the cytosol, where they are destroyed by the proteasome in a ubiquitin-dependent manner. Probably acts by serving as a linker between DERL1, which mediates the retrotranslocation of misfolded proteins into the cytosol, and the ATPase complex VCP, which mediates the translocation and ubiquitination.

Answer 88

Protein SDA1 homolog (Nucleolar protein 130) (SDA1 domain-containing protein 1) (hSDA) Q9NVU7 FUNCTION: Required for 60S pre-ribosomal subunits export to the cytoplasm.

Answer 89

Sperm protein associated with the nucleus on the X chromosome A (Cancer/testis antigen 11.1) (CT11.1) (Nuclear-associated protein SPAN-Xa) (SPAN-X) (SPANX-A) (SPANX family member A) Q9NS26 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm . Note=Associated with nuclear craters.

Answer 90

Tripartite motif-containing protein 29 (Ataxia telangiectasia group D-associated protein) Q14134 FUNCTION: Plays a crucial role in the regulation of macrophage activation in response to viral or bacterial infections within the respiratory tract. Mechanistically, TRIM29 interacts with IKBKG/NEMO in the lysosome where it induces its 'Lys-48' ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. In turn, the expression of type I interferons and the production of proinflammatory cytokines are inhibited. Additionally, induces the 'Lys-48' ubiquitination of TMEM173/STING in a similar way, leading to its degradation. Note=Colocalizes with intermediate filaments.

Answer 91

Semaphorin-4C Q9C0C4 FUNCTION: Cell surface receptor for PLXNB2 that plays an important role in cell-cell signaling. PLXNB2 binding promotes downstream activation of RHOA and phosphorylation of ERBB2 at 'Tyr-1248'. Required for normal brain development, axon guidance and cell migration (By similarity). Probable signaling receptor which may play a role in myogenic differentiation through activation of the stress-activated MAPK cascade.

Answer 92

Semaphorin-4G Q9NTN9 FUNCTION: Cell surface receptor for PLXNB2. May play a role in axon guidance (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 93

Target of rapamycin complex 2 subunit MAPKAP1 (TORC2 subunit MAPKAP1) (Mitogen-activated protein kinase 2-associated protein 1) (Stress-activated map kinase-interacting protein 1) (SAPK-interacting protein 1) (mSIN1) Q9BPZ7 FUNCTION: Subunit of mTORC2, which regulates cell growth and survival in response to hormonal signals. mTORC2 is activated by growth factors, but, in contrast to mTORC1, seems to be nutrient-insensitive. mTORC2 seems to function upstream of Rho GTPases to regulate the actin cytoskeleton, probably by activating one or more Rho-type guanine nucleotide exchange factors. mTORC2 promotes the serum-induced formation of stress-fibers or F-actin. mTORC2 plays a critical role in AKT1 'Ser-473' phosphorylation, which may facilitate the phosphorylation of the activation loop of AKT1 on 'Thr-308' by PDK1 which is a prerequisite for full activation. mTORC2 regulates the phosphorylation of SGK1 at 'Ser-422'. mTORC2 also modulates the phosphorylation of PRKCA on 'Ser-657'. Within mTORC2, MAPKAP1 is required for complex formation and mTORC2 kinase activity. MAPKAP1 inhibits MAP3K2 by preventing its dimerization and autophosphorylation. Inhibits HRAS and KRAS signaling. Enhances osmotic stress-induced phosphorylation of ATF2 and ATF2-mediated transcription. Involved in ciliogenesis, regulates cilia length through its interaction with CCDC28B independently of mTORC2 complex. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Cytoplasmic vesicle. Nucleus.

Answer 94

Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 5 (B-cell surface antigen CD40) (Bp50) (CD40L receptor) (CDw40) (CD antigen CD40) P25942 FUNCTION: Receptor for TNFSF5/CD40LG . Transduces TRAF6- and MAP3K8-mediated signals that activate ERK in macrophages and B cells, leading to induction of immunoglobulin secretion (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform I]: Cell membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform II]: Secreted.

Answer 95

Sideroflexin-3 Q9BWM7 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial serine transporter that mediates transport of serine into mitochondria, an important step of the one-carbon metabolism pathway . Mitochondrial serine is converted to glycine and formate, which then exits to the cytosol where it is used to generate the charged folates that serve as one-carbon donors .

Answer 96

Pulmonary surfactant-associated protein A1 (PSP-A) (PSPA) (SP-A) (SP-A1) (35 kDa pulmonary surfactant-associated protein) (Alveolar proteinosis protein) (Collectin-4) Q8IWL2 FUNCTION: In presence of calcium ions, it binds to surfactant phospholipids and contributes to lower the surface tension at the air-liquid interface in the alveoli of the mammalian lung and is essential for normal respiration. Enhances the expression of MYO18A/SP-R210 on alveolar macrophages (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix. Secreted, extracellular space, surface film.

Answer 97

NAD-dependent protein deacetylase sirtuin-3, mitochondrial (hSIRT3) (EC 2.1.286) (Regulatory protein SIR2 homolog 3) (SIR2-like protein 3) Q9NTG7 FUNCTION: NAD-dependent protein deacetylase (, , , , , , , , ). Activates or deactivates mitochondrial target proteins by deacetylating key lysine residues (, , , , , , , ). Known targets include ACSS1, IDH, GDH, SOD2, PDHA1, LCAD, SDHA and the ATP synthase subunit ATP5PO (, , , , ). Contributes to the regulation of the cellular energy metabolism . Important for regulating tissue-specific ATP levels . In response to metabolic stress, deacetylates transcription factor FOXO3 and recruits FOXO3 and mitochondrial RNA polymerase POLRMT to mtDNA to promote mtDNA transcription . Acts as a regulator of ceramide metabolism by mediating deacetylation of ceramide synthases CERS1, CERS2 and CERS6, thereby increasing their activity and promoting mitochondrial ceramide accumulation (By similarity).

Answer 98

Inactive sodium-dependent neutral amino acid transporter B(0)AT3 (Sodium- and chloride-dependent transporter XTRP2) (Solute carrier family 6 member 18) (System B(0) neutral amino acid transporter AT3) Q96N87 FUNCTION: Does not show neutral amino acid transporter activity.

Answer 99

Surfactant-associated protein 2 (Surfactant-associated protein G) (SP-G) Q6UW10 FUNCTION: Putative surfactant protein.

Answer 100

Serum amyloid A-4 protein (Constitutively expressed serum amyloid A protein) (C-SAA) P35542 FUNCTION: Major acute phase reactant. Apolipoprotein of the HDL complex. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 101

Serine racemase (EC 5.1.18) (D-serine ammonia-lyase) (D-serine dehydratase) (EC 4.1.18) (L-serine ammonia-lyase) (L-serine dehydratase) (EC 4.1.17) Q9GZT4 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the synthesis of D-serine from L-serine. D-serine is a key coagonist with glutamate at NMDA receptors. Has dehydratase activity towards both L-serine and D-serine.

Answer 102

Chemokine-like protein TAFA-3 Q7Z5A8 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the regulation of microglia polarization.

Answer 103

Sialic acid synthase (N-acetylneuraminate synthase) (EC 2.1.56) (N-acetylneuraminate-9-phosphate synthase) (EC 2.1.57) (N-acetylneuraminic acid phosphate synthase) (N-acetylneuraminic acid synthase) Q9NR45 FUNCTION: Produces N-acetylneuraminic acid (Neu5Ac) and 2-keto-3-deoxy-D-glycero-D-galacto-nononic acid (KDN). Can also use N-acetylmannosamine 6-phosphate and mannose 6-phosphate as substrates to generate phosphorylated forms of Neu5Ac and KDN, respectively.

Answer 104

Synaptic vesicle 2-related protein (SV2-related protein) Q8N4V2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasmic vesicle, secretory vesicle, synaptic vesicle membrane .

Answer 105

Transcription initiation factor TFIID subunit 9 (RNA polymerase II TBP-associated factor subunit G) (STAF31/32) (Transcription initiation factor TFIID 31 kDa subunit) (TAFII-31) (TAFII31) (Transcription initiation factor TFIID 32 kDa subunit) (TAFII-32) (TAFII32) Q16594 FUNCTION: Essential for cell viability. TAF9 and TAF9B are involved in transcriptional activation as well as repression of distinct but overlapping sets of genes. May have a role in gene regulation associated with apoptosis. TAFs are components of the transcription factor IID (TFIID) complex, the TBP-free TAFII complex (TFTC), the PCAF histone acetylase complex and the STAGA transcription coactivator-HAT complex. TFIID or TFTC are essential for the regulation of RNA polymerase II-mediated transcription.

Answer 106

Small integral membrane protein 11B Q8TCY0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 107

TOM1-like protein 2 (Target of Myb-like protein 2) Q6ZVM7 FUNCTION: Probable role in protein transport. May regulate growth factor-induced mitogenic signaling.

Answer 108

Solute carrier family 12 member 6 (Electroneutral potassium-chloride cotransporter 3) (K-Cl cotransporter 3) Q9UHW9 FUNCTION: Mediates electroneutral potassium-chloride cotransport. May be activated by cell swelling. May contribute to cell volume homeostasis in single cells. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Basolateral cell membrane .

Answer 109

SEC14-like protein 3 (Tocopherol-associated protein 2) Q9UDX4 FUNCTION: Probable hydrophobic ligand-binding protein; may play a role in the transport of hydrophobic ligands like tocopherol, squalene and phospholipids.

Answer 110

Thiamin pyrophosphokinase 1 (hTPK1) (EC 2.6.2) (Placental protein 20) (PP20) (Thiamine pyrophosphokinase 1) Q9H3S4 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the phosphorylation of thiamine to thiamine pyrophosphate. Can also catalyze the phosphorylation of pyrithiamine to pyrithiamine pyrophosphate.

Answer 111

AMSH-like protease (AMSH-LP) (EC 3.19.-) (STAM-binding protein-like 1) Q96FJ0 FUNCTION: Zinc metalloprotease that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Does not cleave 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains.

Answer 112

Signal-transducing adaptor protein 2 (STAP-2) (Breast tumor kinase substrate) (BRK substrate) Q9UGK3 FUNCTION: Substrate of protein kinase PTK6. May play a regulatory role in the acute-phase response in systemic inflammation and may modulate STAT3 activity.

Answer 113

Beta-synuclein Q16143 FUNCTION: Non-amyloid component of senile plaques found in Alzheimer disease. Could act as a regulator of SNCA aggregation process. Protects neurons from staurosporine and 6-hydroxy dopamine (6OHDA)-stimulated caspase activation in a p53/TP53-dependent manner. Contributes to restore the SNCA anti-apoptotic function abolished by 6OHDA. Not found in the Lewy bodies associated with Parkinson disease. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm.

Answer 114

Stearoyl-CoA desaturase 5 (EC 1.14.19.1) (Acyl-CoA-desaturase 4) (HSCD5) (Stearoyl-CoA 9-desaturase) (Stearoyl-CoA desaturase 2) Q86SK9 FUNCTION: Stearyl-CoA desaturase that utilizes O(2) and electrons from reduced cytochrome b5 to introduce the first double bond into saturated fatty acyl-CoA substrates. Catalyzes the insertion of a cis double bond at the delta-9 position into fatty acyl-CoA substrates including palmitoyl-CoA and stearoyl-CoA (, ). Gives rise to a mixture of 16:1 and 18:1 unsaturated fatty acids.

Answer 115

Sciellin O95171 FUNCTION: May function in the assembly or regulation of proteins in the cornified envelope. The LIM domain may be involved in homotypic or heterotypic associations and may function to localize sciellin to the cornified envelope. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Membrane. Note=May become cross-linked to membrane proteins by transglutaminase.

Answer 116

Small cysteine and glycine repeat-containing protein 1 (Keratin-associated protein 28-1) A0A286YEY9 FUNCTION: In the hair cortex, hair keratin intermediate filaments are embedded in an interfilamentous matrix, consisting of hair keratin-associated proteins (KRTAP), which are essential for the formation of a rigid and resistant hair shaft through their extensive disulfide bond cross-linking with abundant cysteine residues of hair keratins. The matrix proteins include the high-sulfur and high-glycine-tyrosine keratins.

Answer 117

Sec1 family domain-containing protein 2 (Syntaxin-binding protein 1-like 1) Q8WU76 FUNCTION: May be involved in protein transport.

Answer 118

Transmembrane protein 232 C9JQI7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 119

Small cysteine and glycine repeat-containing protein 7 (Keratin-associated protein 28-7) A0A286YF01 FUNCTION: In the hair cortex, hair keratin intermediate filaments are embedded in an interfilamentous matrix, consisting of hair keratin-associated proteins (KRTAP), which are essential for the formation of a rigid and resistant hair shaft through their extensive disulfide bond cross-linking with abundant cysteine residues of hair keratins. The matrix proteins include the high-sulfur and high-glycine-tyrosine keratins.

Answer 120

SPARC-related modular calcium-binding protein 2 (Secreted modular calcium-binding protein 2) (SMOC-2) (Smooth muscle-associated protein 2) (SMAP-2) Q9H3U7 FUNCTION: Promotes matrix assembly and cell adhesiveness (By similarity). Can stimulate endothelial cell proliferation, migration, as well as angiogenesis.

Answer 121

Protein Shroom2 (Apical-like protein) (Protein APXL) Q13796 FUNCTION: May be involved in endothelial cell morphology changes during cell spreading. In the retinal pigment epithelium, may regulate the biogenesis of melanosomes and promote their association with the apical cell surface by inducing gamma-tubulin redistribution (By similarity).

Answer 122

Trafficking protein particle complex subunit 12 (Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 15) (TPR repeat protein 15) (TTC-15) (Trafficking of membranes and mitosis) Q8WVT3 FUNCTION: Component of the TRAPP complex, which is involved in endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus trafficking at a very early stage (, ). Also plays a role in chromosome congression, kinetochore assembly and stability and controls the recruitment of CENPE to the kinetochores .

Answer 123

Structure-specific endonuclease subunit SLX1 (EC 3.-.-) (GIY-YIG domain-containing protein 1) Q9BQ83 FUNCTION: Catalytic subunit of the SLX1-SLX4 structure-specific endonuclease that resolves DNA secondary structures generated during DNA repair and recombination. Has endonuclease activity towards branched DNA substrates, introducing single-strand cuts in duplex DNA close to junctions with ss-DNA. Has a preference for 5'-flap structures, and promotes symmetrical cleavage of static and migrating Holliday junctions (HJs). Resolves HJs by generating two pairs of ligatable, nicked duplex products.

Answer 124

39S ribosomal protein S30, mitochondrial (MRP-S30) (S30mt) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein mL65) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein mS30) (Programmed cell death protein 9) Q9NP92 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 125

Thrombospondin type-1 domain-containing protein 8 A0A1W2PP97

Answer 126

Transferrin receptor protein 2 (TfR2) Q9UP52 FUNCTION: Mediates cellular uptake of transferrin-bound iron in a non-iron dependent manner. May be involved in iron metabolism, hepatocyte function and erythrocyte differentiation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform Beta]: Cytoplasm . Note=Lacks the transmembrane domain. Probably intracellular.

Answer 127

dTDP-D-glucose 4,6-dehydratase (EC 4.1.46) O95455

Answer 128

Transforming growth factor-beta receptor-associated protein 1 (TGF-beta receptor-associated protein 1) (TRAP-1) (TRAP1) Q8WUH2 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the TGF-beta/activin signaling pathway. It associates with inactive heteromeric TGF-beta and activin receptor complexes, mainly through the type II receptor, and is released upon activation of signaling. May recruit SMAD4 to the vicinity of the receptor complex and facilitate its interaction with receptor-regulated Smads, such as SMAD2. Note=Colocalizes with TGF-beta receptors in the absence of signaling.

Answer 129

Replication termination factor 2 (RTF2) (Replication termination factor 2 domain-containing protein 1) Q9BY42 FUNCTION: Replication termination factor which is a component of the elongating replisome (Probable). Required for ATR pathway signaling upon DNA damage and has a positive activity during DNA replication. Might function to facilitate fork pausing at replication fork barriers like the rDNA. May be globally required to stimulate ATR signaling after the fork stalls or encounters a lesion (Probable). Interacts with nascent DNA .

Answer 130

Taste receptor type 2 member 43 (T2R43) (Taste receptor type 2 member 52) (T2R52) P59537 FUNCTION: Gustducin-coupled receptor immplicated in the perception of bitter compounds in the oral cavity and the gastrointestinal tract. Signals through PLCB2 and the calcium-regulated cation channel TRPM5. Activated by the sulfonyl amide sweeteners saccharin and acesulfame K. In airway epithelial cells, binding of bitter compounds increases the intracellular calcium ion concentration and stimulates ciliary beat frequency. May act as chemosensory receptors in airway epithelial cells to detect and eliminate potential noxious agents from the airways (By similarity). Note=In airway epithelial cells, localizes to motile cilia.

Answer 131

Taste receptor type 2 member 60 (T2R60) (Taste receptor type 2 member 56) (T2R56) P59551 FUNCTION: Receptor that may play a role in the perception of bitterness and is gustducin-linked. May play a role in sensing the chemical composition of the gastrointestinal content. The activity of this receptor may stimulate alpha gustducin, mediate PLC-beta-2 activation and lead to the gating of TRPM5 (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 132

Reticulon-3 (Homolog of ASY protein) (HAP) (Neuroendocrine-specific protein-like 2) (NSP-like protein 2) (Neuroendocrine-specific protein-like II) (NSP-like protein II) (NSPLII) O95197 FUNCTION: May be involved in membrane trafficking in the early secretory pathway. Inhibits BACE1 activity and amyloid precursor protein processing. May induce caspase-8 cascade and apoptosis. May favor BCL2 translocation to the mitochondria upon endoplasmic reticulum stress. In case of enteroviruses infection, RTN3 may be involved in the viral replication or pathogenesis. Induces the formation of endoplasmic reticulum tubules .

Answer 133

Protein-glutamine gamma-glutamyltransferase Z (Transglutaminase Z) (TG(Z)) (TGZ) (TGase Z) (EC 2.2.13) (Transglutaminase-7) (TGase-7) Q96PF1 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the cross-linking of proteins and the conjugation of polyamines to proteins.

Answer 134

Reticulon-2 (Neuroendocrine-specific protein-like 1) (NSP-like protein 1) (Neuroendocrine-specific protein-like I) (NSP-like protein I) (NSPLI) O75298 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane .

Answer 135

Putative mitochondrial import inner membrane translocase subunit Tim23B Q5SRD1 FUNCTION: May participate in the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins across the mitochondrial inner membrane. the PAM complex (By similarity).

Answer 136

40S ribosomal protein S29 (Small ribosomal subunit protein uS14) P62273 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytosol .

Answer 137

F-box-like/WD repeat-containing protein TBL1XR1 (Nuclear receptor corepressor/HDAC3 complex subunit TBLR1) (TBL1-related protein 1) (Transducin beta-like 1X-related protein 1) Q9BZK7 FUNCTION: F-box-like protein involved in the recruitment of the ubiquitin/19S proteasome complex to nuclear receptor-regulated transcription units. Plays an essential role in transcription activation mediated by nuclear receptors. Probably acts as integral component of the N-Cor corepressor complex that mediates the recruitment of the 19S proteasome complex, leading to the subsequent proteasomal degradation of N-Cor complex, thereby allowing cofactor exchange, and transcription activation.

Answer 138

Thyroid hormone receptor alpha (Nuclear receptor subfamily 1 group A member 1) (V-erbA-related protein 7) (EAR-7) (c-erbA-1) (c-erbA-alpha) P10827 FUNCTION: [Isoform Alpha-1]: Nuclear hormone receptor that can act as a repressor or activator of transcription. High affinity receptor for thyroid hormones, including triiodothyronine and thyroxine.

Answer 139

Thyroid hormone receptor beta (Nuclear receptor subfamily 1 group A member 2) (c-erbA-2) (c-erbA-beta) P10828 FUNCTION: Nuclear hormone receptor that can act as a repressor or activator of transcription. High affinity receptor for thyroid hormones, including triiodothyronine and thyroxine. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 140

T-box transcription factor TBX22 (T-box protein 22) Q9Y458 FUNCTION: Probable transcriptional regulator involved in developmental processes. This is major determinant crucial to palatogenesis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 141

T-box transcription factor TBX10 (T-box protein 10) O75333 FUNCTION: Probable transcriptional regulator involved in developmental processes. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 142

Mitochondrial import inner membrane translocase subunit TIM16 (Mitochondria-associated granulocyte macrophage CSF-signaling molecule) (Presequence translocated-associated motor subunit PAM16) Q9Y3D7 FUNCTION: Regulates ATP-dependent protein translocation into the mitochondrial matrix. Inhibits DNAJC19 stimulation of HSPA9/Mortalin ATPase activity.

Answer 143

Transcription elongation factor A protein 1 (Transcription elongation factor S-II protein 1) (Transcription elongation factor TFIIS.o) P23193 FUNCTION: Necessary for efficient RNA polymerase II transcription elongation past template-encoded arresting sites. The arresting sites in DNA have the property of trapping a certain fraction of elongating RNA polymerases that pass through, resulting in locked ternary complexes. Cleavage of the nascent transcript by S-II allows the resumption of elongation from the new 3'-terminus. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 144

Juxtaposed with another zinc finger protein 1 (TAK1-interacting protein 27) (Zinc finger protein 802) Q86VZ6 FUNCTION: Acts as a transcriptional corepressor of orphan nuclear receptor NR2C2 . Inhibits expression of the gluconeogenesis enzyme PCK2 through inhibition of NR2C2 activity (By similarity). Also involved in transcriptional activation of NAMPT by promoting expression of PPARA and PPARD (By similarity). Plays a role in lipid metabolism by suppressing lipogenesis, increasing lipolysis and decreasing lipid accumulation in adipose tissue (By similarity). Plays a role in glucose homeostasis by improving glucose metabolism and insulin sensitivity (By similarity).

Answer 145

Interferon alpha-inducible protein 6 (Interferon-induced protein 6-16) (Ifi-6-16) P09912 FUNCTION: Plays a role in apoptosis, negatively regulating the intrinsinc apoptotic signaling pathway and TNFSF10-induced apoptosis (, , ). However, it has also been shown to have a pro-apoptotic activity . Has an antiviral activity towards hepatitis C virus/HCV by inhibiting the EGFR signaling pathway, which activation is required for entry of the virus into cells .

Answer 146

LIM homeobox transcription factor 1-beta (LIM/homeobox protein 1.2) (LMX-1.2) (LIM/homeobox protein LMX1B) O60663 FUNCTION: Essential for the specification of dorsal limb fate at both the zeugopodal and autopodal levels. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 147

Procollagen galactosyltransferase 1 (EC 2.1.50) (Collagen beta(1-O)galactosyltransferase 1) (ColGalT 1) (Glycosyltransferase 25 family member 1) (Hydroxylysine galactosyltransferase 1) Q8NBJ5 FUNCTION: Beta-galactosyltransferase that transfers beta-galactose to hydroxylysine residues of type I collagen (, , ). By acting on collagen glycosylation, facilitates the formation of collagen triple helix . Also involved in the biosynthesis of collagen type IV .

Answer 148

Myosin regulatory light chain 2, ventricular/cardiac muscle isoform (MLC-2) (MLC-2v) (Cardiac myosin light chain 2) (Myosin light chain 2, slow skeletal/ventricular muscle isoform) (MLC-2s/v) (Ventricular myosin light chain 2) P10916 FUNCTION: Contractile protein that plays a role in heart development and function (By similarity). Following phosphorylation, plays a role in cross-bridge cycling kinetics and cardiac muscle contraction by increasing myosin lever arm stiffness and promoting myosin head diffusion; as a consequence of the increase in maximum contraction force and calcium sensitivity of contraction force. These events altogether slow down myosin kinetics and prolong duty cycle resulting in accumulated myosins being cooperatively recruited to actin binding sites to sustain thin filament activation as a means to fine-tune myofilament calcium sensitivity to force (By similarity). During cardiogenesis plays an early role in cardiac contractility by promoting cardiac myofibril assembly (By similarity).

Answer 149

Phytanoyl-CoA hydroxylase-interacting protein-like Q96FC7 FUNCTION: May play a role in the development of the central system.

Answer 150

Proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 6 (EC 3.21.-) (Paired basic amino acid cleaving enzyme 4) (Subtilisin-like proprotein convertase 4) (SPC4) (Subtilisin/kexin-like protease PACE4) P29122 FUNCTION: Serine endoprotease that processes various proproteins by cleavage at paired basic amino acids, recognizing the RXXX[KR]R consensus motif. Likely functions in the constitutive secretory pathway, with unique restricted distribution in both neuroendocrine and non-neuroendocrine tissues. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform PACE4A-I]: Secreted.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform PACE4A-II]: Secreted.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform PACE4C]: Endoplasmic reticulum. Note=Not secreted, remains probably in zymogen form in endoplasmic reticulum.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform PACE4CS]: Endoplasmic reticulum. Note=Not secreted, remains probably in zymogen form in endoplasmic reticulum.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform PACE4E-I]: Endomembrane system; Peripheral membrane protein. Note=Retained intracellularly probably through a hydrophobic cluster in their C-terminus.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform PACE4E-II]: Endomembrane system; Peripheral membrane protein. Note=Retained intracellularly probably through a hydrophobic cluster in their C-terminus.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform PACE4B]: Secreted.

Answer 151

Dynamin-like 120 kDa protein, mitochondrial (EC 3.5.5) (Optic atrophy protein 1) [Cleaved into: Dynamin-like 120 kDa protein, form S1] O60313 FUNCTION: Dynamin-related GTPase that is essential for normal mitochondrial morphology by regulating the equilibrium between mitochondrial fusion and mitochondrial fission (, , , , ). Coexpression of isoform 1 with shorter alternative products is required for optimal activity in promoting mitochondrial fusion . Binds lipid membranes enriched in negatively charged phospholipids, such as cardiolipin, and promotes membrane tubulation . The intrinsic GTPase activity is low, and is strongly increased by interaction with lipid membranes . Plays a role in remodeling cristae and the release of cytochrome c during apoptosis (By similarity). Proteolytic processing in response to intrinsic apoptotic signals may lead to disassembly of OPA1 oligomers and release of the caspase activator cytochrome C (CYCS) into the mitochondrial intermembrane space (By similarity). Plays a role in mitochondrial genome maintenance (, ).

Answer 152

Olfactory receptor 2M7 (Olfactory receptor OR1-58) Q8NG81 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 153

P antigen family member 2 (PAGE-2) (G antigen family C 2) (Prostate-associated gene 2 protein) Q7Z2X7

Answer 154

Olfactory receptor 2D2 (HB2) (Olfactory receptor 11-610) (OR11-610) (Olfactory receptor 2D1) (Olfactory receptor OR11-88) Q9H210 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 155

P antigen family member 4 (PAGE-4) (G antigen family C member 1) (PAGE-1) O60829 FUNCTION: Intrinsically disordered protein that potentiates the transcriptional activator activity of JUN (, ). Protects cells from stress-induced apoptosis by inhibiting reactive oxygen species (ROS) production and via regulation of the MAPK signaling pathway (, , ).

Answer 156

Olfactory receptor 4M2 (Olfactory receptor OR15-3) Q8NGB6 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 157

Olfactory receptor 4B1 (OST208) (Olfactory receptor OR11-106) Q8NGF8 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 158

Olfactory receptor 5H1 (HTPCRX14) A6NKK0 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 159

Olfactory receptor 4Q2 (olfactory receptor OR14-21) P0C623 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 160

Olfactory receptor 4Q3 (Olfactory receptor 4Q4) (Olfactory receptor OR14-3) Q8NH05 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 161

Olfactory receptor 5A2 (Olfactory receptor OR11-248) Q8NGI9 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 162

Endogenous retrovirus group K member 7 Np9 protein (HERV-K(III) Np9 protein) (HERV-K102 Np9 protein) (HERV-K_1q22 provirus Np9 protein) P61582 FUNCTION: May possess a function in tumorigenesis.

Answer 163

Neuropeptides B/W receptor type 1 (G-protein coupled receptor 7) P48145 FUNCTION: Interacts specifically with a number of opioid ligands. Receptor for neuropeptides B and W, which may be involved in neuroendocrine system regulation, food intake and the organization of other signals. Has a higher affinity for neuropeptide B. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 164

Olfactory receptor 7C2 (Olfactory receptor 19-18) (OR19-18) (Olfactory receptor 7C3) (Olfactory receptor OR19-22) O60412 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 165

Olfactory receptor 10G6 (Olfactory receptor OR11-280) Q8NH81 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 166

Protein NYNRIN (NYN domain and retroviral integrase catalytic domain-containing protein) (Protein cousin of GIN1) Q9P2P1 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 167

Olfactory receptor 7A17 O14581 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 168

Olfactory receptor 9G9 P0C7N8 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 169

Melanocortin-2 receptor accessory protein 2 (MC2R accessory protein 2) Q96G30 FUNCTION: Modulator of melanocortin receptor 4 (MC4R), a receptor involved in energy homeostasis. Plays a central role in the control of energy homeostasis and body weight regulation by increasing ligand-sensitivity of MC4R and MC4R-mediated generation of cAMP (By similarity). May also act as a negative regulator of MC2R: competes with MRAP for binding to MC2R and impairs the binding of corticotropin (ACTH) to MC2R. May also regulate activity of other melanocortin receptors (MC1R, MC3R and MC5R); however, additional evidence is required in vivo.

Answer 170

Netrin-1 (Epididymis tissue protein Li 131P) O95631 FUNCTION: Netrins control guidance of CNS commissural axons and peripheral motor axons. Its association with either DCC or some UNC5 receptors will lead to axon attraction or repulsion, respectively. Binding to UNC5C might cause dissociation of UNC5C from polymerized TUBB3 in microtubules and thereby lead to increased microtubule dynamics and axon repulsion . Involved in dorsal root ganglion axon projection towards the spinal cord . It also serves as a survival factor via its association with its receptors which prevent the initiation of apoptosis. Involved in tumorigenesis by regulating apoptosis .

Answer 171

Olfactory receptor 6K6 (Olfactory receptor OR1-21) Q8NGW6 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 172

Neuropeptide S P0C0P6 FUNCTION: Modulates arousal and anxiety. May play an important anorexigenic role (By similarity). Binds to its receptor NPSR1 with nanomolar affinity to increase intracellular calcium concentrations (, ). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 173

Odontogenesis associated phosphoprotein Q17RF5 FUNCTION: May promote nucleation of hydroxyapatite.

Answer 174

Protein BCAP (Basal body centriole-associated protein) (Outer dense fiber protein 2-like) Q9ULJ1 FUNCTION: Acts as a suppressor of ciliogenesis, specifically, the initiation of ciliogenesis.

Answer 175

Sodium-dependent phosphate transport protein 4 (Na(+)/PI cotransporter 4) (Sodium/phosphate cotransporter 4) (Solute carrier family 17 member 3) O00476 FUNCTION: [Isoform 2]: voltage-driven, multispecific, organic anion transporter able to transport para-aminohippurate (PAH), estrone sulfate, estradiol-17-beta-glucuronide, bumetanide, and ochratoxin A. Isoform 2 functions as urate efflux transporter on the apical side of renal proximal tubule and is likely to act as an exit path for organic anionic drugs as well as urate in vivo. May be involved in actively transporting phosphate into cells via Na(+) cotransport. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane .

Answer 176

Myc proto-oncogene protein (Class E basic helix-loop-helix protein 39) (bHLHe39) (Proto-oncogene c-Myc) (Transcription factor p64) P01106 FUNCTION: Transcription factor that binds DNA in a non-specific manner, yet also specifically recognizes the core sequence 5'-CAC[GA]TG-3'. Activates the transcription of growth-related genes. Binds to the VEGFA promoter, promoting VEGFA production and subsequent sprouting angiogenesis . Regulator of somatic reprogramming, controls self-renewal of embryonic stem cells. Functions with TAF6L to activate target gene expression through RNA polymerase II pause release (By similarity).

Answer 177

Outer dense fiber protein 2 (Cenexin) (Outer dense fiber of sperm tails protein 2) Q5BJF6 FUNCTION: Seems to be a major component of sperm tail outer dense fibers (ODF). ODFs are filamentous structures located on the outside of the axoneme in the midpiece and principal piece of the mammalian sperm tail and may help to maintain the passive elastic structures and elastic recoil of the sperm tail. May have a modulating influence on sperm motility. Functions as a general scaffold protein that is specifically localized at the distal/subdistal appendages of mother centrioles. Component of the centrosome matrix required for the localization of PLK1 and NIN to the centrosomes. Required for the formation and/or maintenance of normal CETN1 assembly.

Answer 178

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase NEURL1B (EC 2.2.27) (Neuralized-2) (NEUR2) (Neuralized-like protein 1B) (Neuralized-like protein 3) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase NEURL1B) A8MQ27 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in regulation of the Notch pathway through influencing the stability and activity of several Notch ligands.

Answer 179

Neuroplastin (Stromal cell-derived receptor 1) (SDR-1) Q9Y639 FUNCTION: Probable homophilic and heterophilic cell adhesion molecule involved in long term potentiation at hippocampal excitatory synapses through activation of p38MAPK. May also regulate neurite outgrowth by activating the FGFR1 signaling pathway. May play a role in synaptic plasticity (By similarity).

Answer 180

Occludin/ELL domain-containing protein 1 Q9H607

Answer 181

Neuropeptide Y receptor type 4 (NPY4-R) (Pancreatic polypeptide receptor 1) (PP1) P50391 FUNCTION: Receptor for neuropeptide Y and peptide YY. The rank order of affinity of this receptor for pancreatic polypeptides is PP, PP (2-36) and [Ile-31, Gln-34] PP > [Pro-34] PYY > PYY and [Leu-31, Pro-34] NPY > NPY > PYY (3-36) and NPY (2-36) > PP (13-36) > PP (31-36) > NPY free acid.

Answer 182

Neurotensin receptor type 1 (NT-R-1) (NTR1) (High-affinity levocabastine-insensitive neurotensin receptor) (NTRH) P30989 FUNCTION: G-protein coupled receptor for the tridecapeptide neurotensin (NTS) (, , ). Signaling is effected via G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Signaling leads to the activation of downstream MAP kinases and protects cells against apoptosis .

Answer 183

N-acylneuraminate cytidylyltransferase (EC 2.7.43) (CMP-N-acetylneuraminic acid synthase) (CMP-NeuNAc synthase) Q8NFW8 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the activation of N-acetylneuraminic acid (NeuNAc) to cytidine 5'-monophosphate N-acetylneuraminic acid (CMP-NeuNAc), a substrate required for the addition of sialic acid. Has some activity toward NeuNAc, N-glycolylneuraminic acid (Neu5Gc) or 2-keto-3-deoxy-D-glycero-D-galacto-nononic acid (KDN). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 184

BDNF/NT-3 growth factors receptor (EC 2.10.1) (GP145-TrkB) (Trk-B) (Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase receptor type 2) (TrkB tyrosine kinase) (Tropomyosin-related kinase B) Q16620 FUNCTION: Receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development and the maturation of the central and the peripheral nervous systems through regulation of neuron survival, proliferation, migration, differentiation, and synapse formation and plasticity (By similarity). Receptor for BDNF/brain-derived neurotrophic factor and NTF4/neurotrophin-4. Alternatively can also bind NTF3/neurotrophin-3 which is less efficient in activating the receptor but regulates neuron survival through NTRK2 (, ). Upon ligand-binding, undergoes homodimerization, autophosphorylation and activation . Recruits, phosphorylates and/or activates several downstream effectors including SHC1, FRS2, SH2B1, SH2B2 and PLCG1 that regulate distinct overlapping signaling cascades. Through SHC1, FRS2, SH2B1, SH2B2 activates the GRB2-Ras-MAPK cascade that regulates for instance neuronal differentiation including neurite outgrowth. Through the same effectors controls the Ras-PI3 kinase-AKT1 signaling cascade that mainly regulates growth and survival. Through PLCG1 and the downstream protein kinase C-regulated pathways controls synaptic plasticity. Thereby, plays a role in learning and memory by regulating both short term synaptic function and long-term potentiation. PLCG1 also leads to NF-Kappa-B activation and the transcription of genes involved in cell survival. Hence, it is able to suppress anoikis, the apoptosis resulting from loss of cell-matrix interactions. May also play a role in neutrophin-dependent calcium signaling in glial cells and mediate communication between neurons and glia.

Answer 185

Pyruvate dehydrogenase E1 component subunit alpha, somatic form, mitochondrial (EC 1.4.1) (PDHE1-A type I) P08559 FUNCTION: The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the overall conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA and CO(2), and thereby links the glycolytic pathway to the tricarboxylic cycle. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion matrix.

Answer 186

NACHT, LRR and PYD domains-containing protein 8 (Nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain protein 16) (PYRIN and NACHT-containing protein 4) Q86W28 FUNCTION: Involved in inflammation.

Answer 187

NACHT, LRR and PYD domains-containing protein 14 (Nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain protein 5) Q86W24 FUNCTION: May be involved in inflammation and spermatogenesis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 188

PH and SEC7 domain-containing protein 2 (Exchange factor for ADP-ribosylation factor guanine nucleotide factor 6 C) (Exchange factor for ARF6 C) (Pleckstrin homology and SEC7 domain-containing protein 2) Q9BQI7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 189

Polyadenylate-binding protein 1-like Q4VXU2

Answer 190

Protein NDRG4 (Brain development-related molecule 1) (N-myc downstream-regulated gene 4 protein) (Vascular smooth muscle cell-associated protein 8) (SMAP-8) Q9ULP0 FUNCTION: Contributes to the maintenance of intracerebral BDNF levels within the normal range, which is necessary for the preservation of spatial learning and the resistance to neuronal cell death caused by ischemic stress (By similarity). May enhance growth factor-induced ERK1 and ERK2 phosphorylation, including that induced by PDGF and FGF. May attenuate NGF-promoted ELK1 phosphorylation in a microtubule-dependent manner.

Answer 191

Protein Dr1 (Down-regulator of transcription 1) (Negative cofactor 2-beta) (NC2-beta) (TATA-binding protein-associated phosphoprotein) Q01658 FUNCTION: The association of the DR1/DRAP1 heterodimer with TBP results in a functional repression of both activated and basal transcription of class II genes. This interaction precludes the formation of a transcription-competent complex by inhibiting the association of TFIIA and/or TFIIB with TBP. Can bind to DNA on its own. Component of the ATAC complex, a complex with histone acetyltransferase activity on histones H3 and H4. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 192

NADH dehydrogenase [ubiquinone] 1 alpha subcomplex subunit 6 (Complex I-B14) (CI-B14) (LYR motif-containing protein 6) (NADH-ubiquinone oxidoreductase B14 subunit) P56556 FUNCTION: Accessory subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), that is believed to be not involved in catalysis. Required for proper complex I assembly . Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone.

Answer 193

Bifunctional 3'-phosphoadenosine 5'-phosphosulfate synthase 1 (PAPS synthase 1) (PAPSS 1) (Sulfurylase kinase 1) (SK 1) (SK1) [Includes: Sulfate adenylyltransferase (EC 2.7.4) (ATP-sulfurylase) (Sulfate adenylate transferase) (SAT); Adenylyl-sulfate kinase (EC 2.1.25) (3'-phosphoadenosine-5'-phosphosulfate synthase) (APS kinase) (Adenosine-5'-phosphosulfate 3'-phosphotransferase) (Adenylylsulfate 3'-phosphotransferase)] O43252 FUNCTION: Bifunctional enzyme with both ATP sulfurylase and APS kinase activity, which mediates two steps in the sulfate activation pathway. The first step is the transfer of a sulfate group to ATP to yield adenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (APS), and the second step is the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to APS yielding 3'-phosphoadenylylsulfate (PAPS: activated sulfate donor used by sulfotransferase). In mammals, PAPS is the sole source of sulfate; APS appears to be only an intermediate in the sulfate-activation pathway (, , , ). Required for normal biosynthesis of sulfated L-selectin ligands in endothelial cells .

Answer 194

NADH dehydrogenase [ubiquinone] 1 alpha subcomplex assembly factor 8 A1L188 FUNCTION: Involved in the assembly of mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase complex (complex I, MT-ND1) . Required to stabilize NDUFAF5 .

Answer 195

GPI-linked NAD(P)(+)--arginine ADP-ribosyltransferase 1 (EC 2.2.31) (ADP-ribosyltransferase C2 and C3 toxin-like 1) (ARTC1) (Mono(ADP-ribosyl)transferase 1) (CD antigen CD296) P52961 FUNCTION: Has ADP-ribosyltransferase activity toward GLP1R. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane; Lipid-anchor, GPI-anchor.

Answer 196

Pregnancy-specific beta-1-glycoprotein 8 (PS-beta-G-8) (PSBG-8) (Pregnancy-specific glycoprotein 8) Q9UQ74 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 197

Multiple PDZ domain protein (Multi-PDZ domain protein 1) O75970 FUNCTION: Interacts with HTR2C and provokes its clustering at the cell surface (By similarity). Member of the NMDAR signaling complex that may play a role in control of AMPAR potentiation and synaptic plasticity in excitatory synapses.

Answer 198

Neural cell adhesion molecule L1-like protein (Close homolog of L1) [Cleaved into: Processed neural cell adhesion molecule L1-like protein] O00533 FUNCTION: Extracellular matrix and cell adhesion protein that plays a role in nervous system development and in synaptic plasticity. Both soluble and membranous forms promote neurite outgrowth of cerebellar and hippocampal neurons and suppress neuronal cell death. Plays a role in neuronal positioning of pyramidal neurons and in regulation of both the number of interneurons and the efficacy of GABAergic synapses. May play a role in regulating cell migration in nerve regeneration and cortical development. Potentiates integrin-dependent cell migration towards extracellular matrix proteins. Recruits ANK3 to the plasma membrane (By similarity).

Answer 199

Nck-associated protein 1 (NAP 1) (Membrane-associated protein HEM-2) (p125Nap1) Q9Y2A7 FUNCTION: Part of the WAVE complex that regulates lamellipodia formation. The WAVE complex regulates actin filament reorganization via its interaction with the Arp2/3 complex. Actin remodeling activity is regulated by RAC1. As component of the WAVE1 complex, required for BDNF-NTRK2 endocytic trafficking and signaling from early endosomes.

Answer 200

26S proteasome non-ATPase regulatory subunit 4 (26S proteasome regulatory subunit RPN10) (26S proteasome regulatory subunit S5A) (Antisecretory factor 1) (AF) (ASF) (Multiubiquitin chain-binding protein) P55036 FUNCTION: Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. PSMD4 acts as an ubiquitin receptor subunit through ubiquitin-interacting motifs and selects ubiquitin-conjugates for destruction. Displays a preferred selectivity for longer polyubiquitin chains.

Answer 201

Noncompact myelin-associated protein (Myelin protein of 11 kDa) (MP11) Q5T1S8 FUNCTION: Plays a role in myelin formation.

Answer 202

MAGUK p55 subfamily member 2 (Discs large homolog 2) (Protein MPP2) Q14168 FUNCTION: Postsynaptic MAGUK scaffold protein that links CADM1 cell adhesion molecules to core components of the postsynaptic density (By similarity). In CA1 pyramidal neurons, required for synaptic KCNN2-containing channel function and long-term potentiation expression (By similarity). Seems to negatively regulate SRC function in epithelial cells .

Answer 203

MAGUK p55 subfamily member 4 (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 2 chromosomal region candidate gene 5 protein) (Discs large homolog 6) Q96JB8 FUNCTION: May play a role in retinal photoreceptors development. Note=Detected at the outer limiting membrane (OLM) and in the outer plexiform layer (OPL) of the retina. At the OLM, detected apical to the adherens junction (AJ).

Answer 204

Nicotinamide riboside kinase 1 (NRK 1) (NmR-K 1) (EC 2.1.22) (Nicotinic acid riboside kinase 1) (EC 2.1.173) (Ribosylnicotinamide kinase 1) (RNK 1) (Ribosylnicotinic acid kinase 1) Q9NWW6 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the phosphorylation of nicotinamide riboside (NR) and nicotinic acid riboside (NaR) to form nicotinamide mononucleotide (NMN) and nicotinic acid mononucleotide (NaMN). The enzyme also phosphorylates the antitumor drugs tiazofurin and 3-deazaguanosine.

Answer 205

Nuclear receptor coactivator 5 (NCoA-5) (Coactivator independent of AF-2) (CIA) Q9HCD5 FUNCTION: Nuclear receptor coregulator that can have both coactivator and corepressor functions. Interacts with nuclear receptors for steroids (ESR1 and ESR2) independently of the steroid binding domain (AF-2) of the ESR receptors, and with the orphan nuclear receptor NR1D2. Involved in the coactivation of nuclear steroid receptors (ER) as well as the corepression of MYC in response to 17-beta-estradiol (E2). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 206

Nuclear receptor coactivator 3 (NCoA-3) (EC 2.1.48) (ACTR) (Amplified in breast cancer 1 protein) (AIB-1) (CBP-interacting protein) (pCIP) (Class E basic helix-loop-helix protein 42) (bHLHe42) (Receptor-associated coactivator 3) (RAC-3) (Steroid receptor coactivator protein 3) (SRC-3) (Thyroid hormone receptor activator molecule 1) (TRAM-1) Q9Y6Q9 FUNCTION: Nuclear receptor coactivator that directly binds nuclear receptors and stimulates the transcriptional activities in a hormone-dependent fashion. Plays a central role in creating a multisubunit coactivator complex, which probably acts via remodeling of chromatin. Involved in the coactivation of different nuclear receptors, such as for steroids (GR and ER), retinoids (RARs and RXRs), thyroid hormone (TRs), vitamin D3 (VDR) and prostanoids (PPARs). Displays histone acetyltransferase activity. Also involved in the coactivation of the NF-kappa-B pathway via its interaction with the NFKB1 subunit. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus. Note=Mainly cytoplasmic and weakly nuclear. Upon TNF activation and subsequent phosphorylation, it translocates from the cytoplasm to the nucleus.

Answer 207

Nuclear receptor coactivator 6 (Activating signal cointegrator 2) (ASC-2) (Amplified in breast cancer protein 3) (Cancer-amplified transcriptional coactivator ASC-2) (Nuclear receptor coactivator RAP250) (NRC RAP250) (Nuclear receptor-activating protein, 250 kDa) (Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-interacting protein) (PPAR-interacting protein) (PRIP) (Thyroid hormone receptor-binding protein) Q14686 FUNCTION: Nuclear receptor coactivator that directly binds nuclear receptors and stimulates the transcriptional activities in a hormone-dependent fashion. Coactivates expression in an agonist- and AF2-dependent manner. Involved in the coactivation of different nuclear receptors, such as for steroids (GR and ERs), retinoids (RARs and RXRs), thyroid hormone (TRs), vitamin D3 (VDR) and prostanoids (PPARs). Probably functions as a general coactivator, rather than just a nuclear receptor coactivator. May also be involved in the coactivation of the NF-kappa-B pathway. May coactivate expression via a remodeling of chromatin and its interaction with histone acetyltransferase proteins. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 208

Proteasome assembly chaperone 1 (PAC-1) (Chromosome 21 leucine-rich protein) (C21-LRP) (Down syndrome critical region protein 2) O95456 FUNCTION: Chaperone protein which promotes assembly of the 20S proteasome as part of a heterodimer with PSMG2. The PSMG1-PSMG2 heterodimer binds to the PSMA5 and PSMA7 proteasome subunits, promotes assembly of the proteasome alpha subunits into the heteroheptameric alpha ring and prevents alpha ring dimerization. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer 209

Metallophosphoesterase domain-containing protein 1 (EC 3.-.-) (Adult brain protein 239) (239AB) O15442 FUNCTION: May have metallophosphoesterase activity (in vitro).

Answer 210

Mitochondrial-processing peptidase subunit beta (EC 3.24.64) (Beta-MPP) (P-52) O75439 FUNCTION: Catalytic subunit of the essential mitochondrial processing protease (MPP), which cleaves the mitochondrial sequence off newly imported precursors proteins (Probable). Preferentially, cleaves after an arginine at position P2 (By similarity). Required for PINK1 turnover by coupling PINK1 mitochondrial import and cleavage, which results in subsequent PINK1 proteolysis .

Answer 211

Nuclear receptor corepressor 1 (N-CoR) (N-CoR1) O75376 FUNCTION: Mediates transcriptional repression by certain nuclear receptors . Part of a complex which promotes histone deacetylation and the formation of repressive chromatin structures which may impede the access of basal transcription factors. Participates in the transcriptional repressor activity produced by BCL6. Recruited by ZBTB7A to the androgen response elements/ARE on target genes, negatively regulates androgen receptor signaling and androgen-induced cell proliferation . Mediates the NR1D1-dependent repression and circadian regulation of TSHB expression (By similarity). The NCOR1-HDAC3 complex regulates the circadian expression of the core clock gene ARTNL/BMAL1 and the genes involved in lipid metabolism in the liver (By similarity).

Answer 212

Putative protein MSS51 homolog, mitochondrial (Zinc finger MYND domain-containing protein 17) Q4VC12

Answer 213

Neurturin Q99748 FUNCTION: Supports the survival of sympathetic neurons in culture. May regulate the development and maintenance of the CNS. Might control the size of non-neuronal cell population such as haemopoietic cells. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 214

Metallothionein-1H (MT-1H) (Metallothionein-0) (MT-0) (Metallothionein-IH) (MT-IH) P80294 FUNCTION: Metallothioneins have a high content of cysteine residues that bind various heavy metals; these proteins are transcriptionally regulated by both heavy metals and glucocorticoids.

Answer 215

Neurexin-3 (Neurexin III-alpha) (Neurexin-3-alpha) Q9Y4C0 FUNCTION: Neuronal cell surface protein that may be involved in cell recognition and cell adhesion. May mediate intracellular signaling. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 216

Cell surface glycoprotein CD200 receptor 1 (CD200 cell surface glycoprotein receptor) (Cell surface glycoprotein OX2 receptor 1) Q8TD46 FUNCTION: Inhibitory receptor for the CD200/OX2 cell surface glycoprotein. Limits inflammation by inhibiting the expression of proinflammatory molecules including TNF-alpha, interferons, and inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS) in response to selected stimuli. Also binds to HHV-8 K14 viral CD200 homolog with identical affinity and kinetics as the host CD200. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Cell membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 4]: Cell membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 2]: Secreted.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 3]: Secreted.

Answer 217

Pulmonary surfactant-associated protein B (SP-B) (18 kDa pulmonary-surfactant protein) (6 kDa protein) (Pulmonary surfactant-associated proteolipid SPL(Phe)) P07988 FUNCTION: Pulmonary surfactant-associated proteins promote alveolar stability by lowering the surface tension at the air-liquid interface in the peripheral air spaces. SP-B increases the collapse pressure of palmitic acid to nearly 70 millinewtons per meter. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, surface film.

Answer 218

Nuclear distribution protein nudE-like 1 (Protein Nudel) (Mitosin-associated protein 1) Q9GZM8 FUNCTION: Required for organization of the cellular microtubule array and microtubule anchoring at the centrosome. May regulate microtubule organization at least in part by targeting the microtubule severing protein KATNA1 to the centrosome. Also positively regulates the activity of the minus-end directed microtubule motor protein dynein. May enhance dynein-mediated microtubule sliding by targeting dynein to the microtubule plus ends. Required for several dynein- and microtubule-dependent processes such as the maintenance of Golgi integrity, the centripetal motion of secretory vesicles and the coupling of the nucleus and centrosome. Also required during brain development for the migration of newly formed neurons from the ventricular/subventricular zone toward the cortical plate. Plays a role, together with DISC1, in the regulation of neurite outgrowth. Required for mitosis in some cell types but appears to be dispensible for mitosis in cortical neuronal progenitors, which instead requires NDE1. Facilitates the polymerization of neurofilaments from the individual subunits NEFH and NEFL. Positively regulates lysosome peripheral distribution and ruffled border formation in osteoclasts (By similarity).

Answer 219

Melanocortin-2 receptor accessory protein (B27) (Fat cell-specific low molecular weight protein) (Fat tissue-specific low MW protein) Q8TCY5 FUNCTION: Modulator of melanocortin receptors (MC1R, MC2R, MC3R, MC4R and MC5R). Acts by increasing ligand-sensitivity of melanocortin receptors and enhancing generation of cAMP by the receptors. Required both for MC2R trafficking to the cell surface of adrenal cells and for signaling in response to corticotropin (ACTH). May be involved in the intracellular trafficking pathways in adipocyte cells.

Answer 220

Nuclear factor 1 A-type (NF1-A) (Nuclear factor 1/A) (CCAAT-box-binding transcription factor) (CTF) (Nuclear factor I/A) (NF-I/A) (NFI-A) (TGGCA-binding protein) Q12857 FUNCTION: Recognizes and binds the palindromic sequence 5'-TTGGCNNNNNGCCAA-3' present in viral and cellular promoters and in the origin of replication of adenovirus type 2. These proteins are individually capable of activating transcription and replication. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 221

Transcription factor NF-E4 Q86UQ8 FUNCTION: Functions as part of the SSP (stage selector protein) complex, a complex that contributes to the preferential expression of the gamma-gene in fetal erythroid cells by facilitating the interaction of the gamma-globin genes with enhancer elements contained in the locus control region (LCR). The complex binds to the stage selector element (SSE) in the proximal gamma-globin promoter. In contrast, isoform 2 acts as a repressor of gamma-globin gene expression by preventing NFE2 and RNA polymerase II recruitment to the promoter.

Answer 222

MORN repeat-containing protein 5 Q5VZ52

Answer 223

Phospholipid phosphatase 3 (EC 3.3.4) (Lipid phosphate phosphohydrolase 3) (PAP2-beta) (Phosphatidate phosphohydrolase type 2b) (Phosphatidic acid phosphatase 2b) (PAP-2b) (PAP2b) (Vascular endothelial growth factor and type I collagen-inducible protein) (VCIP) O14495 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the conversion of phosphatidic acid (PA) to diacylglycerol (DG). In addition it hydrolyzes lysophosphatidic acid (LPA), ceramide-1-phosphate (C-1-P) and sphingosine-1-phosphate (S-1-P). The relative catalytic efficiency is LPA = PA > C-1-P > S-1-P. May be involved in cell adhesion and in cell-cell interactions. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus, trans-Golgi network membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein. Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 224

Phospholipid phosphatase 6 (EC 3.3.-) (Phosphatidic acid phosphatase type 2 domain-containing protein 2) (PPAP2 domain-containing protein 2) (Presqualene diphosphate phosphatase) Q8IY26 FUNCTION: Phosphatase that dephosphorylates presqualene diphosphate (PSDP) into presqualene monophosphate (PSMP), suggesting that it may be indirectly involved in innate immunity. PSDP is a bioactive lipid that rapidly remodels to presqualene monophosphate PSMP upon cell activation. Displays diphosphate phosphatase activity with a substrate preference for PSDP > FDP > phosphatidic acid.

Answer 225

POU domain, class 3, transcription factor 3 (Brain-specific homeobox/POU domain protein 1) (Brain-1) (Brn-1) (Octamer-binding protein 8) (Oct-8) (Octamer-binding transcription factor 8) (OTF-8) P20264 FUNCTION: Transcription factor that acts synergistically with SOX11 and SOX4. Plays a role in neuronal development. Is implicated in an enhancer activity at the embryonic met-mesencephalic junction; the enhancer element contains the octamer motif (5'-ATTTGCAT-3') (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus.

Answer 226

Mucin-12 (MUC-12) (Mucin-11) (MUC-11) Q9UKN1 FUNCTION: Involved in epithelial cell protection, adhesion modulation, and signaling. May be involved in epithelial cell growth regulation. Stimulated by both cytokine TNF-alpha and TGF-beta in intestinal epithelium.

Answer 227

Phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate 4-kinase type-2 gamma (EC 2.1.149) (Phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate 4-kinase type II gamma) (PI(5)P 4-kinase type II gamma) (PIP4KII-gamma) Q8TBX8 FUNCTION: May play an important role in the production of Phosphatidylinositol bisphosphate (PIP2), in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer 228

Mucin-15 (MUC-15) Q8N387 FUNCTION: May play a role in the cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Cell membrane .

Answer 229

Mucin-like protein 3 (Diffuse panbronchiolitis critical region protein 1) Q3MIW9 FUNCTION: May modulate NF-kappaB signaling and play a role in cell growth.

Answer 230

Mucin-3A (MUC-3A) (Intestinal mucin-3A) Q02505 FUNCTION: Major glycoprotein component of a variety of mucus gels. Thought to provide a protective, lubricating barrier against particles and infectious agents at mucosal surfaces. May be involved in ligand binding and intracellular signaling.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 5]: Secreted.

Answer 231

Phospholipid scramblase 4 (PL scramblase 4) (Ca(2+)-dependent phospholipid scramblase 4) (Cell growth-inhibiting gene 43 protein) (TRA1) Q9NRQ2 FUNCTION: May mediate accelerated ATP-independent bidirectional transbilayer migration of phospholipids upon binding calcium ions that results in a loss of phospholipid asymmetry in the plasma membrane. May play a central role in the initiation of fibrin clot formation, in the activation of mast cells and in the recognition of apoptotic and injured cells by the reticuloendothelial system. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 232

POC1 centriolar protein homolog B (Pix1) (Proteome of centriole protein 1B) (WD repeat-containing protein 51B) Q8TC44 FUNCTION: Plays an important role in centriole assembly and/or stability and ciliogenesis . Involved in early steps of centriole duplication, as well as in the later steps of centriole length control . Acts in concert with POC1A to ensure centriole integrity and proper mitotic spindle formation. Required for primary cilia formation, ciliary length and also cell proliferation . Required for retinal integrity .

Answer 233

Protein POF1B (Premature ovarian failure protein 1B) Q8WVV4 FUNCTION: Plays a key role in the organization of epithelial monolayers by regulating the actin cytoskeleton. May be involved in ovary development.

Answer 234

PILR alpha-associated neural protein (PILR-associating neural protein) (Paired immunoglobin-like type 2 receptor-associating neural protein) Q8IYJ0 FUNCTION: Acts as a ligand for PILRA in neural tissues, where it may be involved in immune regulation.

Answer 235

Endogenous retrovirus group K member 11 Pol protein (HERV-K_3q27.2 provirus ancestral Pol protein) [Includes: Reverse transcriptase (RT) (EC 2.7.49); Ribonuclease H (RNase H) (EC 3.26.4); Integrase (IN)] Q9UQG0 FUNCTION: Early post-infection, the reverse transcriptase converts the viral RNA genome into double-stranded viral DNA. The RNase H domain of the reverse transcriptase performs two functions. It degrades the RNA template and specifically removes the RNA primer from the RNA/DNA hybrid. Following nuclear import, the integrase catalyzes the insertion of the linear, double-stranded viral DNA into the host cell chromosome. Endogenous Pol proteins may have kept, lost or modified their original function during evolution (By similarity).

Answer 236

39S ribosomal protein L27, mitochondrial (L27mt) (MRP-L27) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein bL27m) Q9P0M9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 237

Endogenous retrovirus group K member 6 Pol protein (HERV-K(C7) Pol protein) (HERV-K(HML-2.HOM) Pol protein) (HERV-K108 Pol protein) (HERV-K_7p22.1 provirus ancestral Pol protein) [Includes: Reverse transcriptase (RT) (EC 2.7.49); Ribonuclease H (RNase H) (EC 3.26.4); Integrase (IN)] Q9BXR3 FUNCTION: Early post-infection, the reverse transcriptase converts the viral RNA genome into double-stranded viral DNA. The RNase H domain of the reverse transcriptase performs two functions. It degrades the RNA template and specifically removes the RNA primer from the RNA/DNA hybrid. Following nuclear import, the integrase catalyzes the insertion of the linear, double-stranded viral DNA into the host cell chromosome. Endogenous Pol proteins may have kept, lost or modified their original function during evolution.

Answer 238

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 6 regulatory subunit 1 (SAPS domain family member 1) Q9UPN7 FUNCTION: Regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 6 (PP6). May function as a scaffolding PP6 subunit. Involved in the PP6-mediated dephosphorylation of NFKBIE opposing its degradation in response to TNF-alpha.

Answer 239

Piezo-type mechanosensitive ion channel component 2 (Protein FAM38B) Q9H5I5 FUNCTION: Component of a mechanosensitive channel required for rapidly adapting mechanically activated (MA) currents. Required for Merkel-cell mechanotransduction. Plays a major role in light-touch mechanosensation.

Answer 240

Radial spoke head 10 homolog B P0C881

Answer 241

Type 1 phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate 4-phosphatase (Type 1 PtdIns-4,5-P2 4-Ptase) (EC 3.3.78) (PtdIns-4,5-P2 4-Ptase I) (Transmembrane protein 55B) Q86T03 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns-4,5-P2) to phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate (PtdIns-4-P) . Does not hydrolyze phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate, inositol 3,5-bisphosphate, inositol 3,4-bisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 5-monophosphate, phosphatidylinositol 4-monophosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3-monophosphate . Regulates lysosomal positioning by recruiting JIP4 to lysosomal membranes, thus inducing retrograde transport of lysosomes along microtubules . Contributes to assembly of the V-ATPase complex in lipid rafts of the lysosomal membrane and to subsequent amino acid-dependent activation of mTORC1 . May play a role in the regulation of cellular cholesterol metabolism .

Answer 242

GPI mannosyltransferase 1 (EC 2.1.-) (GPI mannosyltransferase I) (GPI-MT-I) (Phosphatidylinositol-glycan biosynthesis class M protein) (PIG-M) Q9H3S5 FUNCTION: Mannosyltransferase involved in glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchor biosynthesis. Transfers the first alpha-1,4-mannose to GlcN-acyl-PI during GPI precursor assembly.

Answer 243

Phosphatidylinositol-glycan biosynthesis class W protein (PIG-W) (EC 2.-.-) Q7Z7B1 FUNCTION: Required for the transport of GPI-anchored proteins to the plasma membrane . Probable acetyltransferase, which acetylates the inositol ring of phosphatidylinositol during biosynthesis of GPI-anchor. Acetylation during GPI-anchor biosynthesis is not essential for the subsequent mannosylation and is usually removed soon after the attachment of GPIs to proteins (By similarity).

Answer 244

39S ribosomal protein L35, mitochondrial (L35mt) (MRP-L35) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein bL35m) Q9NZE8 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 245

Putative 60S ribosomal protein L13a protein RPL13AP3 (60S ribosomal protein L13a pseudogene 3) Q6NVV1

Answer 246

Testicular acid phosphatase (EC 3.3.2) (Acid phosphatase 4) Q9BZG2 FUNCTION: May dephosphorylate receptor tyrosine-protein kinase ERBB4 and inhibits its ligand-induced proteolytic cleavage . May play a role in odontogenesis .

Answer 247

PIH1 domain-containing protein 1 (Nucleolar protein 17 homolog) Q9NWS0 FUNCTION: Involved in the assembly of C/D box small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (snoRNP) particles . Recruits the SWI/SNF complex to the core promoter of rRNA genes and enhances pre-rRNA transcription (, ). Mediates interaction of TELO2 with the R2TP complex which is necessary for the stability of MTOR and SMG1 . Positively regulates the assembly and activity of the mTORC1 complex .

Answer 248

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RNF144A (EC 2.2.31) (RING finger protein 144A) (UbcM4-interacting protein 4) (Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme 7-interacting protein 4) P50876 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes UBE2L3 and UBE2L6 in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Mediates the ubiquitination and degradation of the DNA damage kinase PRKDC.

Answer 249

39S ribosomal protein L36, mitochondrial (L36mt) (MRP-L36) (BRCA1-interacting protein 1) (Mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit protein bL36m) Q9P0J6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 250

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RNF144B (EC 2.2.31) (IBR domain-containing protein 2) (RING finger protein 144B) (p53-inducible RING finger protein) Q7Z419 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes UBE2L3 and UBE2L6 in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates such as LCMT2, thereby promoting their degradation. Induces apoptosis via a p53/TP53-dependent but caspase-independent mechanism. However, its overexpression also produces a decrease of the ubiquitin-dependent stability of BAX, a pro-apoptotic protein, ultimately leading to protection of cell death; But, it is not an anti-apoptotic protein per se. Note=Mostly cytosololic, accumulates in submitochondrial domains specifically upon apoptosis induction, in synchrony with BAX activation.

Answer 251

Protein mab-21-like 3 Q8N8X9

Answer 252

Histone deacetylase 2 (HD2) (EC 3.1.98) Q92769 FUNCTION: Responsible for the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes. Forms transcriptional repressor complexes by associating with MAD, SIN3, YY1 and N-COR. Interacts in the late S-phase of DNA-replication with DNMT1 in the other transcriptional repressor complex composed of DNMT1, DMAP1, PCNA, CAF1. Deacetylates TSHZ3 and regulates its transcriptional repressor activity. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development. May be involved in the transcriptional repression of circadian target genes, such as PER1, mediated by CRY1 through histone deacetylation. Involved in MTA1-mediated transcriptional corepression of TFF1 and CDKN1A.

Answer 253

Mitofusin-1 (EC 3.5.-) (Fzo homolog) (Transmembrane GTPase MFN1) Q8IWA4 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial outer membrane GTPase that mediates mitochondrial clustering and fusion (, , , ). Membrane clustering requires GTPase activity . It may involve a major rearrangement of the coiled coil domains (, ). Mitochondria are highly dynamic organelles, and their morphology is determined by the equilibrium between mitochondrial fusion and fission events (, ). Overexpression induces the formation of mitochondrial networks (in vitro) . Has low GTPase activity (, ).

Answer 254

Radiation-inducible immediate-early gene IEX-1 (Differentiation-dependent gene 2 protein) (Protein DIF-2) (Immediate early protein GLY96) (Immediate early response 3 protein) (PACAP-responsive gene 1 protein) (Protein PRG1) P46695 FUNCTION: May play a role in the ERK signaling pathway by inhibiting the dephosphorylation of ERK by phosphatase PP2A-PPP2R5C holoenzyme. Acts also as an ERK downstream effector mediating survival. As a member of the NUPR1/RELB/IER3 survival pathway, may provide pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma with remarkable resistance to cell stress, such as starvation or gemcitabine treatment.

Answer 255

Junctional sarcoplasmic reticulum protein 1 (Junctional-face membrane protein of 45 kDa homolog) (JP-45) Q96MG2 FUNCTION: Involved in skeletal muscle excitation/contraction coupling (EC), probably acting as a regulator of the voltage-sensitive calcium channel CACNA1S. EC is a physiological process whereby an electrical signal (depolarization of the plasma membrane) is converted into a chemical signal, a calcium gradient, by the opening of ryanodine receptor calcium release channels. May regulate CACNA1S membrane targeting and activity.

Answer 256

C-Jun-amino-terminal kinase-interacting protein 4 (JIP-4) (JNK-interacting protein 4) (Cancer/testis antigen 89) (CT89) (Human lung cancer oncogene 6 protein) (HLC-6) (JNK-associated leucine-zipper protein) (JLP) (Mitogen-activated protein kinase 8-interacting protein 4) (Proliferation-inducing protein 6) (Protein highly expressed in testis) (PHET) (Sperm surface protein) (Sperm-associated antigen 9) (Sperm-specific protein) (Sunday driver 1) O60271 FUNCTION: The JNK-interacting protein (JIP) group of scaffold proteins selectively mediates JNK signaling by aggregating specific components of the MAPK cascade to form a functional JNK signaling module . Isoform 5 may play a role in spermatozoa-egg-interaction . Regulates lysosomal positioning by acting as an adapter protein which links PIP4P1-positive lysosomes to the dynein-dynactin complex .

Answer 257

C-Jun-amino-terminal kinase-interacting protein 2 (JIP-2) (JNK-interacting protein 2) (Islet-brain-2) (IB-2) (JNK MAP kinase scaffold protein 2) (Mitogen-activated protein kinase 8-interacting protein 2) Q13387 FUNCTION: The JNK-interacting protein (JIP) group of scaffold proteins selectively mediates JNK signaling by aggregating specific components of the MAPK cascade to form a functional JNK signaling module. JIP2 inhibits IL1 beta-induced apoptosis in insulin-secreting cells. May function as a regulator of vesicle transport, through interactions with the JNK-signaling components and motor proteins (By similarity).

Answer 258

Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) (Mechano growth factor) (MGF) (Somatomedin-C) P05019 FUNCTION: The insulin-like growth factors, isolated from plasma, are structurally and functionally related to insulin but have a much higher growth-promoting activity. May be a physiological regulator of [1-14C]-2-deoxy-D-glucose (2DG) transport and glycogen synthesis in osteoblasts. Stimulates glucose transport in bone-derived osteoblastic (PyMS) cells and is effective at much lower concentrations than insulin, not only regarding glycogen and DNA synthesis but also with regard to enhancing glucose uptake. May play a role in synapse maturation (, ). Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of IGF1 is required for sensory perception of smell in the olfactory bulb (By similarity). Acts as a ligand for IGF1R. Binds to the alpha subunit of IGF1R, leading to the activation of the intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity which autophosphorylates tyrosine residues in the beta subunit thus initiatiating a cascade of down-stream signaling events leading to activation of the PI3K-AKT/PKB and the Ras-MAPK pathways. Binds to integrins ITGAV:ITGB3 and ITGA6:ITGB4. Its binding to integrins and subsequent ternary complex formation with integrins and IGFR1 are essential for IGF1 signaling. Induces the phosphorylation and activation of IGFR1, MAPK3/ERK1, MAPK1/ERK2 and AKT1 (, , , ).

Answer 259

Interferon gamma (IFN-gamma) (Immune interferon) P01579 FUNCTION: Produced by lymphocytes activated by specific antigens or mitogens. IFN-gamma, in addition to having antiviral activity, has important immunoregulatory functions. It is a potent activator of macrophages, it has antiproliferative effects on transformed cells and it can potentiate the antiviral and antitumor effects of the type I interferons. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 260

Protein numb homolog (h-Numb) (Protein S171) P49757 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the process of neurogenesis. Required throughout embryonic neurogenesis to maintain neural progenitor cells, also called radial glial cells (RGCs), by allowing their daughter cells to choose progenitor over neuronal cell fate. Not required for the proliferation of neural progenitor cells before the onset of neurogenesis. Also involved postnatally in the subventricular zone (SVZ) neurogenesis by regulating SVZ neuroblasts survival and ependymal wall integrity. May also mediate local repair of brain ventricular wall damage. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 261

Numb-like protein (Numb-related protein) (Numb-R) Q9Y6R0 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the process of neurogenesis. Required throughout embryonic neurogenesis to maintain neural progenitor cells, also called radial glial cells (RGCs), by allowing their daughter cells to choose progenitor over neuronal cell fate. Not required for the proliferation of neural progenitor cells before the onset of embryonic neurogenesis. Also required postnatally in the subventricular zone (SVZ) neurogenesis by regulating SVZ neuroblasts survival and ependymal wall integrity. Negative regulator of NF-kappa-B signaling pathway. The inhibition of NF-kappa-B activation is mediated at least in part, by preventing MAP3K7IP2 to interact with polyubiquitin chains of TRAF6 and RIPK1 and by stimulating the 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination and degradation of TRAF6 in cortical neurons.

Answer 262

Ribose-phosphate pyrophosphokinase 1 (EC 2.6.1) (PPRibP) (Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthase I) (PRS-I) P60891 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the synthesis of phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) that is essential for nucleotide synthesis.

Answer 263

Pre-B-cell leukemia transcription factor 4 (Homeobox protein PBX4) Q9BYU1 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 264

Prolactin-releasing peptide (PrRP) (Prolactin-releasing hormone) [Cleaved into: Prolactin-releasing peptide PrRP31; Prolactin-releasing peptide PrRP20] P81277 FUNCTION: Stimulates prolactin (PRL) release and regulates the expression of prolactin through its receptor GPR10. May stimulate lactotrophs directly to secrete PRL. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 265

P2Y purinoceptor 8 (P2Y8) Q86VZ1 FUNCTION: Probable receptor for purines coupled to G-proteins. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 266

Lysophosphatidylcholine acyltransferase 1 (LPC acyltransferase 1) (LPCAT-1) (LysoPC acyltransferase 1) (EC 2.1.23) (1-acylglycerophosphocholine O-acyltransferase) (1-alkylglycerophosphocholine O-acetyltransferase) (EC 2.1.67) (Acetyl-CoA:lyso-platelet-activating factor acetyltransferase) (Acetyl-CoA:lyso-PAF acetyltransferase) (Lyso-PAF acetyltransferase) (LysoPAFAT) (Acyltransferase-like 2) (Phosphonoformate immuno-associated protein 3) Q8NF37 FUNCTION: Possesses both acyltransferase and acetyltransferase activities (, ). Activity is calcium-independent (By similarity). Mediates the conversion of 1-acyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (LPC) into phosphatidylcholine (PC) . Displays a clear preference for saturated fatty acyl-CoAs, and 1-myristoyl or 1-palmitoyl LPC as acyl donors and acceptors, respectively . May synthesize phosphatidylcholine in pulmonary surfactant, thereby playing a pivotal role in respiratory physiology . Involved in the regulation of lipid droplet number and size .

Answer 267

Protocadherin gamma-A11 (PCDH-gamma-A11) Q9Y5H2 FUNCTION: Potential calcium-dependent cell-adhesion protein. May be involved in the establishment and maintenance of specific neuronal connections in the brain. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 268

Protocadherin alpha-2 (PCDH-alpha-2) Q9Y5H9 FUNCTION: Potential calcium-dependent cell-adhesion protein. May be involved in the establishment and maintenance of specific neuronal connections in the brain. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 269

Protocadherin gamma-B4 (PCDH-gamma-B4) (Cadherin-20) (Fibroblast cadherin-2) Q9UN71 FUNCTION: Potential calcium-dependent cell-adhesion protein. May be involved in the establishment and maintenance of specific neuronal connections in the brain. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 270

Protein NipSnap homolog 1 (NipSnap1) Q9BPW8

Answer 271

Protein naked cuticle homolog 2 (Naked-2) (hNkd2) Q969F2 FUNCTION: Cell autonomous antagonist of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. May activate a second Wnt signaling pathway that controls planar cell polarity (By similarity). Required for processing of TGFA and for targeting of TGFA to the basolateral membrane of polarized epithelial cells.

Answer 272

Proteasome subunit alpha type-6 (EC 3.25.1) (27 kDa prosomal protein) (PROS-27) (p27K) (Macropain iota chain) (Multicatalytic endopeptidase complex iota chain) (Proteasome iota chain) P60900 FUNCTION: Component of the 20S core proteasome complex involved in the proteolytic degradation of most intracellular proteins. This complex plays numerous essential roles within the cell by associating with different regulatory particles. Associated with two 19S regulatory particles, forms the 26S proteasome and thus participates in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. The 26S proteasome plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins that could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Associated with the PA200 or PA28, the 20S proteasome mediates ubiquitin-independent protein degradation. This type of proteolysis is required in several pathways including spermatogenesis (20S-PA200 complex) or generation of a subset of MHC class I-presented antigenic peptides (20S-PA28 complex).

Answer 273

Transcriptional repressor p66-alpha (Hp66alpha) (GATA zinc finger domain-containing protein 2A) Q86YP4 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor. Enhances MBD2-mediated repression. Efficient repression requires the presence of GATAD2B.

Answer 274

Phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase regulatory subunit alpha (PI3-kinase regulatory subunit alpha) (PI3K regulatory subunit alpha) (PtdIns-3-kinase regulatory subunit alpha) (Phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase 85 kDa regulatory subunit alpha) (PI3-kinase subunit p85-alpha) (PtdIns-3-kinase regulatory subunit p85-alpha) P27986 FUNCTION: Binds to activated (phosphorylated) protein-Tyr kinases, through its SH2 domain, and acts as an adapter, mediating the association of the p110 catalytic unit to the plasma membrane. Necessary for the insulin-stimulated increase in glucose uptake and glycogen synthesis in insulin-sensitive tissues. Plays an important role in signaling in response to FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3, FGFR4, KITLG/SCF, KIT, PDGFRA and PDGFRB. Likewise, plays a role in ITGB2 signaling (, , ). Modulates the cellular response to ER stress by promoting nuclear translocation of XBP1 isoform 2 in a ER stress- and/or insulin-dependent manner during metabolic overloading in the liver and hence plays a role in glucose tolerance improvement .

Answer 275

Pepsin A-4 (EC 3.23.1) (Pepsinogen-4) P0DJD7 FUNCTION: Shows particularly broad specificity; although bonds involving phenylalanine and leucine are preferred, many others are also cleaved to some extent. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 276

Nucleolar protein 10 Q9BSC4 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus, nucleolus .

Answer 277

Proline-rich protein 20C P86479

Answer 278

Olfactory receptor 2T10 (Olfactory receptor OR1-64) Q8NGZ9 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 279

Olfactory receptor 2AJ1 Q8NGZ0 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 280

Olfactory receptor 4C45 A6NMZ5 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 281

Olfactory receptor 2T34 (Olfactory receptor OR1-63) Q8NGX1 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 282

Olfactory receptor 51Q1 Q8NH59 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 283

Olfactory receptor 5AK2 Q8NH90 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 284

Olfactory receptor 52I2 (Olfactory receptor OR11-12) Q8NH67 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 285

Olfactory receptor 51F2 (Olfactory receptor OR11-23) Q8NH61 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 286

Nitric oxide synthase-interacting protein (E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase NOSIP) (EC 2.2.27) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase NOSIP) (eNOS-interacting protein) Q9Y314 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that is essential for proper development of the forebrain, the eye, and the face. Catalyzes monoubiquitination of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) catalytic subunit PPP2CA/PPP2CB (By similarity). Negatively regulates nitric oxide production by inducing NOS1 and NOS3 translocation to actin cytoskeleton and inhibiting their enzymatic activity (, , ). Note=Translocates from nucleus to cytoplasm in the G2 phase of the cell cycle .

Answer 287

Neurogenic locus notch homolog protein 1 (Notch 1) (hN1) (Translocation-associated notch protein TAN-1) [Cleaved into: Notch 1 extracellular truncation (NEXT); Notch 1 intracellular domain (NICD)] P46531 FUNCTION: Functions as a receptor for membrane-bound ligands Jagged-1 (JAG1), Jagged-2 (JAG2) and Delta-1 (DLL1) to regulate cell-fate determination. Upon ligand activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) it forms a transcriptional activator complex with RBPJ/RBPSUH and activates genes of the enhancer of split locus. Affects the implementation of differentiation, proliferation and apoptotic programs. Involved in angiogenesis; negatively regulates endothelial cell proliferation and migration and angiogenic sprouting. Involved in the maturation of both CD4(+) and CD8(+) cells in the thymus. Important for follicular differentiation and possibly cell fate selection within the follicle. During cerebellar development, functions as a receptor for neuronal DNER and is involved in the differentiation of Bergmann glia. Represses neuronal and myogenic differentiation. May play an essential role in postimplantation development, probably in some aspect of cell specification and/or differentiation. May be involved in mesoderm development, somite formation and neurogenesis. May enhance HIF1A function by sequestering HIF1AN away from HIF1A. Required for the THBS4 function in regulating protective astrogenesis from the subventricular zone (SVZ) niche after injury. Involved in determination of left/right symmetry by modulating the balance between motile and immotile (sensory) cilia at the left-right organiser (LRO).

Answer 288

Olfactory receptor 1F12 (Hs6M1-35P) Q8NHA8 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 289

Progesterone receptor (PR) (Nuclear receptor subfamily 3 group C member 3) P06401 FUNCTION: The steroid hormones and their receptors are involved in the regulation of eukaryotic gene expression and affect cellular proliferation and differentiation in target tissues. Depending on the isoform, progesterone receptor functions as transcriptional activator or repressor.

Answer 290

Neurogenic locus notch homolog protein 2 (Notch 2) (hN2) [Cleaved into: Notch 2 extracellular truncation (N2ECD); Notch 2 intracellular domain (N2ICD)] Q04721 FUNCTION: Functions as a receptor for membrane-bound ligands Jagged-1 (JAG1), Jagged-2 (JAG2) and Delta-1 (DLL1) to regulate cell-fate determination. Upon ligand activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) it forms a transcriptional activator complex with RBPJ/RBPSUH and activates genes of the enhancer of split locus (, ). Affects the implementation of differentiation, proliferation and apoptotic programs (By similarity). Involved in bone remodeling and homeostasis. In collaboration with RELA/p65 enhances NFATc1 promoter activity and positively regulates RANKL-induced osteoclast differentiation . Positively regulates self-renewal of liver cancer cells .

Answer 291

Olfactory receptor 1L8 (Olfactory receptor OR9-24) Q8NGR8 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 292

Olfactory receptor 2G3 (Olfactory receptor OR1-33) Q8NGZ4 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 293

Olfactory receptor 2C1 (OLFmf3) (Olfactory receptor 2C2) (Olfactory receptor OR16-1) (Olfactory receptor OR16-2) O95371 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 294

Olfactory receptor 2T3 Q8NH03 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 295

Olfactory receptor 4C5 (Olfactory receptor OR11-99) Q8NGB2 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 296

Olfactory receptor 2T4 (Olfactory receptor OR1-60) Q8NH00 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 297

Olfactory receptor 4D9 (Olfactory receptor OR11-253) Q8NGE8 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 298

Olfactory receptor 2V1 Q8NHB1 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 299

Olfactory receptor 4D10 (Olfactory receptor OR11-251) Q8NGI6 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 300

Olfactory receptor 4C12 (Olfactory receptor OR11-259) Q96R67 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 301

Olfactory receptor 4L1 (Olfactory receptor 4L2) (Olfactory receptor OR14-28) Q8NH43 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 302

Olfactory receptor 4P4 (Olfactory receptor 4P3) Q8NGL7 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 303

Olfactory receptor 5D13 (Olfactory receptor OR11-142) (Olfactory receptor OR11-148) Q8NGL4 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 304

Olfactory receptor 4S1 (Olfactory receptor OR11-100) Q8NGB4 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 305

Nucleoredoxin-like protein 2 (Rod-derived cone viability factor 2) (RdCVF2) Q5VZ03 FUNCTION: May be involved in the maintenance of both the function and the viability of sensory neurons, including photoreceptors and olfactory neurons.

Answer 306

Olfactory receptor 4S2 (Olfactory receptor OR11-137) Q8NH73 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 307

Olfactory receptor 5L1 (OST262) (Olfactory receptor OR11-151) Q8NGL2 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 308

Olfactory receptor 5M10 (Olfactory receptor OR11-207) Q6IEU7 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 309

NIPA-like protein 2 Q9H841 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 310

Olfactory receptor 5L2 (HTPCRX16) (Olfactory receptor OR11-153) Q8NGL0 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 311

Olfactory receptor 5T3 (Olfactory receptor OR11-178) Q8NGG3 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 312

Putative olfactory receptor 8G3 pseudogene (Olfactory receptor OR11-297) P0DMU2 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 313

Olfactory receptor 10J4 P0C629 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 314

DNA-dependent protein kinase catalytic subunit (DNA-PK catalytic subunit) (DNA-PKcs) (EC 2.11.1) (DNPK1) (p460) P78527 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts as a molecular sensor for DNA damage. Involved in DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) required for double-strand break (DSB) repair and V(D)J recombination (, , ). Must be bound to DNA to express its catalytic properties. Promotes processing of hairpin DNA structures in V(D)J recombination by activation of the hairpin endonuclease artemis (DCLRE1C) . The assembly of the DNA-PK complex at DNA ends is also required for the NHEJ ligation step (, , , ). Required to protect and align broken ends of DNA (, , , ). May also act as a scaffold protein to aid the localization of DNA repair proteins to the site of damage (, , , ). Found at the ends of chromosomes, suggesting a further role in the maintenance of telomeric stability and the prevention of chromosomal end fusion. Also involved in modulation of transcription (, , , ). Recognizes the substrate consensus sequence [ST]-Q (, , , ). Phosphorylates 'Ser-139' of histone variant H2AX/H2AFX, thereby regulating DNA damage response mechanism (, ). Phosphorylates DCLRE1C, c-Abl/ABL1, histone H1, HSPCA, c-jun/JUN, p53/TP53, PARP1, POU2F1, DHX9, FH, SRF, XRCC1, XRCC1, XRCC4, XRCC5, XRCC6, WRN, MYC and RFA2 (, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , ). Can phosphorylate C1D not only in the presence of linear DNA but also in the presence of supercoiled DNA . Ability to phosphorylate p53/TP53 in the presence of supercoiled DNA is dependent on C1D . Contributes to the determination of the circadian period length by antagonizing phosphorylation of CRY1 'Ser-588' and increasing CRY1 protein stability, most likely through an indirect mechanism (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway .

Answer 315

Neurexophilin-4 O95158 FUNCTION: May be signaling molecules that resemble neuropeptides and that act by binding to alpha-neurexins and possibly other receptors.

Answer 316

Putative olfactory receptor 10D4 Q8NGN7 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 317

Olfactory receptor 7D4 (OR19-B) (Odorant receptor family subfamily D member 4RT) (Olfactory receptor OR19-7) Q8NG98 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. Selectively activated by androstenone and the related odorous steroid androstadienone. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 318

Olfactory receptor 8J1 (Olfactory receptor OR11-183) Q8NGP2 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 319

Neuronal tyrosine-phosphorylated phosphoinositide-3-kinase adapter 2 Q9P242 FUNCTION: Activates PI3K and concomitantly recruits the WAVE1 complex to the close vicinity of PI3K and regulates neuronal morphogenesis.

Answer 320

Olfactory receptor 11H1 (Olfactory receptor OR22-1) Q8NG94 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 321

Olfactory receptor 6V1 (Olfactory receptor OR7-3) Q8N148 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 322

Olfactory receptor 7C1 (Olfactory receptor 7C4) (Olfactory receptor OR19-16) (Olfactory receptor TPCR86) O76099 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 323

Olfactory receptor 13A1 (Olfactory receptor OR10-3) Q8NGR1 FUNCTION: Odorant receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 324

PRELI domain-containing protein 2 Q8N945

Answer 325

Neuropeptide FF receptor 2 (G-protein coupled receptor 74) (G-protein coupled receptor HLWAR77) (Neuropeptide G-protein coupled receptor) Q9Y5X5 FUNCTION: Receptor for NPAF (A-18-F-amide) and NPFF (F-8-F-amide) neuropeptides, also known as morphine-modulating peptides. Can also be activated by a variety of naturally occurring or synthetic FMRF-amide like ligands. This receptor mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 326

Nuclear pore complex-interacting protein family member A5 E9PKD4

Answer 327

Origin recognition complex subunit 5 O43913 FUNCTION: Component of the origin recognition complex (ORC) that binds origins of replication. DNA-binding is ATP-dependent. The specific DNA sequences that define origins of replication have not been identified yet. ORC is required to assemble the pre-replication complex necessary to initiate DNA replication.

Answer 328

PAN2-PAN3 deadenylation complex catalytic subunit PAN2 (EC 3.13.4) (Inactive ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase 52) (PAB1P-dependent poly(A)-specific ribonuclease) (Poly(A)-nuclease deadenylation complex subunit 2) (PAN deadenylation complex subunit 2) Q504Q3 FUNCTION: Catalytic subunit of the poly(A)-nuclease (PAN) deadenylation complex, one of two cytoplasmic mRNA deadenylases involved in general and miRNA-mediated mRNA turnover. PAN specifically shortens poly(A) tails of RNA and the activity is stimulated by poly(A)-binding protein (PABP). PAN deadenylation is followed by rapid degradation of the shortened mRNA tails by the CCR4-NOT complex. Deadenylated mRNAs are then degraded by two alternative mechanisms, namely exosome-mediated 3'-5' exonucleolytic degradation, or deadenlyation-dependent mRNA decaping and subsequent 5'-3' exonucleolytic degradation by XRN1. Also acts as an important regulator of the HIF1A-mediated hypoxic response. Required for HIF1A mRNA stability independent of poly(A) tail length regulation.

Answer 329

Peroxisome assembly protein 12 (Peroxin-12) (Peroxisome assembly factor 3) (PAF-3) O00623 FUNCTION: Required for protein import into peroxisomes.

Answer 330

Oxysterol-binding protein-related protein 3 (ORP-3) (OSBP-related protein 3) Q9H4L5 FUNCTION: Phosphoinositide-binding protein which associates with both cell and endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membranes . Can bind to the ER membrane protein VAPA and recruit VAPA to plasma membrane sites, thus linking these intracellular compartments . The ORP3-VAPA complex stimulates RRAS signaling which in turn attenuates integrin beta-1 (ITGB1) activation at the cell surface (, ). With VAPA, may regulate ER morphology . Has a role in regulation of the actin cytoskeleton, cell polarity and cell adhesion . Binds to phosphoinositides with preference for PI(3,4)P2 and PI(3,4,5)P3 . Also binds 25-hydroxycholesterol and cholesterol .

Answer 331

Dihydrolipoyllysine-residue succinyltransferase component of 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, mitochondrial (EC 2.1.61) (2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex component E2) (OGDC-E2) (Dihydrolipoamide succinyltransferase component of 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex) (E2K) P36957 FUNCTION: Dihydrolipoamide succinyltransferase (E2) component of the 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex (By similarity). The 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the overall conversion of 2-oxoglutarate to succinyl-CoA and CO(2) (By similarity). The 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex is mainly active in the mitochondrion . A fraction of the 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex also localizes in the nucleus and is required for lysine succinylation of histones: associates with KAT2A on chromatin and provides succinyl-CoA to histone succinyltransferase KAT2A .

Answer 332

Oxysterol-binding protein-related protein 8 (ORP-8) (OSBP-related protein 8) Q9BZF1 FUNCTION: Lipid transporter involved in lipid countertransport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the plasma membrane: specifically exchanges phosphatidylserine with phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PI4P), delivering phosphatidylserine to the plasma membrane in exchange for PI4P, which is degraded by the SAC1/SACM1L phosphatase in the endoplasmic reticulum. Binds phosphatidylserine and PI4P in a mutually exclusive manner . Binds oxysterol, 25-hydroxycholesterol and cholesterol (, , ).

Answer 333

Oxysterol-binding protein-related protein 2 (ORP-2) (OSBP-related protein 2) Q9H1P3 FUNCTION: Intracellular transport protein that binds sterols and phospholipids and mediates lipid transport between intracellular compartments. Increases plasma membrane cholesterol levels and decreases phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate levels in the cell membrane . Binds phosphoinositides, such as phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate . Exhibits strong binding to phosphatidic acid and weak binding to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate . Binds cholesterol, dehydroergosterol, 22(R)-hydroxycholesterol and 25-hydroxycholesterol (in vitro) (, , ).

Answer 334

High affinity nerve growth factor receptor (EC 2.10.1) (Neurotrophic tyrosine kinase receptor type 1) (TRK1-transforming tyrosine kinase protein) (Tropomyosin-related kinase A) (Tyrosine kinase receptor) (Tyrosine kinase receptor A) (Trk-A) (gp140trk) (p140-TrkA) P04629 FUNCTION: Receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development and the maturation of the central and peripheral nervous systems through regulation of proliferation, differentiation and survival of sympathetic and nervous neurons. High affinity receptor for NGF which is its primary ligand (, , , , , , , ). Can also bind and be activated by NTF3/neurotrophin-3. However, NTF3 only supports axonal extension through NTRK1 but has no effect on neuron survival (By similarity). Upon dimeric NGF ligand-binding, undergoes homodimerization, autophosphorylation and activation . Recruits, phosphorylates and/or activates several downstream effectors including SHC1, FRS2, SH2B1, SH2B2 and PLCG1 that regulate distinct overlapping signaling cascades driving cell survival and differentiation. Through SHC1 and FRS2 activates a GRB2-Ras-MAPK cascade that regulates cell differentiation and survival. Through PLCG1 controls NF-Kappa-B activation and the transcription of genes involved in cell survival. Through SHC1 and SH2B1 controls a Ras-PI3 kinase-AKT1 signaling cascade that is also regulating survival. In absence of ligand and activation, may promote cell death, making the survival of neurons dependent on trophic factors.

Answer 335

Neuferricin (Cytochrome b5 domain-containing protein 2) Q8WUJ1 FUNCTION: Heme-binding protein which promotes neuronal but not astrocyte differentiation.

Answer 336

Myosin-10 (Cellular myosin heavy chain, type B) (Myosin heavy chain 10) (Myosin heavy chain, non-muscle IIb) (Non-muscle myosin heavy chain B) (NMMHC-B) (Non-muscle myosin heavy chain IIb) (NMMHC II-b) (NMMHC-IIB) P35580 FUNCTION: Cellular myosin that appears to play a role in cytokinesis, cell shape, and specialized functions such as secretion and capping. Involved with LARP6 in the stabilization of type I collagen mRNAs for CO1A1 and CO1A2. During cell spreading, plays an important role in cytoskeleton reorganization, focal contacts formation (in the central part but not the margins of spreading cells), and lamellipodial extension; this function is mechanically antagonized by MYH9. Note=Colocalizes with MCC at the leading edge of migrating cells.

Answer 337

Protein p13 MTCP-1 (p13MTCP1) (Mature T-cell proliferation-1 type B1) (MTCP-1 type B1) P56278 FUNCTION: Enhances the phosphorylation and activation of AKT1 and AKT2.

Answer 338

Nuclear factor of activated T-cells 5 (NF-AT5) (T-cell transcription factor NFAT5) (Tonicity-responsive enhancer-binding protein) (TonE-binding protein) (TonEBP) O94916 FUNCTION: Transcription factor involved, among others, in the transcriptional regulation of osmoprotective and inflammatory genes. Mediates the transcriptional response to hypertonicity . Positively regulates the transcription of LCN2 and S100A4 genes; optimal transactivation of these genes requires the presence of DDX5/DDX17 . Binds the DNA consensus sequence 5'-[ACT][AG]TGGAAA[CAT]A[TA][ATC][CA][ATG][GT][GAC][CG][CT]-3' .

Answer 339

Nascent polypeptide-associated complex subunit alpha-2 (Alpha-NAC-like) (Hom s 2.01) (Nascent polypeptide-associated complex subunit alpha-like) (NAC-alpha-like) Q9H009 FUNCTION: Prevents inappropriate targeting of non-secretory polypeptides to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Binds to nascent polypeptide chains as they emerge from the ribosome and blocks their interaction with the signal recognition particle (SRP), which normally targets nascent secretory peptides to the ER. Also reduces the inherent affinity of ribosomes for protein translocation sites in the ER membrane (M sites) (By similarity).

Answer 340

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase PPP1R11 (EC 2.2.27) (Hemochromatosis candidate gene V protein) (HCG V) (Protein phosphatase 1 regulatory subunit 11) (Protein phosphatase inhibitor 3) O60927 FUNCTION: Atypical E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which ubiquitinates TLR2 at 'Lys-754' leading to its degradation by the proteasome. Plays a role in regulating inflammatory cytokine release and gram-positive bacterial clearance by functioning, in part, through the ubiquitination and degradation of TLR2 . Inhibitor of protein phosphatase 1 .

Answer 341

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase PP1-alpha catalytic subunit (PP-1A) (EC 3.3.16) P62136 FUNCTION: Protein phosphatase that associates with over 200 regulatory proteins to form highly specific holoenzymes which dephosphorylate hundreds of biological targets. Protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) is essential for cell division, and participates in the regulation of glycogen metabolism, muscle contractility and protein synthesis. Involved in regulation of ionic conductances and long-term synaptic plasticity. May play an important role in dephosphorylating substrates such as the postsynaptic density-associated Ca(2+)/calmodulin dependent protein kinase II. Component of the PTW/PP1 phosphatase complex, which plays a role in the control of chromatin structure and cell cycle progression during the transition from mitosis into interphase. Regulates NEK2 function in terms of kinase activity and centrosome number and splitting, both in the presence and absence of radiation-induced DNA damage. Regulator of neural tube and optic fissure closure, and enteric neural crest cell (ENCCs) migration during development. In balance with CSNK1D and CSNK1E, determines the circadian period length, through the regulation of the speed and rhythmicity of PER1 and PER2 phosphorylation. May dephosphorylate CSNK1D and CSNK1E. Dephosphorylates the 'Ser-418' residue of FOXP3 in regulatory T-cells (Treg) from patients with rheumatoid arthritis, thereby inactivating FOXP3 and rendering Treg cells functionally defective . Dephosphorylates CENPA . Dephosphorylates the 'Ser-139' residue of ATG16L1 causing dissociation of ATG12-ATG5-ATG16L1 complex, thereby inhibiting autophagy .

Answer 342

RING finger protein 215 Q9Y6U7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 343

RING finger protein 224 P0DH78

Answer 344

Ras-related protein Rab-9A P51151 FUNCTION: Involved in the transport of proteins between the endosomes and the trans Golgi network. Involved in the recruitment of SGSM2 to melanosomes and is required for the proper trafficking of melanogenic enzymes TYR, TYRP1 and DCT/TYRP2 to melanosomes in melanocytes.

Answer 345

Ras-related protein Rab-6B Q9NRW1 FUNCTION: Seems to have a role in retrograde membrane traffic at the level of the Golgi complex. May function in retrograde transport in neuronal cells.

Answer 346

Protein ripply2 Q5TAB7 FUNCTION: Plays a role in somitogenesis. Required for somite segregation and establishment of rostrocaudal polarity in somites (By similarity).

Answer 347

Transcriptional activator protein Pur-beta (Purine-rich element-binding protein B) Q96QR8 FUNCTION: Has capacity to bind repeated elements in single-stranded DNA such as the purine-rich single strand of the PUR element located upstream of the MYC gene. Plays a role in the control of vascular smooth muscle (VSM) alpha-actin gene transcription as repressor in myoblasts and fibroblasts. Participates in transcriptional and translational regulation of alpha-MHC expression in cardiac myocytes by binding to the purine-rich negative regulatory (PNR) element. Modulates constitutive liver galectin-3 gene transcription by binding to its promoter. May play a role in the dendritic transport of a subset of mRNAs (By similarity).

Answer 348

RNA exonuclease 5 (EC 3.-.-) (Exonuclease NEF-sp) Q96IC2

Answer 349

RNA-binding motif protein, Y chromosome, family 1 member A1 (RNA-binding motif protein 1) (RNA-binding motif protein 2) (Y chromosome RNA recognition motif 1) (hRBMY) P0DJD3 FUNCTION: RNA-binding protein involved in pre-mRNA splicing. Required for sperm development. Acts additively with TRA2B to promote exon 7 inclusion of the survival motor neuron SMN. Binds non-specifically to mRNAs.

Answer 350

Roquin-2 (EC 2.2.27) (Membrane-associated nucleic acid-binding protein) (RING finger and CCCH-type zinc finger domain-containing protein 2) (RING finger protein 164) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase Roquin-2) Q9HBD1 FUNCTION: Post-transcriptional repressor of mRNAs containing a conserved stem loop motif, called constitutive decay element (CDE), which is often located in the 3'-UTR, as in HMGXB3, ICOS, IER3, NFKBID, NFKBIZ, PPP1R10, TNF and in many more mRNAs. Binds to CDE and promotes mRNA deadenylation and degradation. This process does not involve miRNAs. In follicular helper T (Tfh) cells, represses of ICOS and TNFRSF4 expression, thus preventing spontaneous Tfh cell differentiation, germinal center B-cell differentiation in the absence of immunization and autoimmunity. In resting or LPS-stimulated macrophages, controls inflammation by suppressing TNF expression. Also recognizes CDE in its own mRNA and in that of paralogous RC3H1, possibly leading to feedback loop regulation (By similarity). miRNA-binding protein that regulates microRNA homeostasis. Enhances DICER-mediated processing of pre-MIR146a but reduces mature MIR146a levels through an increase of 3' end uridylation. Both inhibits ICOS mRNA expression and they may act together to exert the suppression . Acts as a ubiquitin E3 ligase. Pairs with E2 enzymes UBE2B, UBE2D2, UBE2E2, UBE2E3, UBE2G2, UBE2K and UBE2Q2 and produces polyubiquitin chains . Show the strongest activity when paired with UBE2N:UBE2V1 or UBE2N:UBE2V2 E2 complexes and generate both short and long polyubiquitin chains . Involved in the ubiquitination of MAP3K5 (, ) (By similarity). Able to interact with double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) .

Answer 351

Calcipressin-2 (Down syndrome candidate region 1-like 1) (Myocyte-enriched calcineurin-interacting protein 2) (MCIP2) (Regulator of calcineurin 2) (Thyroid hormone-responsive protein ZAKI-4) Q14206 FUNCTION: Inhibits calcineurin-dependent transcriptional responses by binding to the catalytic domain of calcineurin A. Could play a role during central nervous system development.

Answer 352

RCC1-like G exchanging factor-like protein (RCC1-like) (Williams-Beuren syndrome chromosomal region 16 protein) Q96I51 FUNCTION: Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for mitochondrial dynamin-related GTPase OPA1. Activates OPA1, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP, and drives OPA1 and MFN1-dependent mitochondrial fusion . Plays an essential role in mitochondrial ribosome biogenesis. As a component of a functional protein-RNA module, consisting of RCC1L, NGRN, RPUSD3, RPUSD4, TRUB2, FASTKD2 and 16S mitochondrial ribosomal RNA (16S mt-rRNA), controls 16S mt-rRNA abundance and is required for intra-mitochondrial translation of core subunits of the oxidative phosphorylation system .

Answer 353

Nuclear transport factor 2 (NTF-2) (Placental protein 15) (PP15) P61970 FUNCTION: Mediates the import of GDP-bound RAN from the cytoplasm into the nucleus which is essential for the function of RAN in cargo receptor-mediated nucleocytoplasmic transport. Thereby, plays indirectly a more general role in cargo receptor-mediated nucleocytoplasmic transport. Interacts with GDP-bound RAN in the cytosol, recruits it to the nuclear pore complex via its interaction with nucleoporins and promotes its nuclear import.

Answer 354

ATPase MORC2 (EC 3.1.3) (MORC family CW-type zinc finger protein 2) (Zinc finger CW-type coiled-coil domain protein 1) Q9Y6X9 FUNCTION: Essential for epigenetic silencing by the HUSH (human silencing hub) complex. Recruited by HUSH to target site in heterochromatin, the ATPase activity and homodimerization are critical for HUSH-mediated silencing (, ). Represses germ cell-related genes and L1 retrotransposons in collaboration with SETDB1 and the HUSH complex, the silencing is dependent of repressive epigenetic modifications, such as H3K9me3 mark. Silencing events often occur within introns of transcriptionally active genes, and lead to the down-regulation of host gene expression . During DNA damage response, regulates chromatin remodeling through ATP hydrolysis. Upon DNA damage, is phosphorylated by PAK1, both colocalize to chromatin and induce H2AFX expression. ATPase activity is required and dependent of phosphorylation by PAK1 and presence of DNA . Recruits histone deacetylases, such as HDAC4, to promoter regions, causing local histone H3 deacetylation and transcriptional repression of genes such as CA9 (, ). Exhibits a cytosolic function in lipogenesis, adipogenic differentiation, and lipid homeostasis by increasing the activity of ACLY, possibly preventing its dephosphorylation .

Answer 355

Myoferlin (Fer-1-like protein 3) Q9NZM1 FUNCTION: Calcium/phospholipid-binding protein that plays a role in the plasmalemma repair mechanism of endothelial cells that permits rapid resealing of membranes disrupted by mechanical stress. Involved in endocytic recycling. Implicated in VEGF signal transduction by regulating the levels of the receptor KDR (By similarity).

Answer 356

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase TRIM21 (EC 2.2.27) (52 kDa Ro protein) (52 kDa ribonucleoprotein autoantigen Ro/SS-A) (RING finger protein 81) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase TRIM21) (Ro(SS-A)) (Sjoegren syndrome type A antigen) (SS-A) (Tripartite motif-containing protein 21) P19474 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase whose activity is dependent on E2 enzymes, UBE2D1, UBE2D2, UBE2E1 and UBE2E2. Forms a ubiquitin ligase complex in cooperation with the E2 UBE2D2 that is used not only for the ubiquitination of USP4 and IKBKB but also for its self-ubiquitination. Component of cullin-RING-based SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes such as SCF(SKP2)-like complexes. A TRIM21-containing SCF(SKP2)-like complex is shown to mediate ubiquitination of CDKN1B ('Thr-187' phosphorylated-form), thereby promoting its degradation by the proteasome. Monoubiquitinates IKBKB that will negatively regulates Tax-induced NF-kappa-B signaling. Negatively regulates IFN-beta production post-pathogen recognition by polyubiquitin-mediated degradation of IRF3. Mediates the ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of IgG1 heavy chain, which is linked to the VCP-mediated ER-associated degradation (ERAD) pathway. Promotes IRF8 ubiquitination, which enhanced the ability of IRF8 to stimulate cytokine genes transcription in macrophages. Plays a role in the regulation of the cell cycle progression. Enhances the decapping activity of DCP2. Exists as a ribonucleoprotein particle present in all mammalian cells studied and composed of a single polypeptide and one of four small RNA molecules. At least two isoforms are present in nucleated and red blood cells, and tissue specific differences in RO/SSA proteins have been identified. The common feature of these proteins is their ability to bind HY RNAs. Involved in the regulation of innate immunity and the inflammatory response in response to IFNG/IFN-gamma. Organizes autophagic machinery by serving as a platform for the assembly of ULK1, Beclin 1/BECN1 and ATG8 family members and recognizes specific autophagy targets, thus coordinating target recognition with assembly of the autophagic apparatus and initiation of autophagy. Acts as an autophagy receptor for the degradation of IRF3, hence attenuating type I interferon (IFN)-dependent immune responses . Note=Enters the nucleus upon exposure to nitric oxide. Localizes to small dot- or rod-like structures in the cytoplasm, called processing bodies (P-bodies) that are located underneath the plasma membrane and also diffusely in the cytoplasm. They are located along the microtubules and are highly motile in cells. Colocalizes with DCP2 in P-bodies.

Answer 357

Rabphilin-3A (Exophilin-1) Q9Y2J0 FUNCTION: Plays an essential role in docking and fusion steps of regulated exocytosis (By similarity). At the presynaptic level, RPH3A is recruited by RAB3A to the synaptic vesicle membrane in a GTP-dependent manner where it modulates synaptic vesicle trafficking and calcium-triggered neurotransmitter release (By similarity). In the post-synaptic compartment, forms a ternary complex with GRIN2A and DLG4 and regulates NMDA receptor stability. Plays also a role in the exocytosis of arginine vasopressin hormone (By similarity).

Answer 358

DNA-directed RNA polymerases I, II, and III subunit RPABC1 (RNA polymerases I, II, and III subunit ABC1) (DNA-directed RNA polymerase II 23 kDa polypeptide) (DNA-directed RNA polymerase II subunit E) (RPB5 homolog) (XAP4) P19388 FUNCTION: DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Common component of RNA polymerases I, II and III which synthesize ribosomal RNA precursors, mRNA precursors and many functional non-coding RNAs, and small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs, respectively. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Pols are composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. In Pol II, POLR2E/RPB5 is part of the lower jaw surrounding the central large cleft and thought to grab the incoming DNA template. Seems to be the major component in this process (By similarity).

Answer 359

X-linked retinitis pigmentosa GTPase regulator-interacting protein 1 (RPGR-interacting protein 1) Q96KN7 FUNCTION: May function as scaffolding protein. Required for normal location of RPGR at the connecting cilium of photoreceptor cells. Required for normal disk morphogenesis and disk organization in the outer segment of photoreceptor cells and for survival of photoreceptor cells.

Answer 360

DNA-directed RNA polymerase, mitochondrial (MtRPOL) (EC 2.7.6) O00411 FUNCTION: DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of mitochondrial DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates . Component of the mitochondrial transcription initiation complex, composed at least of TFB2M, TFAM and POLRMT that is required for basal transcription of mitochondrial DNA . In this complex, TFAM recruits POLRMT to a specific promoter whereas TFB2M induces structural changes in POLRMT to enable promoter opening and trapping of the DNA non-template strand .

Answer 361

60S ribosomal protein L32 (Large ribosomal subunit protein eL32) P62910

Answer 362

Ras-related protein Rab-2A P61019 FUNCTION: Required for protein transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi complex. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate compartment membrane . Note=Identified by mass spectrometry in melanosome fractions from stage I to stage IV.

Answer 363

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RNF19B (EC 2.2.31) (IBR domain-containing protein 3) (Natural killer lytic-associated molecule) (RING finger protein 19B) Q6ZMZ0 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes UBE2L3 and UBE2L6 in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates, such as UCKL1 (, ). Involved in the cytolytic activity of natural killer cells and cytotoxic T-cells . Protects against staurosporin-induced cell death .

Answer 364

Ras-related protein Rab-3B P20337 FUNCTION: Protein transport. Probably involved in vesicular traffic (By similarity).

Answer 365

Rab-like protein 6 (GTP-binding protein Parf) (Partner of ARF) (Rab-like protein 1) (RBEL1) Q3YEC7 FUNCTION: May enhance cellular proliferation. May reduce growth inhibitory activity of CDKN2A. Note=Predominantly nuclear .

Answer 366

Ras-related C3 botulinum toxin substrate 2 (GX) (Small G protein) (p21-Rac2) P15153 FUNCTION: Plasma membrane-associated small GTPase which cycles between an active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound state. In active state binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate cellular responses, such as secretory processes, phagocytose of apoptotic cells and epithelial cell polarization. Augments the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) by NADPH oxidase. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Note=Membrane-associated when activated.

Answer 367

ATP-dependent DNA helicase Q5 (EC 3.4.12) (DNA helicase, RecQ-like type 5) (RecQ5) (RecQ protein-like 5) O94762 FUNCTION: Isoform beta is a DNA helicase that plays an important role in DNA replication, transcription and repair. Inhibits elongation of stalled transcripts at DNA damage sites by binding to the RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A and blocking the TCEA1 binding site. Required for mitotic chromosome separation after cross-over events and cell cycle progress. Required for efficient DNA repair, including repair of inter-strand cross-links. Stimulates DNA decatenation mediated by TOP2A. Prevents sister chromatid exchange and homologous recombination.

Answer 368

GTPase RhebL1 (Ras homolog enriched in brain like-1 c) (RhebL1c) (Ras homolog enriched in brain-like protein 1) (Rheb-like protein 1) (Rheb2) Q8TAI7 FUNCTION: Binds GTP and exhibits intrinsic GTPase activity. May activate NF-kappa-B-mediated gene transcription. Promotes signal transduction through MTOR, activates RPS6KB1, and is a downstream target of the small GTPase-activating proteins TSC1 and TSC2.

Answer 369

Lithostathine-1-beta (Pancreatic stone protein 2) (PSP-2) (Regenerating islet-derived protein 1-beta) (REG-1-beta) (Regenerating protein I beta) P48304 FUNCTION: Might act as an inhibitor of spontaneous calcium carbonate precipitation. May be associated with neuronal sprouting in brain, and with brain and pancreas regeneration. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 370

DNA-binding protein RFX7 (Regulatory factor X 7) (Regulatory factor X domain-containing protein 2) Q2KHR2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 371

Ral guanine nucleotide dissociation stimulator-like 1 (RalGDS-like 1) Q9NZL6 FUNCTION: Probable guanine nucleotide exchange factor.

Answer 372

RasGAP-activating-like protein 1 (RAS protein activator like 1) (Ras GTPase-activating-like protein) O95294 FUNCTION: Probable inhibitory regulator of the Ras-cyclic AMP pathway . Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes .

Answer 373

Regulator of G-protein signaling 12 (RGS12) O14924 FUNCTION: Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades. Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form.

Answer 374

Pyridine nucleotide-disulfide oxidoreductase domain-containing protein 2 (EC 1.-.-) Q8N2H3 FUNCTION: Probable oxidoreductase.

Answer 375

Receptor-type tyrosine-protein phosphatase O (R-PTP-O) (EC 3.3.48) (Glomerular epithelial protein 1) (Protein tyrosine phosphatase U2) (PTP-U2) (PTPase U2) Q16827 FUNCTION: Possesses tyrosine phosphatase activity. Plays a role in regulating the glomerular pressure/filtration rate relationship through an effect on podocyte structure and function (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 376

Radial spoke head protein 4 homolog A (Radial spoke head-like protein 3) Q5TD94 FUNCTION: Probable component of the axonemal radial spoke head. Radial spokes are regularly spaced along cilia, sperm and flagella axonemes. They consist of a thin stalk which is attached to a subfiber of the outer doublet microtubule, and a bulbous head which is attached to the stalk and appears to interact with the projections from the central pair of microtubules.

Answer 377

Kinetochore protein Spc24 (hSpc24) Q8NBT2 FUNCTION: Acts as a component of the essential kinetochore-associated NDC80 complex, which is required for chromosome segregation and spindle checkpoint activity . Required for kinetochore integrity and the organization of stable microtubule binding sites in the outer plate of the kinetochore . The NDC80 complex synergistically enhances the affinity of the SKA1 complex for microtubules and may allow the NDC80 complex to track depolymerizing microtubules .

Answer 378

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase SMURF1 (hSMURF1) (EC 2.2.26) (HECT-type E3 ubiquitin transferase SMURF1) (SMAD ubiquitination regulatory factor 1) (SMAD-specific E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase 1) Q9HCE7 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts as a negative regulator of BMP signaling pathway. Mediates ubiquitination and degradation of SMAD1 and SMAD5, 2 receptor-regulated SMADs specific for the BMP pathway. Promotes ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of TRAF family members and RHOA. Promotes ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of MAVS . Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes .

Answer 379

N-lysine methyltransferase SMYD2 (EC 2.1.-) (HSKM-B) (Histone methyltransferase SMYD2) (EC 2.1.-) (Lysine N-methyltransferase 3C) (SET and MYND domain-containing protein 2) Q9NRG4 FUNCTION: Protein-lysine N-methyltransferase that methylates both histones and non-histone proteins, including p53/TP53 and RB1. Specifically methylates histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and dimethylates histone H3 'Lys-36' (H3K36me2). Shows even higher methyltransferase activity on p53/TP53. Monomethylates 'Lys-370' of p53/TP53, leading to decreased DNA-binding activity and subsequent transcriptional regulation activity of p53/TP53. Monomethylates RB1 at 'Lys-860'.

Answer 380

SNARE-associated protein Snapin (Biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles complex 1 subunit 7) (BLOC-1 subunit 7) (Synaptosomal-associated protein 25-binding protein) (SNAP-associated protein) O95295 FUNCTION: Component of the BLOC-1 complex, a complex that is required for normal biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles (LRO), such as platelet dense granules and melanosomes. In concert with the AP-3 complex, the BLOC-1 complex is required to target membrane protein cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals. The BLOC-1 complex, in association with SNARE proteins, is also proposed to be involved in neurite extension. Plays a role in intracellular vesicle trafficking and synaptic vesicle recycling. May modulate a step between vesicle priming, fusion and calcium-dependent neurotransmitter release through its ability to potentiate the interaction of synaptotagmin with the SNAREs and the plasma-membrane-associated protein SNAP25. Its phosphorylation state influences exocytotic protein interactions and may regulate synaptic vesicle exocytosis. May also have a role in the mechanisms of SNARE-mediated membrane fusion in non-neuronal cells (, ). As part of the BORC complex may play a role in lysosomes movement and localization at the cell periphery. Associated with the cytosolic face of lysosomes, the BORC complex may recruit ARL8B and couple lysosomes to microtubule plus-end-directed kinesin motor .

Answer 381

Putative phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate 3-phosphatase TPTE2P1 Q5T6R2

Answer 382

SH3 and multiple ankyrin repeat domains protein 3 (Shank3) (Proline-rich synapse-associated protein 2) (ProSAP2) Q9BYB0 FUNCTION: Major scaffold postsynaptic density protein which interacts with multiple proteins and complexes to orchestrate the dendritic spine and synapse formation, maturation and maintenance. Interconnects receptors of the postsynaptic membrane including NMDA-type and metabotropic glutamate receptors via complexes with GKAP/PSD-95 and HOMER, respectively, and the actin-based cytoskeleton. Plays a role in the structural and functional organization of the dendritic spine and synaptic junction through the interaction with Arp2/3 and WAVE1 complex as well as the promotion of the F-actin clusters. By way of this control of actin dynamics, participates in the regulation of developing neurons growth cone motility and the NMDA receptor-signaling. Also modulates GRIA1 exocytosis and GRM5/MGLUR5 expression and signaling to control the AMPA and metabotropic glutamate receptor-mediated synaptic transmission and plasticity. May be required at an early stage of synapse formation and be inhibited by IGF1 to promote synapse maturation.

Answer 383

SCAN domain-containing protein 3 (Transposon-derived Buster4 transposase-like protein) (Zinc finger BED domain-containing protein 9) Q6R2W3

Answer 384

Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 10D (Decoy receptor 2) (DcR2) (TNF-related apoptosis-inducing ligand receptor 4) (TRAIL receptor 4) (TRAIL-R4) (TRAIL receptor with a truncated death domain) (CD antigen CD264) Q9UBN6 FUNCTION: Receptor for the cytotoxic ligand TRAIL. Contains a truncated death domain and hence is not capable of inducing apoptosis but protects against TRAIL-mediated apoptosis. Reports are contradictory with regards to its ability to induce the NF-kappa-B pathway. According to , it cannot but according to , it can induce the NF-kappa-B pathway. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 385

Sodium/hydrogen exchanger 9 (Na(+)/H(+) exchanger 9) (NHE-9) (Solute carrier family 9 member 9) Q8IVB4 FUNCTION: May act in electroneutral exchange of protons for Na(+) across membranes. Involved in the effusion of Golgi luminal H(+) in exchange for cytosolic cations. Involved in organelle ion homeostasis by contributing to the maintenance of the unique acidic pH values of the Golgi and post-Golgi compartments in the cell.

Answer 386

Synaptosomal-associated protein 25 (SNAP-25) (Super protein) (SUP) (Synaptosomal-associated 25 kDa protein) P60880 FUNCTION: t-SNARE involved in the molecular regulation of neurotransmitter release. May play an important role in the synaptic function of specific neuronal systems. Associates with proteins involved in vesicle docking and membrane fusion. Regulates plasma membrane recycling through its interaction with CENPF. Modulates the gating characteristics of the delayed rectifier voltage-dependent potassium channel KCNB1 in pancreatic beta cells.

Answer 387

Arginine--tRNA ligase, cytoplasmic (EC 6.1.19) (Arginyl-tRNA synthetase) (ArgRS) P54136 FUNCTION: Forms part of a macromolecular complex that catalyzes the attachment of specific amino acids to cognate tRNAs during protein synthesis . Modulates the secretion of AIMP1 and may be involved in generation of the inflammatory cytokine EMAP2 from AIMP1 .

Answer 388

SLAM family member 5 (Cell surface antigen MAX.3) (Hly9-beta) (Leukocyte differentiation antigen CD84) (Signaling lymphocytic activation molecule 5) (CD antigen CD84) Q9UIB8 FUNCTION: Self-ligand receptor of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family. SLAM receptors triggered by homo- or heterotypic cell-cell interactions are modulating the activation and differentiation of a wide variety of immune cells and thus are involved in the regulation and interconnection of both innate and adaptive immune response. Activities are controlled by presence or absence of small cytoplasmic adapter proteins, SH2D1A/SAP and/or SH2D1B/EAT-2. Can mediate natural killer (NK) cell cytotoxicity dependent on SH2D1A and SH2D1B (By similarity). Increases proliferative responses of activated T-cells and SH2D1A/SAP does not seem be required for this process. Homophilic interactions enhance interferon gamma/IFNG secretion in lymphocytes and induce platelet stimulation via a SH2D1A-dependent pathway. May serve as a marker for hematopoietic progenitor cells (, . , , ) Required for a prolonged T-cell:B-cell contact, optimal T follicular helper function, and germinal center formation. In germinal centers involved in maintaining B-cell tolerance and in preventing autoimmunity (By similarity). In mast cells negatively regulates high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor signaling; independent of SH2D1A and SH2D1B but implicating FES and PTPN6/SHP-1 . In macrophages enhances LPS-induced MAPK phosphorylation and NF-kappaB activation and modulates LPS-induced cytokine secretion; involving ITSM 2 (By similarity). Positively regulates macroautophagy in primary dendritic cells via stabilization of IRF8; inhibits TRIM21-mediated proteasomal degradation of IRF8 .