Human Genes Group 3 Flashcards

Question

ZNF616

Answer 1

Zinc finger protein 616 Q08AN1 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 2

Putative uncharacterized protein ZNF252P-AS1 (ZNF252P antisense RNA 1) (ZNF252P antisense gene protein 1) Q0IIN9

Answer 3

Zinc finger protein 609 O15014 FUNCTION: Transcription factor, which activates RAG1, and possibly RAG2, transcription. Through the regulation of RAG1/2 expression, may regulate thymocyte maturation. Along with NIPBL and the multiprotein complex Integrator, promotes cortical neuron migration during brain development by regulating the transcription of crucial genes in this process. Preferentially binds promoters containing paused RNA polymerase II. Up-regulates the expression of SEMA3A, NRP1, PLXND1 and GABBR2 genes, among others.

Answer 4

Zinc finger protein 546 (Zinc finger protein 49) Q86UE3 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 5

Protein wntless homolog (Integral membrane protein GPR177) (Protein evenness interrupted homolog) (EVI) (Putative NF-kappa-B-activating protein 373) Q5T9L3 FUNCTION: Regulates Wnt proteins sorting and secretion in a feedback regulatory mechanism. This reciprocal interaction plays a key role in the regulation of expression, subcellular location, binding and organelle-specific association of Wnt proteins. Plays also an important role in establishment of the anterior-posterior body axis formation during development (By similarity).

Answer 6

Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 22 (Krueppel-related zinc finger protein 2) (Protein HKR2) (Zinc finger protein 50) P10073 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 7

Zyxin (Zyxin-2) Q15942 FUNCTION: Adhesion plaque protein. Binds alpha-actinin and the CRP protein. Important for targeting TES and ENA/VASP family members to focal adhesions and for the formation of actin-rich structures. May be a component of a signal transduction pathway that mediates adhesion-stimulated changes in gene expression (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton. Nucleus. Cell junction, focal adhesion. Note=Associates with the actin cytoskeleton near the adhesion plaques. Enters the nucleus in the presence of HESX1.

Answer 8

Putative tetratricopeptide repeat protein 41 (TPR repeat protein 41) (Grp94-neighboring nucleotidase) Q6P2S7 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 9

Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 37 (TPR repeat protein 37) (SKI3 homolog) (Ski3) (Tricho-hepatic-enteric syndrome protein) (Thespin) Q6PGP7 FUNCTION: Component of the SKI complex which is thought to be involved in exosome-mediated RNA decay and associates with transcriptionally active genes in a manner dependent on PAF1 complex (PAF1C). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 10

Vacuole membrane protein 1 (Transmembrane protein 49) Q96GC9 FUNCTION: Stress-induced protein that, when overexpressed, promotes formation of intracellular vacuoles followed by cell death. May be involved in the cytoplasmic vacuolization of acinar cells during the early stage of acute pancreatitis. Plays a role in the initial stages of the autophagic process through its interaction with BECN1 (By similarity). Involved in cell-cell adhesion. Plays an essential role in formation of cell junctions . Required for autophagosome formation .

Answer 11

Lymphotactin (ATAC) (C motif chemokine 1) (Cytokine SCM-1) (Lymphotaxin) (SCM-1-alpha) (Small-inducible cytokine C1) (XC chemokine ligand 1) P47992 FUNCTION: Chemotactic activity for lymphocytes but not for monocytes or neutrophils. In thymus, mediates medullary accumulation of thymic dendritic cells and contributes to regulatoy T cell development, playing a role in self-tolerance establishment. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 12

Tubulinyl-Tyr carboxypeptidase 2 (EC 3.17.17) (Vasohibin-2) (Vasohibin-like protein) Q86V25 FUNCTION: Tyrosine carboxypeptidase that removes the C-terminal tyrosine residue of alpha-tubulin, thereby regulating microtubule dynamics and function . Acts as an activator of angiogenesis: expressed in infiltrating mononuclear cells in the sprouting front to promote angiogenesis .

Answer 13

V-type proton ATPase subunit B, kidney isoform (V-ATPase subunit B 1) (Endomembrane proton pump 58 kDa subunit) (Vacuolar proton pump subunit B 1) P15313 FUNCTION: Non-catalytic subunit of the peripheral V1 complex of vacuolar ATPase. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying a variety of intracellular compartments in eukaryotic cells. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endomembrane system; Peripheral membrane protein. Note=Endomembrane.

Answer 14

Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 26B (Vesicle protein sorting 26B) Q4G0F5 FUNCTION: Acts as component of the retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC). The CSC is believed to be the core functional component of retromer or respective retromer complex variants acting to prevent missorting of selected transmembrane cargo proteins into the lysosomal degradation pathway. The recruitment of the CSC to the endosomal membrane involves RAB7A and SNX3. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX3-retromer mediates the retrograde transport of WLS distinct from the SNX-BAR retromer pathway. The SNX27-retromer is believed to be involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of a broad spectrum of cargo proteins. The CSC seems to act as recruitment hub for other proteins, such as the WASH complex and TBC1D5. May be involved in retrograde transport of SORT1 but not of IGF2R. Acts redundantly with VSP26A in SNX-27 mediated endocytic recycling of SLC2A1/GLUT1 (By similarity).

Answer 15

Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 33B (hVPS33B) Q9H267 FUNCTION: May play a role in vesicle-mediated protein trafficking to lysosomal compartments and in membrane docking/fusion reactions of late endosomes/lysosomes. Mediates phagolysosomal fusion in macrophages . Proposed to be involved in endosomal maturation implicating VIPAS39. In epithelial cells, the VPS33B:VIPAS39 complex may play a role in the apical recycling pathway and in the maintenance of the apical-basolateral polarity . Seems to be involved in the sorting of specific cargos from the trans-Golgi network to alpha-granule-destined multivesicular bodies (MVBs) promoting MVBs maturation in megakaryocytes (By similarity).

Answer 16

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor VAV2 (VAV-2) P52735 FUNCTION: Guanine nucleotide exchange factor for the Rho family of Ras-related GTPases. Plays an important role in angiogenesis. Its recruitment by phosphorylated EPHA2 is critical for EFNA1-induced RAC1 GTPase activation and vascular endothelial cell migration and assembly (By similarity).

Answer 17

Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 29 (hVPS29) (PEP11 homolog) (Vesicle protein sorting 29) Q9UBQ0 FUNCTION: Acts as component of the retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC). The CSC is believed to be the core functional component of retromer or respective retromer complex variants acting to prevent missorting of selected transmembrane cargo proteins into the lysosomal degradation pathway. The recruitment of the CSC to the endosomal membrane involves RAB7A and SNX3. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX3-retromer mediates the retrograde endosome-to-TGN transport of WLS distinct from the SNX-BAR retromer pathway. The SNX27-retromer is believed to be involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of a broad spectrum of cargo proteins. The CSC seems to act as recruitment hub for other proteins, such as the WASH complex and TBC1D5. Required to regulate transcytosis of the polymeric immunoglobulin receptor (pIgR-pIgA) (, , ). Acts also as component of the retriever complex. The retriever complex is a heterotrimeric complex related to retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC) and essential for retromer-independent retrieval and recycling of numerous cargos such as integrin alpha-5/beta-1 (ITGA5:ITGB1) . In the endosomes, retriever complex drives the retrieval and recycling of NxxY-motif-containing cargo proteins by coupling to SNX17, a cargo essential for the homeostatic maintenance of numerous cell surface proteins associated with processes that include cell migration, cell adhesion, nutrient supply and cell signaling . The recruitment of the retriever complex to the endosomal membrane involves CCC and WASH complexes . Involved in GLUT1 endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking; the function is dependent of association with ANKRD27 .

Answer 18

Protein yippee-like 3 P61236 FUNCTION: Involved in proliferation and apoptosis in myeloid precursor cells.

Answer 19

Serine/threonine-protein kinase VRK2 (EC 2.11.1) (Vaccinia-related kinase 2) Q86Y07 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine kinase that regulates several signal transduction pathways. Isoform 1 modulates the stress response to hypoxia and cytokines, such as interleukin-1 beta (IL1B) and this is dependent on its interaction with MAPK8IP1, which assembles mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) complexes. Inhibition of signal transmission mediated by the assembly of MAPK8IP1-MAPK complexes reduces JNK phosphorylation and JUN-dependent transcription. Phosphorylates 'Thr-18' of p53/TP53, histone H3, and may also phosphorylate MAPK8IP1. Phosphorylates BANF1 and disrupts its ability to bind DNA and reduces its binding to LEM domain-containing proteins. Downregulates the transactivation of transcription induced by ERBB2, HRAS, BRAF, and MEK1. Blocks the phosphorylation of ERK in response to ERBB2 and HRAS. Can also phosphorylate the following substrates that are commonly used to establish in vitro kinase activity: casein, MBP and histone H2B, but it is not sure that this is physiologically relevant.; FUNCTION: Isoform 2 phosphorylates 'Thr-18' of p53/TP53, as well as histone H3. Reduces p53/TP53 ubiquitination by MDM2, promotes p53/TP53 acetylation by EP300 and thereby increases p53/TP53 stability and activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Cytoplasm. Endoplasmic reticulum membrane .

Answer 20

Vesicle transport through interaction with t-SNAREs homolog 1B (Vesicle transport v-SNARE protein Vti1-like 1) (Vti1-rp1) Q9UEU0 FUNCTION: V-SNARE that mediates vesicle transport pathways through interactions with t-SNAREs on the target membrane. These interactions are proposed to mediate aspects of the specificity of vesicle trafficking and to promote fusion of the lipid bilayers. May be concerned with increased secretion of cytokines associated with cellular senescence.

Answer 21

Vesicular acetylcholine transporter (VAChT) (Solute carrier family 18 member 3) Q16572 FUNCTION: Involved in acetylcholine transport into synaptic vesicles.

Answer 22

WASH complex subunit 2C (Vaccinia virus penetration factor) (VPEF) Q9Y4E1 FUNCTION: Acts at least in part as component of the WASH core complex whose assembly at the surface of endosomes inhibits WASH nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) activity in recruiting and activating the Arp2/3 complex to induce actin polymerization and is involved in the fission of tubules that serve as transport intermediates during endosome sorting. Mediates the recruitment of the WASH core complex to endosome membranes via binding to phospholipids and VPS35 of the retromer CSC. Mediates the recruitment of the F-actin-capping protein dimer to the WASH core complex probably promoting localized F-actin polymerization needed for vesicle scission (, , , ). Via its C-terminus binds various phospholipids, most strongly phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns-(4)P), phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate (PtdIns-(5)P) and phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns-(3,5)P2). Involved in the endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of SNX27-retromer-dependent cargo proteins, such as GLUT1 . Required for the association of DNAJC13, ENTR1, ANKRD50 with retromer CSC subunit VPS35 . Required for the endosomal recruitment of CCC and retriever complexes subunits COMMD1 and CCDC93 as well as the retrievere complex subunit VPS35L (, ). Cell membrane. Note=Partially colocalizes with RAB11A, a recycling endosome marker. Associates with lipid raft microdomains on the plasma membrane.

Answer 23

AN1-type zinc finger protein 2A Q8N6M9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 24

WW domain binding protein 1-like (Outcome predictor in acute leukemia 1) Q9NX94 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 25

Vasopressin V1b receptor (V1bR) (AVPR V1b) (AVPR V3) (Antidiuretic hormone receptor 1b) (Vasopressin V3 receptor) P47901 FUNCTION: Receptor for arginine vasopressin. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate a phosphatidyl-inositol-calcium second messenger system. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 26

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein family member 3 (WASP family protein member 3) (Protein WAVE-3) (Verprolin homology domain-containing protein 3) Q9UPY6 FUNCTION: Downstream effector molecules involved in the transmission of signals from tyrosine kinase receptors and small GTPases to the actin cytoskeleton. Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton.

Answer 27

Zinc finger protein 82 homolog (Zfp-82) (Zinc finger protein 545) Q8N141 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 28

Protein ZGRF1 (GRF-type zinc finger domain-containing protein 1) Q86YA3 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 29

Zinc finger MIZ domain-containing protein 1 (PIAS-like protein Zimp10) (Retinoic acid-induced protein 17) Q9ULJ6 FUNCTION: Acts as transcriptional coactivator. Increases ligand-dependent transcriptional activity of AR and promotes AR sumoylation. The stimulation of AR activity is dependent upon sumoylation (, ). Also functions as a transcriptional coactivator in the TGF-beta signaling pathway by increasing the activity of the SMAD3/SMAD4 transcriptional complex . Involved in transcriptional activation of a subset of NOTCH1 target genes including MYC. Involved in thymocyte and T cell development (By similarity).

Answer 30

WD repeat-containing protein 49 Q8IV35

Answer 31

Zinc finger protein 32 (C2H2-546) (Zinc finger protein KOX30) P17041 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 32

Zinc finger protein 488 Q96MN9 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor. Plays a role in oligodendrocyte differentiation, together with OLIG2. Mediates Notch signaling-activated formation of oligodendrocyte precursors. Promotes differentiation of adult neural stem progenitor cells (NSPCs) into mature oligodendrocytes and contributes to remyelination following nerve injury.

Answer 33

Zinc finger protein 774 Q6NX45 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Answer 34

Zinc finger protein 530 Q6P9A1 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Answer 35

Testis-specific serine kinase substrate (Testis-specific kinase substrate) (STK22 substrate 1) Q9UJT2 FUNCTION: May play a role in testicular physiology, most probably in the process of spermatogenesis or spermatid development. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, microtubule organizing center, centrosome, centriole . Note=Concentrates in spermatid centrioles during flagellogenesis.

Answer 36

Zinc finger protein 84 (Zinc finger protein HPF2) P51523 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 37

Tetraspanin-9 (Tspan-9) (Tetraspan NET-5) O75954 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 38

Serine/threonine-protein kinase WNK2 (EC 2.11.1) (Antigen NY-CO-43) (Protein kinase lysine-deficient 2) (Protein kinase with no lysine 2) (Serologically defined colon cancer antigen 43) Q9Y3S1 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine kinase which plays an important role in the regulation of electrolyte homeostasis, cell signaling, survival, and proliferation. Acts as an activator and inhibitor of sodium-coupled chloride cotransporters and potassium-coupled chloride cotransporters respectively. Activates SLC12A2, SCNN1A, SCNN1B, SCNN1D and SGK1 and inhibits SLC12A5. Negatively regulates the EGF-induced activation of the ERK/MAPK-pathway and the downstream cell cycle progression. Affects MAPK3/MAPK1 activity by modulating the activity of MAP2K1 and this modulation depends on phosphorylation of MAP2K1 by PAK1. WNK2 acts by interfering with the activity of PAK1 by controlling the balance of the activity of upstream regulators of PAK1 activity, RHOA and RAC1, which display reciprocal activity.

Answer 39

Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 27 (TPR repeat protein 27) Q6P3X3

Answer 40

Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 16 (TPR repeat protein 16) Q8NEE8

Answer 41

V-type proton ATPase subunit E 2 (V-ATPase subunit E 2) (Vacuolar proton pump subunit E 2) Q96A05 FUNCTION: Subunit of the peripheral V1 complex of vacuolar ATPase essential for assembly or catalytic function. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying a variety of intracellular compartments in eukaryotic cells. This isoform is essential for energy coupling involved in acidification of acrosome (By similarity).

Answer 42

WD repeat-containing protein 17 Q8IZU2

Answer 43

GATOR complex protein WDR24 (WD repeat-containing protein 24) Q96S15 FUNCTION: As a component of the GATOR subcomplex GATOR2, functions within the amino acid-sensing branch of the TORC1 signaling pathway (, ). Indirectly activates mTORC1 and the TORC1 signaling pathway through the inhibition of the GATOR1 subcomplex . It is negatively regulated by the upstream amino acid sensors SESN2 and CASTOR1 (, , ). In addition to its role in regulation of the TORC1 complex, promotes the acidification of lysosomes and facilitates autophagic flux .

Answer 44

Zinc finger matrin-type protein 2 Q96NC0 FUNCTION: Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the spliceosome.

Answer 45

Zinc finger protein with KRAB and SCAN domains 1 (Zinc finger protein 139) (Zinc finger protein 36) (Zinc finger protein KOX18) P17029 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 46

Zinc finger MYND domain-containing protein 15 Q9H091 FUNCTION: Acts as a transcriptional repressor through interaction with histone deacetylases (HDACs). May be important for spermiogenesis.

Answer 47

Zinc finger protein 239 (Zinc finger protein HOK-2) (Zinc finger protein MOK-2) Q16600 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 48

Zinc finger protein 221 Q9UK13 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 49

Zinc finger protein 213 (Putative transcription factor CR53) (Zinc finger protein with KRAB and SCAN domains 21) O14771 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 50

WD repeat-containing protein 7 (Rabconnectin-3 beta) (TGF-beta resistance-associated protein TRAG) Q9Y4E6

Answer 51

Serine/threonine-protein kinase ULK4 (EC 2.11.1) (Unc-51-like kinase 4) Q96C45 FUNCTION: May be involved in the remodeling of cytoskeletal components, such as alpha-tubulin, and in this way regulates neurite branching and elongation, as well as cell motility.

Answer 52

Zinc finger protein 225 Q9UK10 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 53

Zinc finger protein 285 (Zinc finger protein 285A) Q96NJ3 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 54

Zinc finger protein 300 Q96RE9 FUNCTION: Has a transcriptional repressor activity.

Answer 55

Zinc finger protein 729 A6NN14 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 56

Zinc finger protein 764 Q96H86 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 57

Zinc finger protein 17 (Zinc finger protein HPF3) (Zinc finger protein KOX10) P17021 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 58

Teashirt homolog 2 (Ovarian cancer-related protein 10-2) (OVC10-2) (Zinc finger protein 218) Q9NRE2 FUNCTION: Probable transcriptional regulator involved in developmental processes. May act as a transcriptional repressor (Potential).

Answer 59

WAP four-disulfide core domain protein 2 (Epididymal secretory protein E4) (Major epididymis-specific protein E4) (Putative protease inhibitor WAP5) Q14508 FUNCTION: Broad range protease inhibitor.

Answer 60

Zinc finger protein 367 (C2H2 zinc finger protein ZFF29) Q7RTV3 FUNCTION: Transcriptional activator. Isoform 1 may be involved in transcriptional activation of erythroid genes.

Answer 61

Zinc finger protein 589 (Stem cell zinc finger protein 1) Q86UQ0 FUNCTION: May play a role in hematopoietic stem/progenitor cell differentiation. May play a role as a DNA binding-dependent transcriptional repressor.

Answer 62

Zinc transporter 5 (ZnT-5) (Solute carrier family 30 member 5) (ZnT-like transporter 1) (hZTL1) Q8TAD4 FUNCTION: Functions as a zinc transporter. May be a transporter of zinc into beta cells in order to form insulin crystals. Partly regulates cellular zinc homeostasis. Required with ZNT7 for the activation of zinc-requiring enzymes, alkaline phosphatases (ALPs). Transports zinc into the lumens of the Golgi apparatus and vesicular compartments where ALPs locate, thus, converting apoALPs to holoALPs. Required with ZNT6 and ZNT7 for the activation of TNAP. Note=Perimeter of granules, localizes to the brush border membrane of the enterocyte. Concentrated in early compartments of the secretory pathway such as COPII-coated vesicles.

Answer 63

Zinc transporter 3 (ZnT-3) (Solute carrier family 30 member 3) Q99726 FUNCTION: Involved in accumulation of zinc in synaptic vesicles.

Answer 64

Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide receptor 1 (VIP-R-1) (Pituitary adenylate cyclase-activating polypeptide type II receptor) (PACAP type II receptor) (PACAP-R-2) (PACAP-R2) (VPAC1) P32241 FUNCTION: This is a receptor for VIP. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase. The affinity is VIP = PACAP-27 > PACAP-38. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 65

Zinc finger protein 573 Q86YE8 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 66

WD repeat domain phosphoinositide-interacting protein 2 (WIPI-2) (WIPI49-like protein 2) Q9Y4P8 FUNCTION: Component of the autophagy machinery that controls the major intracellular degradation process by which cytoplasmic materials are packaged into autophagosomes and delivered to lysosomes for degradation (, ). Involved in an early step of the formation of preautophagosomal structures (, ). Binds and is activated by phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P) forming on membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum upon activation of the upstream ULK1 and PI3 kinases . Once activated, WIPI2 recruits at phagophore assembly sites the ATG12-ATG5-ATG16L1 complex that directly controls the elongation of the nascent autophagosomal membrane (, ).

Answer 67

Zinc transporter 8 (ZnT-8) (Solute carrier family 30 member 8) Q8IWU4 FUNCTION: Facilitates the accumulation of zinc from the cytoplasm into intracellular vesicles, being a zinc-efflux transporter. May be a major component for providing zinc to insulin maturation and/or storage processes in insulin-secreting pancreatic beta-cells.

Answer 68

WNT1-inducible-signaling pathway protein 2 (WISP-2) (CCN family member 5) (Connective tissue growth factor-like protein) (CTGF-L) (Connective tissue growth factor-related protein 58) O76076 FUNCTION: May play an important role in modulating bone turnover. Promotes the adhesion of osteoblast cells and inhibits the binding of fibrinogen to integrin receptors. In addition, inhibits osteocalcin production. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 69

V-type immunoglobulin domain-containing suppressor of T-cell activation (Platelet receptor Gi24) (Stress-induced secreted protein-1) (Sisp-1) (V-set domain-containing immunoregulatory receptor) (V-set immunoregulatory receptor) Q9H7M9 FUNCTION: Immunoregulatory receptor which inhibits the T-cell response . May promote differentiation of embryonic stem cells, by inhibiting BMP4 signaling (By similarity). May stimulate MMP14-mediated MMP2 activation .

Answer 70

Zinc finger protein 652 Q9Y2D9 FUNCTION: Functions as a transcriptional repressor.

Answer 71

Zona pellucida sperm-binding protein 1 (Zona pellucida glycoprotein 1) (Zp-1) [Cleaved into: Processed zona pellucida sperm-binding protein 1] P60852 FUNCTION: Component of the zona pellucida, an extracellular matrix surrounding oocytes which mediates sperm binding, induction of the acrosome reaction and prevents post-fertilization polyspermy. The zona pellucida is composed of 3 to 4 glycoproteins, ZP1, ZP2, ZP3, and ZP4. ZP1 ensures the structural integrity of the zona pellucida. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Processed zona pellucida sperm-binding protein 1]: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix .

Answer 72

Protein Wnt-5b Q9H1J7 FUNCTION: Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Probable developmental protein. May be a signaling molecule which affects the development of discrete regions of tissues. Is likely to signal over only few cell diameters (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix.

Answer 73

Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 21A (TPR repeat protein 21A) (Stress-inducible protein 2) Q8NDW8 FUNCTION: Intraflagellar transport (IFT)-associated protein required for spermatogenesis . Required for sperm flagellar formation and intraflagellar transport .

Answer 74

Zona pellucida sperm-binding protein 2 (Zona pellucida glycoprotein 2) (Zp-2) (Zona pellucida protein A) [Cleaved into: Processed zona pellucida sperm-binding protein 2] Q05996 FUNCTION: Component of the zona pellucida, an extracellular matrix surrounding oocytes which mediates sperm binding, induction of the acrosome reaction and prevents post-fertilization polyspermy . The zona pellucida is composed of 3 to 4 glycoproteins, ZP1, ZP2, ZP3, and ZP4. ZP2 may act as a secondary sperm receptor .

Answer 75

Zinc finger protein 506 Q5JVG8 FUNCTION: May be involved in transcriptional regulation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 76

V-type proton ATPase subunit e 2 (V-ATPase subunit e 2) (Lysosomal 9 kDa H(+)-transporting ATPase V0 subunit e2) (Vacuolar proton pump subunit e 2) Q8NHE4 FUNCTION: Vacuolar ATPase is responsible for acidifying a variety of intracellular compartments in eukaryotic cells.

Answer 77

WW domain-containing transcription regulator protein 1 (Transcriptional coactivator with PDZ-binding motif) Q9GZV5 FUNCTION: Transcriptional coactivator which acts as a downstream regulatory target in the Hippo signaling pathway that plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. WWTR1 enhances PAX8 and NKX2-1/TTF1-dependent gene activation. Regulates the nuclear accumulation of SMADS and has a key role in coupling them to the transcriptional machinery such as the mediator complex. Regulates embryonic stem-cell self-renewal, promotes cell proliferation and epithelial-mesenchymal transition. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Cytoplasm. Note=Concentrates along specific portions of the plasma membrane, and accumulates in punctate nuclear bodies. When phosphorylated, is retained in cytoplasm by YWHAZ. Can be retained in the nucleus by MED15.

Answer 78

XIAP-associated factor 1 (BIRC4-binding protein) Q6GPH4 FUNCTION: Seems to function as a negative regulator of members of the IAP (inhibitor of apoptosis protein) family. Inhibits anti-caspase activity of BIRC4. Induces cleavage and inactivation of BIRC4 independent of caspase activation. Mediates TNF-alpha-induced apoptosis and is involved in apoptosis in trophoblast cells. May inhibit BIRC4 indirectly by activating the mitochondrial apoptosis pathway. After translocation to mitochondria, promotes translocation of BAX to mitochondria and cytochrome c release from mitochondria. Seems to promote the redistribution of BIRC4 from the cytoplasm to the nucleus, probably independent of BIRC4 inactivation which seems to occur in the cytoplasm. The BIRC4-XAF1 complex mediates down-regulation of BIRC5/survivin; the process requires the E3 ligase activity of BIRC4. Seems to be involved in cellular sensitivity to the proapoptotic actions of TRAIL. May be a tumor suppressor by mediating apoptosis resistance of cancer cells. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Nucleus. Mitochondrion. Note=Found in the cytoplasm and nucleus of placental syncytiotrophoblasts. Translocates to mitochondria upon TNF-alpha treatment.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Nucleus.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 5]: Nucleus.

Answer 79

Tetratricopeptide repeat protein 32 (TPR repeat protein 32) Q5I0X7

Answer 80

Putative zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 5D (Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 5D pseudogene) P0CG00 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 81

DNA annealing helicase and endonuclease ZRANB3 (Annealing helicase 2) (AH2) (Zinc finger Ran-binding domain-containing protein 3) [Includes: DNA annealing helicase ZRANB3 (EC 3.4.-); Endonuclease ZRANB3 (EC 3.-.-)] Q5FWF4 FUNCTION: DNA annealing helicase and endonuclease required to maintain genome stability at stalled or collapsed replication forks by facilitating fork restart and limiting inappropriate recombination that could occur during template switching events (, , , , ). Recruited to the sites of stalled DNA replication by polyubiquitinated PCNA and acts as a structure-specific endonuclease that cleaves the replication fork D-loop intermediate, generating an accessible 3'-OH group in the template of the leading strand, which is amenable to extension by DNA polymerase . In addition to endonuclease activity, also catalyzes the fork regression via annealing helicase activity in order to prevent disintegration of the replication fork and the formation of double-strand breaks (, ).

Answer 82

Tubulin polyglutamylase TTLL6 (EC 6.-.-) (Tubulin--tyrosine ligase-like protein 6) Q8N841 FUNCTION: Polyglutamylase which preferentially modifies alpha-tubulin. Mediates tubulin polyglutamylation in cilia. Involved in the side-chain elongation step of the polyglutamylation reaction rather than in the initiation step. Generates long side-chains. Generates polyglutamylation of CGAS, leading to impair the DNA-binding activity of CGAS.

Answer 83

Vacuolar protein sorting-associated protein 13B (Cohen syndrome protein 1) Q7Z7G8 FUNCTION: May be involved in protein sorting in post Golgi membrane traffic.

Answer 84

V-type proton ATPase subunit C 2 (V-ATPase subunit C 2) (Vacuolar proton pump subunit C 2) Q8NEY4 FUNCTION: Subunit of the peripheral V1 complex of vacuolar ATPase. Subunit C is necessary for the assembly of the catalytic sector of the enzyme and is likely to have a specific function in its catalytic activity. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying a variety of intracellular compartments in eukaryotic cells.

Answer 85

Vascular cell adhesion protein 1 (V-CAM 1) (VCAM-1) (INCAM-100) (CD antigen CD106) P19320 FUNCTION: Important in cell-cell recognition. Appears to function in leukocyte-endothelial cell adhesion. Interacts with integrin alpha-4/beta-1 (ITGA4/ITGB1) on leukocytes, and mediates both adhesion and signal transduction. The VCAM1/ITGA4/ITGB1 interaction may play a pathophysiologic role both in immune responses and in leukocyte emigration to sites of inflammation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.

Answer 86

Endogenous retrovirus group K member 9 Pro protein (HERV-K(C6) Pro protein) (HERV-K109 Pro protein) (HERV-K_6q14.1 provirus ancestral Pro protein) (EC 3.23.50) (Protease) (Proteinase) (PR) P63127 FUNCTION: Retroviral proteases have roles in the processing of the primary translation products and the maturation of the viral particle. Endogenous Pro proteins may have kept, lost or modified their original function during evolution (By similarity).

Answer 87

Endogenous retrovirus group K member 19 Pro protein (HERV-K(C19) Pro protein) (HERV-K_19q12 provirus ancestral Pro protein) (EC 3.23.50) (Protease) (Proteinase) (PR) P63120 FUNCTION: Retroviral proteases have roles in the processing of the primary translation products and the maturation of the viral particle. Endogenous Pro proteins may have kept, lost or modified their original function during evolution.

Answer 88

Cysteine-rich DPF motif domain-containing protein 1 Q6NVV7

Answer 89

Coatomer subunit gamma-1 (Gamma-1-coat protein) (Gamma-1-COP) Q9Y678 FUNCTION: The coatomer is a cytosolic protein complex that binds to dilysine motifs and reversibly associates with Golgi non-clathrin-coated vesicles, which further mediate biosynthetic protein transport from the ER, via the Golgi up to the trans Golgi network. Coatomer complex is required for budding from Golgi membranes, and is essential for the retrograde Golgi-to-ER transport of dilysine-tagged proteins. In mammals, the coatomer can only be recruited by membranes associated to ADP-ribosylation factors (ARFs), which are small GTP-binding proteins; the complex also influences the Golgi structural integrity, as well as the processing, activity, and endocytic recycling of LDL receptors. Required for limiting lipid storage in lipid droplets. Involved in lipid homeostasis by regulating the presence of perilipin family members PLIN2 and PLIN3 at the lipid droplet surface and promoting the association of adipocyte triglyceride lipase (PNPLA2) with the lipid droplet surface to mediate lipolysis (By similarity).

Answer 90

A-kinase anchor protein 11 (AKAP-11) (A-kinase anchor protein 220 kDa) (AKAP 220) (hAKAP220) (Protein kinase A-anchoring protein 11) (PRKA11) Q9UKA4 FUNCTION: Binds to type II regulatory subunits of protein kinase A and anchors/targets them. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, microtubule organizing center, centrosome. Note=Cytoplasmic in premeiotic pachytene spermatocytes and in the centrosome of developing postmeiotic germ cells, while a midpiece/centrosome localization was found in elongating spermatocytes and mature sperm.

Answer 91

CMT1A duplicated region transcript 15 protein Q96T59

Answer 92

ATP synthase subunit delta, mitochondrial (ATP synthase F1 subunit delta) (F-ATPase delta subunit) P30049 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain . F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP turnover in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(1) domain and of the central stalk which is part of the complex rotary element. Rotation of the central stalk against the surrounding alpha(3)beta(3) subunits leads to hydrolysis of ATP in three separate catalytic sites on the beta subunits . SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion. Mitochondrion inner membrane.

Answer 93

Centromere protein N (CENP-N) (Interphase centromere complex protein 32) Q96H22 FUNCTION: Component of the CENPA-NAC (nucleosome-associated) complex, a complex that plays a central role in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. The CENPA-NAC complex recruits the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex and may be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres. CENPN is the first protein to bind specifically to CENPA nucleosomes and the direct binding of CENPA nucleosomes by CENPN is required for centromere assembly. Required for chromosome congression and efficiently align the chromosomes on a metaphase plate. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Chromosome, centromere, kinetochore. Note=Localizes exclusively in the kinetochore domain of centromeres. Kinetochore-bound levels decrease when cells enter mitosis and increase again when cells exit mitosis.

Answer 94

Carboxypeptidase Z (CPZ) (EC 3.17.-) Q66K79 FUNCTION: Cleaves substrates with C-terminal arginine residues. Probably modulates the Wnt signaling pathway, by cleaving some undefined protein. May play a role in cleavage during prohormone processing.

Answer 95

Carbonyl reductase [NADPH] 3 (EC 1.1.184) (NADPH-dependent carbonyl reductase 3) (Short chain dehydrogenase/reductase family 21C member 2) O75828 FUNCTION: Has low NADPH-dependent oxidoreductase activity towards 4-benzoylpyridine and menadione (in vitro).

Answer 96

Putative butyrophilin subfamily 2 member A3 Q96KV6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 97

Cell cycle and apoptosis regulator protein 2 (Cell division cycle and apoptosis regulator protein 2) (DBIRD complex subunit KIAA1967) (Deleted in breast cancer gene 1 protein) (DBC-1) (DBC.1) (NET35) (p30 DBC) Q8N163 FUNCTION: Core component of the DBIRD complex, a multiprotein complex that acts at the interface between core mRNP particles and RNA polymerase II (RNAPII) and integrates transcript elongation with the regulation of alternative splicing: the DBIRD complex affects local transcript elongation rates and alternative splicing of a large set of exons embedded in (A + T)-rich DNA regions. Inhibits SIRT1 deacetylase activity leading to increasing levels of p53/TP53 acetylation and p53-mediated apoptosis. Inhibits SUV39H1 methyltransferase activity. As part of a histone H3-specific methyltransferase complex may mediate ligand-dependent transcriptional activation by nuclear hormone receptors. Plays a critical role in maintaining genomic stability and cellular integrity following UV-induced genotoxic stress. Regulates the circadian expression of the core clock components NR1D1 and ARNTL/BMAL1. Enhances the transcriptional repressor activity of NR1D1 through stabilization of NR1D1 protein levels by preventing its ubiquitination and subsequent degradation (, , , , , , ). Represses the ligand-dependent transcriptional activation function of ESR2 . Acts as a regulator of PCK1 expression and gluconeogenesis by a mechanism that involves, at least in part, both NR1D1 and SIRT1 . Negatively regulates the deacetylase activity of HDAC3 and can alter its subcellular localization . Positively regulates the beta-catenin pathway (canonical Wnt signaling pathway) and is required for MCC-mediated repression of the beta-catenin pathway . Represses ligand-dependent transcriptional activation function of NR1H2 and NR1H3 and inhibits the interaction of SIRT1 with NR1H3 . Plays an important role in tumor suppression through p53/TP53 regulation; stabilizes p53/TP53 by affecting its interaction with ubiquitin ligase MDM2 . Represses the transcriptional activator activity of BRCA1 . Inhibits SIRT1 in a CHEK2 and PSEM3-dependent manner and inhibits the activity of CHEK2 in vitro .

Answer 98

Cholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme, mitochondrial (EC 1.14.15.6) (CYPXIA1) (Cholesterol desmolase) (Cytochrome P450 11A1) (Cytochrome P450(scc)) P05108 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase that catalyzes the side-chain hydroxylation and cleavage of cholesterol to pregnenolone, the precursor of most steroid hormones . Catalyzes three sequential oxidation reactions of cholesterol, namely the hydroxylation at C22 followed with the hydroxylation at C20 to yield 20R,22R-hydroxycholesterol that is further cleaved between C20 and C22 to yield the C21-steroid pregnenolone and 4-methylpentanal . Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate and reducing the second into a water molecule. Two electrons are provided by NADPH via a two-protein mitochondrial transfer system comprising flavoprotein FDXR (adrenodoxin/ferredoxin reductase) and nonheme iron-sulfur protein FDX1 or FDX2 (adrenodoxin/ferredoxin) .

Answer 99

Active regulator of SIRT1 (40S ribosomal protein S19-binding protein 1) (RPS19-binding protein 1) (S19BP) Q86WX3 FUNCTION: Direct regulator of SIRT1. Enhances SIRT1-mediated deacetylation of p53/TP53, thereby participating in inhibition of p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activity.

Answer 100

cAMP-regulated phosphoprotein 19 (ARPP-19) P56211 FUNCTION: Protein phosphatase inhibitor that specifically inhibits protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) during mitosis. When phosphorylated at Ser-62 during mitosis, specifically interacts with PPP2R2D (PR55-delta) and inhibits its activity, leading to inactivation of PP2A, an essential condition to keep cyclin-B1-CDK1 activity high during M phase. May indirectly enhance GAP-43 expression.

Answer 101

Putative uncharacterized protein C16orf47 Q6ZP98

Answer 102

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC01006 (Long intergenic non-protein coding RNA 1006) Q8NI28 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 103

Cell growth regulator with RING finger domain protein 1 (Cell growth regulatory gene 19 protein) (RING finger protein 197) Q99675 FUNCTION: Able to inhibit growth in several cell lines.

Answer 104

Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 40 Q4G0X9 FUNCTION: Required for assembly of dynein regulatory complex (DRC) and inner dynein arm (IDA) complexes, which are responsible for ciliary beat regulation, thereby playing a central role in motility in cilia and flagella . Probably acts together with CCDC39 to form a molecular ruler that determines the 96 nanometer (nm) repeat length and arrangements of components in cilia and flagella (By similarity). Not required for outer dynein arm complexes assembly. Required for axonemal recruitment of CCDC39 .

Answer 105

Protein C8orf37 Q96NL8 FUNCTION: May be involved in photoreceptor outer segment disk morphogenesis (By similarity).

Answer 106

Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 43 Q96MW1

Answer 107

Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 42 Q96M95 FUNCTION: Required for sperm development.

Answer 108

Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 66 A2RUB6 FUNCTION: Microtubule-binding protein required for ciliogenesis . May function in ciliogenesis by mediating the transport of proteins like BBS4 to the cilium, but also through the organization of the centriolar satellites . Plays a role in retina morphogenesis and/or homeostasis (By similarity).

Answer 109

Actin-related protein 2/3 complex subunit 2 (Arp2/3 complex 34 kDa subunit) (p34-ARC) O15144 FUNCTION: Actin-binding component of the Arp2/3 complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates actin polymerization upon stimulation by nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) . The Arp2/3 complex mediates the formation of branched actin networks in the cytoplasm, providing the force for cell motility . Seems to contact the mother actin filament . In addition to its role in the cytoplasmic cytoskeleton, the Arp2/3 complex also promotes actin polymerization in the nucleus, thereby regulating gene transcription and repair of damaged DNA . The Arp2/3 complex promotes homologous recombination (HR) repair in response to DNA damage by promoting nuclear actin polymerization, leading to drive motility of double-strand breaks (DSBs) .

Answer 110

Collagen and calcium-binding EGF domain-containing protein 1 (Full of fluid protein homolog) Q6UXH8 FUNCTION: Required for lymphangioblast budding and angiogenic sprouting from venous endothelium during embryogenesis.

Answer 111

Alsin (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 2 chromosomal region candidate gene 6 protein) (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 2 protein) Q96Q42 FUNCTION: May act as a GTPase regulator. Controls survival and growth of spinal motoneurons (By similarity).

Answer 112

Cathepsin E (EC 3.23.34) [Cleaved into: Cathepsin E form I; Cathepsin E form II] P14091 FUNCTION: May have a role in immune function. Probably involved in the processing of antigenic peptides during MHC class II-mediated antigen presentation. May play a role in activation-induced lymphocyte depletion in the thymus, and in neuronal degeneration and glial cell activation in the brain. Note=The proenzyme is localized to the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus, while the mature enzyme is localized to the endosome.

Answer 113

Uncharacterized protein C8orf48 Q96LL4

Answer 114

UPF0598 protein C8orf82 Q6P1X6

Answer 115

Scavenger receptor cysteine-rich type 1 protein M160 (CD163 antigen-like 1) (CD antigen CD163b) Q9NR16 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Cell membrane .

Answer 116

Gamma-adducin (Adducin-like protein 70) Q9UEY8 FUNCTION: Membrane-cytoskeleton-associated protein that promotes the assembly of the spectrin-actin network. Plays a role in actin filament capping . Binds to calmodulin. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton. Cell membrane; Peripheral membrane protein; Cytoplasmic side.

Answer 117

C2 calcium-dependent domain-containing protein 4C (Nuclear-localized factor 3) (Protein FAM148C) Q8TF44

Answer 118

AT-rich interactive domain-containing protein 3C (ARID domain-containing protein 3C) A6NKF2 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 119

Voltage-dependent calcium channel gamma-1 subunit (Dihydropyridine-sensitive L-type, skeletal muscle calcium channel subunit gamma) Q06432 FUNCTION: Regulatory subunit of the voltage-gated calcium channel that gives rise to L-type calcium currents in skeletal muscle. Regulates channel inactivation kinetics.

Answer 120

Complement C1q and tumor necrosis factor-related protein 9B (C1q/TNF-related protein 9B) (CTRP9B) (Complement C1q and tumor necrosis factor-related protein 9-like) B2RNN3 FUNCTION: Probable adipokine. Activates AMPK, AKT, and p44/42 MAPK signaling pathways. Note=Heteromeric complex formation with CTRP9A or ADIPOQ is required for secretion, otherwise, it is retained in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer 121

A disintegrin and metalloproteinase with thrombospondin motifs 1 (ADAM-TS 1) (ADAM-TS1) (ADAMTS-1) (EC 3.24.-) (METH-1) Q9UHI8 FUNCTION: Cleaves aggrecan, a cartilage proteoglycan, at the '1938-Glu-|-Leu-1939' site (within the chondroitin sulfate attachment domain), and may be involved in its turnover (By similarity). Has angiogenic inhibitor activity. Active metalloprotease, which may be associated with various inflammatory processes as well as development of cancer cachexia. May play a critical role in follicular rupture.

Answer 122

C5a anaphylatoxin chemotactic receptor 2 (Complement component 5a receptor 2) (G-protein coupled receptor 77) Q9P296 FUNCTION: Receptor for the chemotactic and inflammatory C3a, C4a and C5a anaphylatoxin peptides and also for their dearginated forms ASP/C3adesArg, C4adesArg and C5adesArg respectively. Couples weakly to G(i)-mediated signaling pathways.

Answer 123

Asparagine synthetase [glutamine-hydrolyzing] (EC 6.5.4) (Cell cycle control protein TS11) (Glutamine-dependent asparagine synthetase) P08243

Answer 124

Uncharacterized protein C4orf36 Q96KX1

Answer 125

CDK2-associated and cullin domain-containing protein 1 (Cdk-associated cullin1) Q86Y37 FUNCTION: Cell cycle associated protein capable of promoting cell proliferation through the activation of CDK2 at the G1/S phase transition.

Answer 126

Alpha-galactosidase A (EC 3.1.22) (Alpha-D-galactosidase A) (Alpha-D-galactoside galactohydrolase) (Melibiase) (Agalsidase) P06280 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Lysosome.

Answer 127

Coilin (p80-coilin) P38432 FUNCTION: Component of nuclear coiled bodies, also known as Cajal bodies or CBs, which are involved in the modification and assembly of nucleoplasmic snRNPs.

Answer 128

Acylglycerol kinase, mitochondrial (hAGK) (EC 2.1.107) (EC 2.1.138) (EC 2.1.94) (Multiple substrate lipid kinase) (HsMuLK) (MuLK) (Multi-substrate lipid kinase) Q53H12 FUNCTION: Lipid kinase that can phosphorylate both monoacylglycerol and diacylglycerol to form lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) and phosphatidic acid (PA), respectively . Does not phosphorylate sphingosine . Phosphorylates ceramide (By similarity). Phosphorylates 1,2-dioleoylglycerol more rapidly than 2,3-dioleoylglycerol (By similarity). Independently of its lipid kinase activity, acts as a component of the TIM22 complex (, ). The TIM22 complex mediates the import and insertion of multi-pass transmembrane proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane by forming a twin-pore translocase that uses the membrane potential as the external driving force (, ). In the TIM22 complex, required for the import of a subset of metabolite carriers into mitochondria, such as ANT1/SLC25A4 and SLC25A24, while it is not required for the import of TIMM23 . Overexpression increases the formation and secretion of LPA, resulting in transactivation of EGFR and activation of the downstream MAPK signaling pathway, leading to increased cell growth .

Answer 129

Cell adhesion molecule 3 (Brain immunoglobulin receptor) (Immunoglobulin superfamily member 4B) (IgSF4B) (Nectin-like protein 1) (NECL-1) (Synaptic cell adhesion molecule 3) (SynCAM3) (TSLC1-like protein 1) (TSLL1) Q8N126 FUNCTION: Involved in the cell-cell adhesion. Has both calcium-independent homophilic cell-cell adhesion activity and calcium-independent heterophilic cell-cell adhesion activity with IGSF4, NECTIN1 and NECTIN3. Interaction with EPB41L1 may regulate structure or function of cell-cell junctions (By similarity).

Answer 130

Adhesion G-protein coupled receptor G7 (G-protein coupled receptor 128) Q96K78 FUNCTION: Orphan receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 131

CD81 antigen (26 kDa cell surface protein TAPA-1) (Target of the antiproliferative antibody 1) (Tetraspanin-28) (Tspan-28) (CD antigen CD81) P60033 FUNCTION: Structural component of specialized membrane microdomains known as tetraspanin-enriched microdomains (TERMs), which act as platforms for receptor clustering and signaling. Essential for trafficking and compartmentalization of CD19 receptor on the surface of activated B cells (, , ). Upon initial encounter with microbial pathogens, enables the assembly of CD19-CR2/CD21 and B cell receptor (BCR) complexes at signaling TERMs, lowering the threshold dose of antigen required to trigger B cell clonal expansion and antibody production (, ). In T cells, facilitates the localization of CD247/CD3 zeta at antigen-induced synapses with B cells, providing for costimulation and polarization toward T helper type 2 phenotype (, , ). Present in MHC class II compartments, may also play a role in antigen presentation (, ). Can act both as positive and negative regulator of homotypic or heterotypic cell-cell fusion processes. Positively regulates sperm-egg fusion and may be involved in acrosome reaction (By similarity). In myoblasts, associates with CD9 and PTGFRN and inhibits myotube fusion during muscle regeneration (By similarity). In macrophages, associates with CD9 and beta-1 and beta-2 integrins, and prevents macrophage fusion into multinucleated giant cells specialized in ingesting complement-opsonized large particles . Also prevents the fusion of mononuclear cell progenitors into osteoclasts in charge of bone resorption (By similarity). May regulate the compartmentalization of enzymatic activities. In T cells, defines the subcellular localization of dNTPase SAMHD1 and permits its degradation by the proteasome, thereby controlling intracellular dNTP levels . Also involved in cell adhesion and motility. Positively regulates integrin-mediated adhesion of macrophages, particularly relevant for the inflammatory response in the lung (By similarity).

Answer 132

Beta-1,3-galactosyltransferase 4 (Beta-1,3-GalTase 4) (Beta3Gal-T4) (Beta3GalT4) (GalT4) (b3Gal-T4) (EC 2.1.62) (Gal-T2) (Ganglioside galactosyltransferase) (UDP-galactose:beta-N-acetyl-galactosamine-beta-1,3-galactosyltransferase) O96024 FUNCTION: Involved in GM1/GD1B/GA1 ganglioside biosynthesis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein.

Answer 133

CD9 antigen (5H9 antigen) (Cell growth-inhibiting gene 2 protein) (Leukocyte antigen MIC3) (Motility-related protein) (MRP-1) (Tetraspanin-29) (Tspan-29) (p24) (CD antigen CD9) P21926 FUNCTION: Integral membrane protein associated with integrins, which regulates different processes, such as sperm-egg fusion, platelet activation and aggregation, and cell adhesion (, , ). Present at the cell surface of oocytes and plays a key role in sperm-egg fusion, possibly by organizing multiprotein complexes and the morphology of the membrane required for the fusion (By similarity). In myoblasts, associates with CD81 and PTGFRN and inhibits myotube fusion during muscle regeneration (By similarity). In macrophages, associates with CD81 and beta-1 and beta-2 integrins, and prevents macrophage fusion into multinucleated giant cells specialized in ingesting complement-opsonized large particles . Also prevents the fusion between mononuclear cell progenitors into osteoclasts in charge of bone resorption (By similarity). Acts as a receptor for PSG17 (By similarity). Involved in platelet activation and aggregation . Regulates paranodal junction formation (By similarity). Involved in cell adhesion, cell motility and tumor metastasis (, ).

Answer 134

Claudin-8 P56748 FUNCTION: Tight-junction protein required for paracellular chloride transport in the kidney. Mediates recruitment of CLDN4 to tight junction in the kidney. Claudins play a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity.

Answer 135

Cyclin-dependent kinase 15 (EC 2.11.22) (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 2 chromosomal region candidate gene 7 protein) (Cell division protein kinase 15) (Serine/threonine-protein kinase ALS2CR7) (Serine/threonine-protein kinase PFTAIRE-2) Q96Q40 FUNCTION: Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts like an antiapoptotic protein that counters TRAIL/TNFSF10-induced apoptosis by inducing phosphorylation of BIRC5 at 'Thr-34'.

Answer 136

Bromodomain adjacent to zinc finger domain protein 1A (ATP-dependent chromatin-remodeling protein) (ATP-utilizing chromatin assembly and remodeling factor 1) (hACF1) (CHRAC subunit ACF1) (Williams syndrome transcription factor-related chromatin-remodeling factor 180) (WCRF180) (hWALp1) Q9NRL2 FUNCTION: Component of the ACF complex, an ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling complex, that regulates spacing of nucleosomes using ATP to generate evenly spaced nucleosomes along the chromatin. The ATPase activity of the complex is regulated by the length of flanking DNA. Also involved in facilitating the DNA replication process. BAZ1A is the accessory, non-catalytic subunit of the complex which can enhance and direct the process provided by the ATPase subunit, SMARCA5, probably through targeting pericentromeric heterochromatin in late S phase. Moves end-positioned nucleosomes to a predominantly central position. May have a role in nuclear receptor-mediated transcription repression.; FUNCTION: Component of the histone-fold protein complex CHRAC complex which facilitates nucleosome sliding by the ACF complex and enhances ACF-mediated chromatin assembly. The C-terminal regions of both CHRAC1 and POLE1 are required for these functions. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Note=May target the CHRAC complex to heterochromatin.

Answer 137

ADP-ribosylation factor 4 P18085 FUNCTION: GTP-binding protein that functions as an allosteric activator of the cholera toxin catalytic subunit, an ADP-ribosyltransferase. Involved in protein trafficking; may modulate vesicle budding and uncoating within the Golgi apparatus. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus. Membrane .

Answer 138

Claudin-20 P56880 FUNCTION: Plays a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell junction, tight junction. Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 139

Clustered mitochondria protein homolog O75153 FUNCTION: mRNA-binding protein involved in proper cytoplasmic distribution of mitochondria. Specifically binds mRNAs of nuclear-encoded mitochondrial proteins in the cytoplasm and regulates transport or translation of these transcripts close to mitochondria, playing a role in mitochondrial biogenesis.

Answer 140

Basic leucine zipper transcriptional factor ATF-like (B-cell-activating transcription factor) (B-ATF) (SF-HT-activated gene 2 protein) (SFA-2) Q16520 FUNCTION: AP-1 family transcription factor that controls the differentiation of lineage-specific cells in the immune system: specifically mediates the differentiation of T-helper 17 cells (Th17), follicular T-helper cells (TfH), CD8(+) dendritic cells and class-switch recombination (CSR) in B-cells. Acts via the formation of a heterodimer with JUNB that recognizes and binds DNA sequence 5'-TGA[CG]TCA-3'. The BATF-JUNB heterodimer also forms a complex with IRF4 (or IRF8) in immune cells, leading to recognition of AICE sequence (5'-TGAnTCA/GAAA-3'), an immune-specific regulatory element, followed by cooperative binding of BATF and IRF4 (or IRF8) and activation of genes. Controls differentiation of T-helper cells producing interleukin-17 (Th17 cells) by binding to Th17-associated gene promoters: regulates expression of the transcription factor RORC itself and RORC target genes such as IL17 (IL17A or IL17B). Also involved in differentiation of follicular T-helper cells (TfH) by directing expression of BCL6 and MAF. In B-cells, involved in class-switch recombination (CSR) by controlling the expression of both AICDA and of germline transcripts of the intervening heavy-chain region and constant heavy-chain region (I(H)-C(H)). Following infection, can participate in CD8(+) dendritic cell differentiation via interaction with IRF4 and IRF8 to mediate cooperative gene activation. Regulates effector CD8(+) T-cell differentiation by regulating expression of SIRT1. Following DNA damage, part of a differentiation checkpoint that limits self-renewal of hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs): up-regulated by STAT3, leading to differentiation of HSCs, thereby restricting self-renewal of HSCs (By similarity).

Answer 141

Amyloid protein-binding protein 2 (Amyloid beta precursor protein-binding protein 2) (APP-BP2) (Protein interacting with APP tail 1) Q92624 FUNCTION: May play a role in intracellular protein transport. May be involved in the translocation of APP along microtubules toward the cell surface. Note=Associated with membranes and microtubules.

Answer 142

Carbohydrate sulfotransferase 15 (EC 2.2.33) (B-cell RAG-associated gene protein) (hBRAG) (N-acetylgalactosamine 4-sulfate 6-O-sulfotransferase) (GalNAc4S-6ST) Q7LFX5 FUNCTION: Sulfotransferase that transfers sulfate from 3'-phosphoadenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (PAPS) to the C-6 hydroxyl group of the GalNAc 4-sulfate residue of chondroitin sulfate A and forms chondroitin sulfate E containing GlcA-GalNAc(4,6-SO(4)) repeating units. It also transfers sulfate to a unique non-reducing terminal sequence, GalNAc(4SO4)-GlcA(2SO4)-GalNAc(6SO4), to yield a highly sulfated structure similar to the structure found in thrombomodulin chondroitin sulfate. May also act as a B-cell receptor involved in BCR ligation-mediated early activation that mediate regulatory signals key to B-cell development and/or regulation of B-cell-specific RAG expression; however such results are unclear in vivo. Note=A small fraction may also be present at the cell surface, where it acts as a B-cell receptor.

Answer 143

Centrosome and spindle pole-associated protein 1 Q1MSJ5 FUNCTION: May play a role in cell-cycle-dependent microtubule organization. Note=Associated with mitotic spindles.

Answer 144

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00474 (Protein EST-YD1) Q9P2X8

Answer 145

Putative uncharacterized protein C9orf118 A6NHY6

Answer 146

Putative uncharacterized protein C9orf129 Q5T035

Answer 147

Protein Aster-B (GRAM domain-containing protein 1B) Q3KR37 FUNCTION: Cholesterol transporter that mediates non-vesicular transport of cholesterol from the plasma membrane (PM) to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (By similarity). Contains unique domains for binding cholesterol and the PM, thereby serving as a molecular bridge for the transfer of cholesterol from the PM to the ER (By similarity). Plays a crucial role in cholesterol homeostasis in the adrenal gland and has the unique ability to localize to the PM based on the level of membrane cholesterol (By similarity). In lipid-poor conditions localizes to the ER membrane and in response to excess cholesterol in the PM is recruited to the endoplasmic reticulum-plasma membrane contact sites (EPCS) which is mediated by the GRAM domain (By similarity). At the EPCS, the sterol-binding VASt/ASTER domain binds to the cholesterol in the PM and facilitates its transfer from the PM to ER (By similarity).

Answer 148

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00587 B1AMM8

Answer 149

Cytosolic iron-sulfur assembly component 2B (MSS19-interacting protein of 18 kDa) (Mitotic spindle-associated MMXD complex subunit MIP18) (Protein FAM96B) Q9Y3D0 FUNCTION: Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the incorporation of iron-sulfur cluster into extramitochondrial Fe/S proteins (, , ). As a CIA complex component and in collaboration with CIAO1 and MMS19, binds to and facilitates the assembly of most cytosolic-nuclear Fe/S proteins . As part of the mitotic spindle-associated MMXD complex it plays a role in chromosome segregation, probably by facilitating iron-sulfur cluster assembly into ERCC2/XPD .

Answer 150

Probable phospholipid-transporting ATPase VA (EC 7.2.1) (ATPase class V type 10A) (Aminophospholipid translocase VA) (P4-ATPase flippase complex alpha subunit ATP10A) O60312 FUNCTION: Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules (Probable). Note=Exit from the endoplasmic reticulum requires the presence of TMEM30A, but not that of TMEM30B.

Answer 151

Uncharacterized protein C9orf152 Q5JTZ5

Answer 152

Uncharacterized protein C9orf153 Q5TBE3

Answer 153

Mitochondrial chaperone BCS1 (h-BCS1) (BCS1-like protein) Q9Y276 FUNCTION: Chaperone necessary for the assembly of mitochondrial respiratory chain complex III. Plays an important role in the maintenance of mitochondrial tubular networks, respiratory chain assembly and formation of the LETM1 complex.

Answer 154

Cysteine/serine-rich nuclear protein 2 (CSRNP-2) (Protein FAM130A1) (TGF-beta-induced apoptosis protein 12) (TAIP-12) Q9H175 FUNCTION: Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-AGAGTG-3' and has transcriptional activator activity (By similarity). May play a role in apoptosis.

Answer 155

Leucine-rich repeat transmembrane protein FLRT2 (Fibronectin-like domain-containing leucine-rich transmembrane protein 2) O43155 FUNCTION: Functions in cell-cell adhesion, cell migration and axon guidance. Mediates cell-cell adhesion via its interactions with ADGRL3 and probably also other latrophilins that are expressed at the surface of adjacent cells. May play a role in the migration of cortical neurons during brain development via its interaction with UNC5D. Mediates axon growth cone collapse and plays a repulsive role in neuron guidance via its interaction with UNC5D, and possibly also other UNC-5 family members. Plays a role in fibroblast growth factor-mediated signaling cascades. Required for normal organization of the cardiac basement membrane during embryogenesis, and for normal embryonic epicardium and heart morphogenesis.

Answer 156

Cysteine/serine-rich nuclear protein 3 (CSRNP-3) (Protein FAM130A2) (TGF-beta-induced apoptosis protein 2) (TAIP-2) Q8WYN3 FUNCTION: Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-AGAGTG-3' and has transcriptional activator activity. Plays a role in apoptosis (By similarity).

Answer 157

Probable cation-transporting ATPase 13A5 (EC 7.2.-) (P5-ATPase isoform 5) Q4VNC0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 158

Biorientation of chromosomes in cell division protein 1-like 2 (Biorientation of chromosomes in cell division protein 1 pseudogene) (Protein FAM44C) Q8IYS8 FUNCTION: May play a role in proper chromosome biorientation through the detection or correction of syntelic attachments in mitotic spindles.

Answer 159

Far upstream element-binding protein 1 (FBP) (FUSE-binding protein 1) (DNA helicase V) (hDH V) Q96AE4 FUNCTION: Regulates MYC expression by binding to a single-stranded far-upstream element (FUSE) upstream of the MYC promoter. May act both as activator and repressor of transcription.

Answer 160

Cysteine and glycine-rich protein 3 (Cardiac LIM protein) (Cysteine-rich protein 3) (CRP3) (LIM domain protein, cardiac) (Muscle LIM protein) P50461 FUNCTION: Positive regulator of myogenesis. Acts as cofactor for myogenic bHLH transcription factors such as MYOD1, and probably MYOG and MYF6. Enhances the DNA-binding activity of the MYOD1:TCF3 isoform E47 complex and may promote formation of a functional MYOD1:TCF3 isoform E47:MEF2A complex involved in myogenesis (By similarity). Plays a crucial and specific role in the organization of cytosolic structures in cardiomyocytes. Could play a role in mechanical stretch sensing. May be a scaffold protein that promotes the assembly of interacting proteins at Z-line structures. It is essential for calcineurin anchorage to the Z line. Required for stress-induced calcineurin-NFAT activation (By similarity). The role in regulation of cytoskeleton dynamics by association with CFL2 is reported conflictingly: Shown to enhance CFL2-mediated F-actin depolymerization dependent on the CSRP3:CFL2 molecular ratio, and also shown to reduce the ability of CLF1 and CFL2 to enhance actin depolymerization (, ). Proposed to contribute to the maintenance of muscle cell integerity through an actin-based mechanism. Can directly bind to actin filaments, cross-link actin filaments into bundles without polarity selectivity and protect them from dilution- and cofilin-mediated depolymerization; the function seems to involve its self-association . In vitro can inhibit PKC/PRKCA activity . Proposed to be involved in cardiac stress signaling by down-regulating excessive PKC/PRKCA signaling (By similarity).

Answer 161

Circadian-associated transcriptional repressor (ChIP-derived repressor of network oscillator) (Chrono) (Computationally highlighted repressor of the network oscillator) Q8N365 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor which forms a negative regulatory component of the circadian clock and acts independently of the circadian transcriptional repressors: CRY1, CRY2 and BHLHE41. In a histone deacetylase-dependent manner represses the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-ARNTL/BMAL1 heterodimer. Abrogates the interaction of ARNTL/BMAL1 with the transcriptional coactivator CREBBP and can repress the histone acetyl-transferase activity of the CLOCK-ARNTL/BMAL1 heterodimer, reducing histone acetylation of its target genes. Rhythmically binds the E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') on circadian gene promoters and its occupancy shows circadian oscillation antiphasic to ARNTL/BMAL1. Interacts with the glucocorticoid receptor (NR3C1) and contributes to the repressive function in the glucocorticoid response (By similarity).

Answer 162

Protein CMSS1 (Cms1 ribosomal small subunit homolog) Q9BQ75

Answer 163

Leucine-rich repeat transmembrane protein FLRT3 (Fibronectin-like domain-containing leucine-rich transmembrane protein 3) Q9NZU0 FUNCTION: Functions in cell-cell adhesion, cell migration and axon guidance, exerting an attractive or repulsive role depending on its interaction partners. Plays a role in the spatial organization of brain neurons. Plays a role in vascular development in the retina (By similarity). Plays a role in cell-cell adhesion via its interaction with ADGRL3 and probably also other latrophilins that are expressed at the surface of adjacent cells . Interaction with the intracellular domain of ROBO1 mediates axon attraction towards cells expressing NTN1. Mediates axon growth cone collapse and plays a repulsive role in neuron guidance via its interaction with UNC5B, and possibly also other UNC-5 family members (By similarity). Promotes neurite outgrowth (in vitro) . Mediates cell-cell contacts that promote an increase both in neurite number and in neurite length. Plays a role in the regulation of the density of glutamaergic synapses. Plays a role in fibroblast growth factor-mediated signaling cascades. Required for normal morphogenesis during embryonic development, but not for normal embryonic patterning. Required for normal ventral closure, headfold fusion and definitive endoderm migration during embryonic development. Required for the formation of a normal basement membrane and the maintenance of a normal anterior visceral endoderm during embryonic development (By similarity).

Answer 164

Cystatin-11 Q9H112 FUNCTION: Has antibacterial activity against the Gram-negative bacteria E.coli. May play a role in sperm maturation and fertilization.

Answer 165

Glutaminase kidney isoform, mitochondrial (GLS) (EC 3.1.2) (K-glutaminase) (L-glutamine amidohydrolase) [Cleaved into: Glutaminase kidney isoform, mitochondrial 68 kDa chain; Glutaminase kidney isoform, mitochondrial 65 kDa chain] O94925 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the first reaction in the primary pathway for the renal catabolism of glutamine. Plays a role in maintaining acid-base homeostasis. Regulates the levels of the neurotransmitter glutamate, the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain (, , ).

Answer 166

Calcium and integrin-binding family member 2 (Kinase-interacting protein 2) (KIP 2) O75838 FUNCTION: Calcium-binding protein critical for proper photoreceptor cell maintenance and function. Plays a role in intracellular calcium homeostasis by decreasing ATP-induced calcium release (, , ). May be involved in the mechanotransduction process (By similarity).

Answer 167

Protein FAM104A Q969W3

Answer 168

Calcium and integrin-binding family member 3 (Kinase-interacting protein 3) (KIP 3) Q96Q77

Answer 169

Protein FAM104B Q5XKR9

Answer 170

Putative cystatin-9-like protein CST9LP1 (Cystatin-9-like pseudogene 1) Q5W188 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 171

Protein FAM106A Q4KMX7

Answer 172

Cystatin-9 (Cystatin-like molecule) Q5W186 FUNCTION: May be involved in testis development (By similarity). May play a role in hematopoietic differentiation or inflammation . Has immunomodulatory and antimicrobial functions against Francisella tularensis, a Gram-negative bacteria .

Answer 173

3-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase type 2 (EC 1.1.-) (EC 1.1.30) (Dehydrogenase/reductase SDR family member 6) (Oxidoreductase UCPA) (R-beta-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase) (Short chain dehydrogenase/reductase family 15C member 1) Q9BUT1 FUNCTION: Dehydrogenase that mediates the formation of 2,5-dihydroxybenzoic acid (2,5-DHBA), a siderophore that shares structural similarities with bacterial enterobactin and associates with LCN2, thereby playing a key role in iron assimilation and homeostasis. Plays a role in susceptibility to bacterial infection by providing an assimilable source of iron that is exploited by pathogenic bacteria (By similarity). Also acts as a 3-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase .

Answer 174

Sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit alpha-2 (Na(+)/K(+) ATPase alpha-2 subunit) (EC 7.2.13) (Sodium pump subunit alpha-2) P50993 FUNCTION: This is the catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. This action creates the electrochemical gradient of sodium and potassium, providing the energy for active transport of various nutrients. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 175

D-beta-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase, mitochondrial (EC 1.1.30) (3-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase) (BDH) (Short chain dehydrogenase/reductase family 9C member 1) Q02338 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion inner membrane .

Answer 176

Sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit alpha-3 (Na(+)/K(+) ATPase alpha-3 subunit) (EC 7.2.13) (Na(+)/K(+) ATPase alpha(III) subunit) (Sodium pump subunit alpha-3) P13637 FUNCTION: This is the catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. This action creates the electrochemical gradient of sodium and potassium ions, providing the energy for active transport of various nutrients. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane .

Answer 177

Cleavage stimulation factor subunit 1 (CF-1 50 kDa subunit) (Cleavage stimulation factor 50 kDa subunit) (CSTF 50 kDa subunit) (CstF-50) Q05048 FUNCTION: One of the multiple factors required for polyadenylation and 3'-end cleavage of mammalian pre-mRNAs . May be responsible for the interaction of CSTF with other factors to form a stable complex on the pre-mRNA .

Answer 178

Catechol O-methyltransferase domain-containing protein 1 (EC 2.1.-) Q86VU5 FUNCTION: Putative O-methyltransferase.

Answer 179

Cleavage stimulation factor subunit 2 (CF-1 64 kDa subunit) (Cleavage stimulation factor 64 kDa subunit) (CSTF 64 kDa subunit) (CstF-64) P33240 FUNCTION: One of the multiple factors required for polyadenylation and 3'-end cleavage of mammalian pre-mRNAs. This subunit is directly involved in the binding to pre-mRNAs (By similarity). Note=Localized with DDX1 in cleavage bodies.

Answer 180

Hsc70-interacting protein (Hip) (Aging-associated protein 2) (Progesterone receptor-associated p48 protein) (Protein FAM10A1) (Putative tumor suppressor ST13) (Renal carcinoma antigen NY-REN-33) (Suppression of tumorigenicity 13 protein) P50502 FUNCTION: One HIP oligomer binds the ATPase domains of at least two HSC70 molecules dependent on activation of the HSC70 ATPase by HSP40. Stabilizes the ADP state of HSC70 that has a high affinity for substrate protein. Through its own chaperone activity, it may contribute to the interaction of HSC70 with various target proteins (By similarity).

Answer 181

Putative protein FAM10A5 (Suppression of tumorigenicity 13 pseudogene 5) Q8NFI4 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 182

Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 11 (EC 2.1.41) (Polypeptide GalNAc transferase 11) (GalNAc-T11) (pp-GaNTase 11) (Protein-UDP acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 11) (UDP-GalNAc:polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 11) Q8NCW6 FUNCTION: Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase that catalyzes the initiation of protein O-linked glycosylation and is involved in left/right asymmetry by mediating O-glycosylation of NOTCH1. O-glycosylation of NOTCH1 promotes activation of NOTCH1, modulating the balance between motile and immotile (sensory) cilia at the left-right organiser (LRO). Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferases catalyze the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Displays the same enzyme activity toward MUC1, MUC4, and EA2 than GALNT1. Not involved in glycosylation of erythropoietin (EPO).

Answer 183

Cystatin-like 1 (RCET11) Q9H114 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 184

Cap-specific mRNA (nucleoside-2'-O-)-methyltransferase 2 (EC 2.1.296) (Cap methyltransferase 2) (Cap2 2'O-ribose methyltransferase 2) (HMTr2) (MTr2) (FtsJ methyltransferase domain-containing protein 1) (Protein adrift homolog) Q8IYT2 FUNCTION: S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that mediates mRNA cap2 2'-O-ribose methylation to the 5'-cap structure of mRNAs. Methylates the ribose of the second nucleotide of a m(7)GpppG-capped mRNA and small nuclear RNA (snRNA) (cap0) to produce m(7)GpppRmpNm (cap2). Recognizes a guanosine cap on RNA independently of its N(7) methylation status. Display cap2 methylation on both cap0 and cap1. Displays a preference for cap1 RNAs.

Answer 185

Sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit beta-2 (Adhesion molecule in glia) (AMOG) (Sodium/potassium-dependent ATPase subunit beta-2) P14415 FUNCTION: This is the non-catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of Na(+) and K(+) ions across the plasma membrane. The exact function of the beta-2 subunit is not known.; FUNCTION: Mediates cell adhesion of neurons and astrocytes, and promotes neurite outgrowth. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein.

Answer 186

Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) (Abrineurin) [Cleaved into: BDNF precursor form (ProBDNF)] P23560 FUNCTION: Important signaling molecule that activates signaling cascades downstream of NTRK2 . During development, promotes the survival and differentiation of selected neuronal populations of the peripheral and central nervous systems. Participates in axonal growth, pathfinding and in the modulation of dendritic growth and morphology. Major regulator of synaptic transmission and plasticity at adult synapses in many regions of the CNS. The versatility of BDNF is emphasized by its contribution to a range of adaptive neuronal responses including long-term potentiation (LTP), long-term depression (LTD), certain forms of short-term synaptic plasticity, as well as homeostatic regulation of intrinsic neuronal excitability.

Answer 187

Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 12 (EC 2.1.41) (Polypeptide GalNAc transferase 12) (GalNAc-T12) (pp-GaNTase 12) (Protein-UDP acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 12) (UDP-GalNAc:polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 12) Q8IXK2 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Has activity toward non-glycosylated peptides such as Muc5AC, Muc1a and EA2, and no detectable activity with Muc2 and Muc7. Displays enzymatic activity toward the Gal-NAc-Muc5AC glycopeptide, but no detectable activity to mono-GalNAc-glycosylated Muc1a, Muc2, Muc7 and EA2. May play an important role in the initial step of mucin-type oligosaccharide biosynthesis in digestive organs. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus membrane .

Answer 188

Uncharacterized protein C14orf28 (Dopamine receptor-interacting protein 1) Q4W4Y0

Answer 189

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00523 Q86TU6

Answer 190

Protein FAM110B Q8TC76 FUNCTION: May be involved in tumor progression. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 191

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC00596 Q86U02 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 192

Protein ATP1B4 (X,K-ATPase subunit beta-m) (X/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit beta-m) Q9UN42 FUNCTION: May act as a transcriptional coregulator during muscle development through its interaction with SNW1. Has lost its ancestral function as a Na,K-ATPase beta-subunit.

Answer 193

Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 13 (EC 2.1.41) (Polypeptide GalNAc transferase 13) (GalNAc-T13) (pp-GaNTase 13) (Protein-UDP acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 13) (UDP-GalNAc:polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 13) Q8IUC8 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Has a much stronger activity than GALNT1 to transfer GalNAc to mucin peptides, such as Muc5Ac and Muc7. Able to glycosylate SDC3. May be responsible for the synthesis of Tn antigen in neuronal cells. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus membrane .

Answer 194

Uncharacterized protein C14orf178 Q8N769

Answer 195

Transcription factor TFIIIB component B'' homolog (Transcription factor IIIB 150) (TFIIIB150) (Transcription factor-like nuclear regulator) A6H8Y1 FUNCTION: General activator of RNA polymerase III transcription. Requires for transcription from all three types of polymerase III promoters. Requires for transcription of genes with internal promoter elements and with promoter elements upstream of the initiation site.

Answer 196

Cell death activator CIDE-3 (Cell death-inducing DFFA-like effector protein C) (Fat-specific protein FSP27 homolog) Q96AQ7 FUNCTION: Binds to lipid droplets and regulates their enlargement, thereby restricting lipolysis and favoring storage. At focal contact sites between lipid droplets, promotes directional net neutral lipid transfer from the smaller to larger lipid droplets. The transfer direction may be driven by the internal pressure difference between the contacting lipid droplet pair. Its role in neutral lipid transfer and lipid droplet enlargement is activated by the interaction with PLIN1. May act as a CEBPB coactivator in the white adipose tissue to control the expression of a subset of CEBPB downstream target genes, including SOCS1, SOCS3, TGFB1, TGFBR1, ID2 and XDH. When overexpressed in preadipocytes, induces apoptosis or increases cell susceptibility to apoptosis induced by serum deprivation or TGFB treatment. As mature adipocytes, that express high CIDEC levels, are quite resistant to apoptotic stimuli, the physiological significance of its role in apoptosis is unclear. May play a role in the modulation of the response to osmotic stress by preventing NFAT5 to translocate into the nucleus and activate its target genes expression. Endoplasmic reticulum. Lipid droplet. Note=Diffuses quickly on lipid droplet surface, but becomes trapped and clustered at lipid droplet contact sites, thereby enabling its rapid enrichment at lipid droplet contact sites.

Answer 197

Protein FAM110D Q8TAY7

Answer 198

Protein FAM111A Q96PZ2 FUNCTION: Chromatin-associated protein required for PCNA loading on replication sites. Promotes S-phase entry and DNA synthesis . May directly function at replication forks, explaining why Simian virus 40 (SV40) interacts with FAM111A to overcome host range restriction .

Answer 199

Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 16 (EC 2.1.41) (Polypeptide GalNAc transferase 16) (GalNAc-T16) (Polypeptide GalNAc transferase-like protein 1) (GalNAc-T-like protein 1) (pp-GaNTase-like protein 1) (Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase-like protein 1) (Protein-UDP acetylgalactosaminyltransferase-like protein 1) (UDP-GalNAc:polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase-like protein 1) Q8N428 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor.

Answer 200

Protein BEAN1 (Brain-expressed protein associating with Nedd4 homolog) (BEAN) Q3B7T3 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 201

Protein FAM114A2 Q9NRY5

Answer 202

Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 17 (EC 2.1.41) (Polypeptide GalNAc transferase-like protein 3) (GalNAc-T-like protein 3) (pp-GaNTase-like protein 3) (Protein-UDP acetylgalactosaminyltransferase-like protein 3) (UDP-GalNAc:polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase-like protein 3) (Williams-Beuren syndrome chromosomal region 17 protein) Q6IS24 FUNCTION: May catalyze the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor.

Answer 203

Protein FAM117A (C/EBP-induced protein) Q9C073

Answer 204

Sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase 2 (SERCA2) (SR Ca(2+)-ATPase 2) (EC 7.2.10) (Calcium pump 2) (Calcium-transporting ATPase sarcoplasmic reticulum type, slow twitch skeletal muscle isoform) (Endoplasmic reticulum class 1/2 Ca(2+) ATPase) P16615 FUNCTION: This magnesium-dependent enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the translocation of calcium from the cytosol to the sarcoplasmic reticulum lumen. Isoform 2 is involved in the regulation of the contraction/relaxation cycle . Acts as a regulator of TNFSF11-mediated Ca(2+) signaling pathways via its interaction with TMEM64 which is critical for the TNFSF11-induced CREB1 activation and mitochondrial ROS generation necessary for proper osteoclast generation. Association between TMEM64 and SERCA2 in the ER leads to cytosolic Ca (2+) spiking for activation of NFATC1 and production of mitochondrial ROS, thereby triggering Ca (2+) signaling cascades that promote osteoclast differentiation and activation (By similarity).

Answer 205

Putative uncharacterized protein C20orf78 Q9BR46

Answer 206

Uncharacterized protein C20orf85 Q9H1P6

Answer 207

Aprataxin and PNK-like factor (EC 4.99.18) (Apurinic-apyrimidinic endonuclease APLF) (PNK and APTX-like FHA domain-containing protein) (XRCC1-interacting protein 1) Q8IW19 FUNCTION: Nuclease involved in single-strand and double-strand DNA break repair (, ). Recruited to sites of DNA damage through interaction with poly(ADP-ribose), a polymeric post-translational modification synthesized transiently at sites of chromosomal damage to accelerate DNA strand break repair reactions (, , ). Displays apurinic-apyrimidinic (AP) endonuclease and 3'-5' exonuclease activities in vitro. Also able to introduce nicks at hydroxyuracil and other types of pyrimidine base damage (, ). Together with PARP3, promotes the retention of the LIG4-XRCC4 complex on chromatin and accelerate DNA ligation during non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ) .

Answer 208

Amyloid-like protein 1 (APLP) (APLP-1) [Cleaved into: C30] P51693 FUNCTION: May play a role in postsynaptic function. The C-terminal gamma-secretase processed fragment, ALID1, activates transcription activation through APBB1 (Fe65) binding (By similarity). Couples to JIP signal transduction through C-terminal binding. May interact with cellular G-protein signaling pathways. Can regulate neurite outgrowth through binding to components of the extracellular matrix such as heparin and collagen I. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [C30]: Cytoplasm. Note=C-terminally processed in the Golgi complex.

Answer 209

Protein FAM118A Q9NWS6 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 210

Cellular nucleic acid-binding protein (CNBP) (Zinc finger protein 9) P62633 FUNCTION: Single-stranded DNA-binding protein, with specificity to the sterol regulatory element (SRE). Involved in sterol-mediated repression. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 211

Protein FAM118B Q9BPY3 FUNCTION: May play a role in Cajal bodies formation.

Answer 212

Condensin complex subunit 1 (Chromosome condensation-related SMC-associated protein 1) (Chromosome-associated protein D2) (hCAP-D2) (Non-SMC condensin I complex subunit D2) (XCAP-D2 homolog) Q15021 FUNCTION: Regulatory subunit of the condensin complex, a complex required for conversion of interphase chromatin into mitotic-like condense chromosomes. The condensin complex probably introduces positive supercoils into relaxed DNA in the presence of type I topoisomerases and converts nicked DNA into positive knotted forms in the presence of type II topoisomerases. May target the condensin complex to DNA via its C-terminal domain . May promote the resolution of double-strand DNA catenanes (intertwines) between sister chromatids. Condensin-mediated compaction likely increases tension in catenated sister chromatids, providing directionality for type II topoisomerase-mediated strand exchanges toward chromatid decatenation. Required for decatenation of non-centromeric ultrafine DNA bridges during anaphase. Early in neurogenesis, may play an essential role to ensure accurate mitotic chromosome condensation in neuron stem cells, ultimately affecting neuron pool and cortex size . Note=In interphase cells, the majority of the condensin complex is found in the cytoplasm, while a minority of the complex is associated with chromatin. A subpopulation of the complex however remains associated with chromosome foci in interphase cells. During mitosis, most of the condensin complex is associated with the chromatin. At the onset of prophase, the regulatory subunits of the complex are phosphorylated by CDK1, leading to condensin's association with chromosome arms and to chromosome condensation. Dissociation from chromosomes is observed in late telophase.

Answer 213

Putative uncharacterized protein C20orf187 Q9UGB4

Answer 214

Uncharacterized protein C20orf141 Q9NUB4 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 215

Putative nuclear receptor corepressor 1-like protein NCOR1P1 (Nuclear receptor corepressor 1 pseudogene 1) Q9H4R4

Answer 216

Uncharacterized protein C20orf144 (Bcl-2-like protein from testis) (Bclt) Q9BQM9

Answer 217

Fucose mutarotase (EC 5.3.29) A2VDF0 FUNCTION: Involved in the interconversion between alpha- and beta-L-fucoses. L-Fucose (6-deoxy-L-galactose) exists as alpha-L-fucose (29.5%) and beta-L-fucose (70.5%), the beta-form is metabolized through the salvage pathway. GDP-L-fucose formed either by the de novo or salvage pathways is transported into the endoplasmic reticulum, where it serves as a substrate for N- and O-glycosylations by fucosyltransferases. Fucosylated structures expressed on cell surfaces or secreted in biological fluids are believed to play a critical role in cell-cell adhesion and recognition processes.

Answer 218

Uncharacterized protein C20orf203 Q8NBC4 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 219

Condensin complex subunit 3 (Chromosome-associated protein G) (Condensin subunit CAP-G) (hCAP-G) (Melanoma antigen NY-MEL-3) (Non-SMC condensin I complex subunit G) (XCAP-G homolog) Q9BPX3 FUNCTION: Regulatory subunit of the condensin complex, a complex required for conversion of interphase chromatin into mitotic-like condense chromosomes. The condensin complex probably introduces positive supercoils into relaxed DNA in the presence of type I topoisomerases and converts nicked DNA into positive knotted forms in the presence of type II topoisomerases. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Cytoplasm. Chromosome. Note=In interphase cells, the majority of the condensin complex is found in the cytoplasm, while a minority of the complex is associated with chromatin. A subpopulation of the complex however remains associated with chromosome foci in interphase cells. During mitosis, most of the condensin complex is associated with the chromatin. At the onset of prophase, the regulatory subunits of the complex are phosphorylated by CDK1, leading to condensin's association with chromosome arms and to chromosome condensation. Dissociation from chromosomes is observed in late telophase.

Answer 220

Cancer/testis antigen family 45 member A3 (Cancer/testis antigen 45-3) (Cancer/testis antigen 45-4) (Cancer/testis antigen 45A3) (Cancer/testis antigen 45A4) (Cancer/testis antigen family 45 member A4) Q8NHU0

Answer 221

Cleft lip and palate transmembrane protein 1 O96005 FUNCTION: May play a role in T-cell development.

Answer 222

Condensin-2 complex subunit H2 (Chromosome-associated protein H2) (hCAP-H2) (Kleisin-beta) (Non-SMC condensin II complex subunit H2) Q6IBW4 FUNCTION: Regulatory subunit of the condensin-2 complex, a complex that seems to provide chromosomes with an additional level of organization and rigidity and in establishing mitotic chromosome architecture . May promote the resolution of double-strand DNA catenanes (intertwines) between sister chromatids. Condensin-mediated compaction likely increases tension in catenated sister chromatids, providing directionality for type II topoisomerase-mediated strand exchanges toward chromatid decatenation. Required for decatenation of chromatin bridges at anaphase. Early in neurogenesis, may play an essential role to ensure accurate mitotic chromosome condensation in neuron stem cells, ultimately affecting neuron pool and cortex size (By similarity). Seems to have lineage-specific role in T-cell development . Note=Distributed along the arms of chromosomes assembled in vivo and in vitro.

Answer 223

Cancer/testis antigen family 45 member A7 (Cancer/testis antigen 45A7) P0DMV0

Answer 224

Ethanolamine-phosphate phospho-lyase (EC 4.3.2) (Alanine--glyoxylate aminotransferase 2-like 1) Q8TBG4 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the pyridoxal-phosphate-dependent breakdown of phosphoethanolamine, converting it to ammonia, inorganic phosphate and acetaldehyde.

Answer 225

Cancer/testis antigen 47B (Cancer/testis antigen 47.13) (CT47.13) P0C2W7

Answer 226

Uncharacterized protein FAM120AOS (FAM120A opposite strand protein) Q5T036

Answer 227

BEN domain-containing protein 3 Q5T5X7 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor which associates with the NoRC (nucleolar remodeling complex) complex and plays a key role in repressing rDNA transcription. The sumoylated form modulates the stability of the NoRC complex component BAZ2A/TIP5 by controlling its USP21-mediated deubiquitination (, ). Binds to unmethylated major satellite DNA and is involved in the recruitment of the Polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) to major satellites (By similarity). Stimulates the ERCC6L translocase and ATPase activities .

Answer 228

BEN domain-containing protein 4 (Coiled-coil domain-containing protein 4) Q6ZU67

Answer 229

ATP synthase F(0) complex subunit B1, mitochondrial (ATP synthase peripheral stalk-membrane subunit b) (ATP synthase proton-transporting mitochondrial F(0) complex subunit B1) (ATP synthase subunit b) (ATPase subunit b) P24539 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain and the peripheric stalk, which acts as a stator to hold the catalytic alpha(3)beta(3) subcomplex and subunit a/ATP6 static relative to the rotary elements. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion. Mitochondrion inner membrane.

Answer 230

Cornifelin Q9BYD5 FUNCTION: Part of the insoluble cornified cell envelope (CE) of stratified squamous epithelia.

Answer 231

Apolipoprotein A-I (Apo-AI) (ApoA-I) (Apolipoprotein A1) [Cleaved into: Proapolipoprotein A-I (ProapoA-I); Truncated apolipoprotein A-I (Apolipoprotein A-I(1-242))] P02647 FUNCTION: Participates in the reverse transport of cholesterol from tissues to the liver for excretion by promoting cholesterol efflux from tissues and by acting as a cofactor for the lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT). As part of the SPAP complex, activates spermatozoa motility. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 232

Plasma alpha-L-fucosidase (EC 3.1.51) (Alpha-L-fucoside fucohydrolase 2) (Alpha-L-fucosidase 2) Q9BTY2 FUNCTION: Alpha-L-fucosidase is responsible for hydrolyzing the alpha-1,6-linked fucose joined to the reducing-end N-acetylglucosamine of the carbohydrate moieties of glycoproteins. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 233

Cancer/testis antigen 55 (Tumor antigen BJ-HCC-20) Q8WUE5

Answer 234

Putative ATP synthase subunit g 2, mitochondrial (ATPase subunit g 2) (ATP synthase membrane subunit g-like protein) Q7Z4Y8 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain. Minor subunit located with subunit a in the membrane (By similarity).

Answer 235

Ataxin-7-like protein 1 (Ataxin-7-like protein 4) Q9ULK2

Answer 236

Bestrophin-3 (Vitelliform macular dystrophy 2-like protein 3) Q8N1M1 FUNCTION: Forms calcium-sensitive chloride channels. Permeable to bicarbonate. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 237

Cyclic nucleotide-gated cation channel alpha-4 (Cyclic nucleotide-gated channel alpha-4) (CNG channel alpha-4) (CNG-4) (CNG4) Q8IV77 FUNCTION: Second messenger, cAMP, causes the opening of cation-selective cyclic nucleotide-gated (CNG) channels and depolarization of the neuron (olfactory sensory neurons, OSNs). CNGA4 is the modulatory subunit of this channel which is known to play a central role in the transduction of odorant signals and subsequent adaptation. By accelerating the calcium-mediated negative feedback in olfactory signaling it allows rapid adaptation to odor stimulation and extends its range of odor detection (By similarity).

Answer 238

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase CCNB1IP1 (EC 2.2.27) (Cyclin-B1-interacting protein 1) (Human enhancer of invasion 10) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase CCNB1IP1) Q9NPC3 FUNCTION: Ubiquitin E3 ligase that acts as a limiting factor for crossing-over during meiosis: required during zygonema to limit the colocalization of RNF212 with MutS-gamma-associated recombination sites and thereby establish early differentiation of crossover and non-crossover sites. Later, it is directed by MutL-gamma to stably accumulate at designated crossover sites. Probably promotes the dissociation of RNF212 and MutS-gamma to allow the progression of recombination and the implementation of the final steps of crossing over (By similarity). Modulates cyclin-B levels and participates in the regulation of cell cycle progression through the G2 phase. Overexpression causes delayed entry into mitosis.; FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Modulates cyclin B levels and participates in the regulation of cell cycle progression through the G2 phase. Overexpression causes delayed entry into mitosis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Chromosome. Note=Associates to the synaptonemal complex.

Answer 239

Apolipoprotein A-V (Apo-AV) (ApoA-V) (Apolipoprotein A5) (Regeneration-associated protein 3) Q6Q788 FUNCTION: Minor apolipoprotein mainly associated with HDL and to a lesser extent with VLDL. May also be associated with chylomicrons. Important determinant of plasma triglyceride (TG) levels by both being a potent stimulator of apo-CII lipoprotein lipase (LPL) TG hydrolysis and an inhibitor of the hepatic VLDL-TG production rate (without affecting the VLDL-apoB production rate) (By similarity). Activates poorly lecithin:cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) and does not enhance efflux of cholesterol from macrophages. Binds heparin .

Answer 240

Apolipoprotein(a) (Apo(a)) (Lp(a)) (EC 3.21.-) P08519 FUNCTION: Apo(a) is the main constituent of lipoprotein(a) (Lp(a)). It has serine proteinase activity and is able of autoproteolysis. Inhibits tissue-type plasminogen activator 1. Lp(a) may be a ligand for megalin/Gp 330.

Answer 241

Apolipoprotein C-II (Apo-CII) (ApoC-II) (Apolipoprotein C2) [Cleaved into: Proapolipoprotein C-II (ProapoC-II)] P02655 FUNCTION: Component of chylomicrons, very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), low-density lipoproteins (LDL), and high-density lipoproteins (HDL) in plasma. Plays an important role in lipoprotein metabolism as an activator of lipoprotein lipase. Both proapolipoprotein C-II and apolipoprotein C-II can activate lipoprotein lipase. In normolipidemic individuals, it is mainly distributed in the HDL, whereas in hypertriglyceridemic individuals, predominantly found in the VLDL and LDL.

Answer 242

Leukocyte cell-derived chemotaxin 1 (Chondromodulin) [Cleaved into: Chondrosurfactant protein (CH-SP); Chondromodulin-1 (Chondromodulin-I) (ChM-I)] O75829 FUNCTION: Bifunctional growth regulator that stimulates the growth of cultured chondrocytes in the presence of basic fibroblast growth factor (FGF) but inhibits the growth of cultured vascular endothelial cells. May contribute to the rapid growth of cartilage and vascular invasion prior to the replacement of cartilage by bone during endochondral bone development. Inhibits in vitro tube formation and mobilization of endothelial cells. Plays a role as antiangiogenic factor in cardiac valves to suppress neovascularization.

Answer 243

Cancer/testis antigen 2 (CT2) (Autoimmunogenic cancer/testis antigen NY-ESO-2) (Cancer/testis antigen 6.2) (CT6.2) (L antigen family member 1) (LAGE-1) O75638

Answer 244

Apolipoprotein D (Apo-D) (ApoD) P05090 FUNCTION: APOD occurs in the macromolecular complex with lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase. It is probably involved in the transport and binding of bilin. Appears to be able to transport a variety of ligands in a number of different contexts. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 245

Protein adenylyltransferase FICD (EC 2.7.n1) (AMPylator FICD) (De-AMPylase FICD) (EC 3.4.-) (FIC domain-containing protein) (Huntingtin yeast partner E) (Huntingtin-interacting protein 13) (HIP-13) (Huntingtin-interacting protein E) Q9BVA6 FUNCTION: Protein that can both mediate the addition of adenosine 5'-monophosphate (AMP) to specific residues of target proteins (AMPylation), and the removal of the same modification from target proteins (de-AMPylation), depending on the context (By similarity). The side chain of Glu-231 determines which of the two opposing activities (AMPylase or de-AMPylase) will take place (By similarity). Acts as a key regulator of the ERN1/IRE1-mediated unfolded protein response (UPR) by mediating AMPylation or de-AMPylation of HSPA5/BiP . In unstressed cells, acts as an adenylyltransferase by mediating AMPylation of HSPA5/BiP at 'Thr-518', thereby inactivating it (By similarity). In response to endoplasmic reticulum stress, acts as a phosphodiesterase by mediating removal of ATP (de-AMPylation) from HSPA5/BiP at 'Thr-518', leading to restore HSPA5/BiP activity (By similarity). Although it is able to AMPylate RhoA, Rac and Cdc42 Rho GTPases in vitro, Rho GTPases do not constitute physiological substrates (, ).

Answer 246

CCR4-NOT transcription complex subunit 6-like (EC 3.13.4) (Carbon catabolite repressor protein 4 homolog B) Q96LI5 FUNCTION: Has 3'-5' poly(A) exoribonuclease activity for synthetic poly(A) RNA substrate. Catalytic component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. May be involved in the deadenylation-dependent degradation of mRNAs through the 3'-UTR AU-rich element-mediated mechanism. Involved in deadenylation-dependent degradation of CDKN1B mRNA. Its mRNA deadenylase activity can be inhibited by TOB1. Mediates cell proliferation and cell survival and prevents cellular senescence.

Answer 247

Apolipoprotein E (Apo-E) P02649 FUNCTION: APOE is an apolipoprotein, a protein associating with lipid particles, that mainly functions in lipoprotein-mediated lipid transport between organs via the plasma and interstitial fluids (, , ). APOE is a core component of plasma lipoproteins and is involved in their production, conversion and clearance (, , , , , , ). Apoliproteins are amphipathic molecules that interact both with lipids of the lipoprotein particle core and the aqueous environment of the plasma (, , ). As such, APOE associates with chylomicrons, chylomicron remnants, very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) and intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL) but shows a preferential binding to high-density lipoproteins (HDL) (, ). It also binds a wide range of cellular receptors including the LDL receptor/LDLR, the LDL receptor-related proteins LRP1, LRP2 and LRP8 and the very low-density lipoprotein receptor/VLDLR that mediate the cellular uptake of the APOE-containing lipoprotein particles (, , , , , , , , , , ). Finally, APOE has also a heparin-binding activity and binds heparan-sulfate proteoglycans on the surface of cells, a property that supports the capture and the receptor-mediated uptake of APOE-containing lipoproteins by cells (, , , ). A main function of APOE is to mediate lipoprotein clearance through the uptake of chylomicrons, VLDLs, and HDLs by hepatocytes (, , , , ). APOE is also involved in the biosynthesis by the liver of VLDLs as well as their uptake by peripheral tissues ensuring the delivery of triglycerides and energy storage in muscle, heart and adipose tissues (, ). By participating to the lipoprotein-mediated distribution of lipids among tissues, APOE plays a critical role in plasma and tissues lipid homeostasis (, , ). APOE is also involved in two steps of reverse cholesterol transport, the HDLs-mediated transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver, and thereby plays an important role in cholesterol homeostasis (, , ). First, it is functionally associated with ABCA1 in the biogenesis of HDLs in tissues (, ). Second, it is enriched in circulating HDLs and mediates their uptake by hepatocytes . APOE also plays an important role in lipid transport in the central nervous system, regulating neuron survival and sprouting (, ). APOE in also involved in innate and adaptive immune responses, controlling for instance the survival of myeloid-derived suppressor cells (By similarity). APOE, may also play a role in transcription regulation through a receptor-dependent and cholesterol-independent mechanism, that activates MAP3K12 and a non-canonical MAPK signal transduction pathway that results in enhanced AP-1-mediated transcription of APP .

Answer 248

Transcriptional repressor CTCF (11-zinc finger protein) (CCCTC-binding factor) (CTCFL paralog) P49711 FUNCTION: Chromatin binding factor that binds to DNA sequence specific sites. Involved in transcriptional regulation by binding to chromatin insulators and preventing interaction between promoter and nearby enhancers and silencers. Acts as transcriptional repressor binding to promoters of vertebrate MYC gene and BAG1 gene. Also binds to the PLK and PIM1 promoters. Acts as a transcriptional activator of APP. Regulates APOA1/C3/A4/A5 gene cluster and controls MHC class II gene expression. Plays an essential role in oocyte and preimplantation embryo development by activating or repressing transcription. Seems to act as tumor suppressor. Plays a critical role in the epigenetic regulation. Participates in the allele-specific gene expression at the imprinted IGF2/H19 gene locus. On the maternal allele, binding within the H19 imprinting control region (ICR) mediates maternally inherited higher-order chromatin conformation to restrict enhancer access to IGF2. Plays a critical role in gene silencing over considerable distances in the genome. Preferentially interacts with unmethylated DNA, preventing spreading of CpG methylation and maintaining methylation-free zones. Inversely, binding to target sites is prevented by CpG methylation. Plays an important role in chromatin remodeling. Can dimerize when it is bound to different DNA sequences, mediating long-range chromatin looping. Mediates interchromosomal association between IGF2/H19 and WSB1/NF1 and may direct distant DNA segments to a common transcription factory. Causes local loss of histone acetylation and gain of histone methylation in the beta-globin locus, without affecting transcription. When bound to chromatin, it provides an anchor point for nucleosomes positioning. Seems to be essential for homologous X-chromosome pairing. May participate with Tsix in establishing a regulatable epigenetic switch for X chromosome inactivation. May play a role in preventing the propagation of stable methylation at the escape genes from X- inactivation. Involved in sister chromatid cohesion. Associates with both centromeres and chromosomal arms during metaphase and required for cohesin localization to CTCF sites. Regulates asynchronous replication of IGF2/H19. Plays a role in the recruitment of CENPE to the pericentromeric/centromeric regions of the chromosome during mitosis . Note=May translocate to the nucleolus upon cell differentiation. Associates with both centromeres and chromosomal arms during metaphase. Associates with the H19 ICR in mitotic chromosomes. May be preferentially excluded from heterochromatin during interphase.

Answer 249

Glucosidase 2 subunit beta (80K-H protein) (Glucosidase II subunit beta) (Protein kinase C substrate 60.1 kDa protein heavy chain) (PKCSH) P14314 FUNCTION: Regulatory subunit of glucosidase II that cleaves sequentially the 2 innermost alpha-1,3-linked glucose residues from the Glc(2)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) oligosaccharide precursor of immature glycoproteins . Required for efficient PKD1/Polycystin-1 biogenesis and trafficking to the plasma membrane of the primary cilia (By similarity).

Answer 250

Protein FAM149A A5PLN7

Answer 251

RNA polymerase II subunit A C-terminal domain phosphatase (EC 3.3.16) (TFIIF-associating CTD phosphatase) Q9Y5B0 FUNCTION: Processively dephosphorylates 'Ser-2' and 'Ser-5' of the heptad repeats YSPTSPS in the C-terminal domain of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit. This promotes the activity of RNA polymerase II. Plays a role in the exit from mitosis by dephosphorylating crucial mitotic substrates (USP44, CDC20 and WEE1) that are required for M-phase-promoting factor (MPF)/CDK1 inactivation. Note=Found at centrosomes in prometaphase, at spindle and spindle poles in metaphase and at spindle midzone and midbody in anaphase and telophase-G1 respectively.

Answer 252

Caytaxin (Ataxia cayman type protein) (BNIP-2-homology) (BNIP-H) Q86WG3 FUNCTION: Functions in the development of neural tissues, particularly the postnatal maturation of the cerebellar cortex. May play a role in neurotransmission through regulation of glutaminase/GLS, an enzyme responsible for the production in neurons of the glutamate neurotransmitter. Alternatively, may regulate the localization of mitochondria within axons and dendrites.

Answer 253

CCR4-NOT transcription complex subunit 6 (EC 3.13.4) (CCR4 carbon catabolite repression 4-like) (Carbon catabolite repressor protein 4 homolog) (Cytoplasmic deadenylase) Q9ULM6 FUNCTION: Poly(A) nuclease with 3'-5' RNase activity. Catalytic component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Involved in mRNA decay mediated by the major-protein-coding determinant of instability (mCRD) of the FOS gene in the cytoplasm. In the presence of ZNF335, enhances ligand-dependent transcriptional activity of nuclear hormone receptors, including RARA. The increase of ligand-dependent ESR1-mediated transcription is much smaller, if any. Mediates cell proliferation and cell survival and prevents cellular senescence.

Answer 254

Apolipoprotein L6 (Apolipoprotein L-VI) (ApoL-VI) Q9BWW8 FUNCTION: May affect the movement of lipids in the cytoplasm or allow the binding of lipids to organelles. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 255

Apolipoprotein L3 (Apolipoprotein L-III) (ApoL-III) (TNF-inducible protein CG12-1) (CG12_1) O95236 FUNCTION: May affect the movement of lipids in the cytoplasm or allow the binding of lipids to organelles. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 256

CCR4-NOT transcription complex subunit 9 (Cell differentiation protein RQCD1 homolog) (Rcd-1) Q92600 FUNCTION: Component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Involved in down-regulation of MYB- and JUN-dependent transcription. May play a role in cell differentiation (By similarity). Can bind oligonucleotides, such as poly-G, poly-C or poly-T (in vitro), but the physiological relevance of this is not certain. Does not bind poly-A. Enhances ligand-dependent transcriptional activity of nuclear hormone receptors, including RARA, expect ESR1-mediated transcription that is not only slightly increased, if at all.

Answer 257

Cardiotrophin-1 (CT-1) Q16619 FUNCTION: Induces cardiac myocyte hypertrophy in vitro. Binds to and activates the ILST/gp130 receptor. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 258

Protein FAM153B P0C7A2

Answer 259

ATPase family AAA domain-containing protein 3C Q5T2N8

Answer 260

Protein CNPPD1 (Cyclin Pas1/PHO80 domain-containing protein 1) Q9BV87 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 261

Formin-like protein 1 (CLL-associated antigen KW-13) (Leukocyte formin) O95466 FUNCTION: May play a role in the control of cell motility and survival of macrophages (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the cortical actin filament dynamics and cell shape.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 3]: Cytoplasm, cell cortex. Cell projection, bleb. Note=Colocalized with F-actin in bleb protrusions.

Answer 262

Down syndrome critical region protein 4 (Down syndrome critical region protein B) P56555

Answer 263

Cytochrome P450 1A2 (EC 1.14.14.1) (CYPIA2) (Cholesterol 25-hydroxylase) (Cytochrome P(3)450) (Cytochrome P450 4) (Cytochrome P450-P3) (Hydroperoxy icosatetraenoate dehydratase) (EC 4.1.152) P05177 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids, steroid hormones and vitamins (, , , , ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase) (, , , , ). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds (, ). Exhibits high catalytic activity for the formation of hydroxyestrogens from estrone (E1) and 17beta-estradiol (E2), namely 2-hydroxy E1 and E2 (, ). Metabolizes cholesterol toward 25-hydroxycholesterol, a physiological regulator of cellular cholesterol homeostasis . May act as a major enzyme for all-trans retinoic acid biosynthesis in the liver. Catalyzes two successive oxidative transformation of all-trans retinol to all-trans retinal and then to the active form all-trans retinoic acid . Primarily catalyzes stereoselective epoxidation of the last double bond of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA), displaying a strong preference for the (R,S) stereoisomer . Catalyzes bisallylic hydroxylation and omega-1 hydroxylation of PUFA . May also participate in eicosanoids metabolism by converting hydroperoxide species into oxo metabolites (lipoxygenase-like reaction, NADPH-independent) . Plays a role in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics. Catalyzes the N-hydroxylation of heterocyclic amines and the O-deethylation of phenacetin . Metabolizes caffeine via N3-demethylation (Probable). ; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 264

Protein ripply3 (Down syndrome critical region protein 6) P57055 FUNCTION: Acts as a transcriptional corepressor. Negative regulator of the transcriptional activity of TBX1. Plays a role in the development of the pharyngeal apparatus and derivatives (By similarity).

Answer 265

Putative protein FAM157B P0CG42

Answer 266

Putative protein FAM157C P0CG43

Answer 267

Formin-like protein 2 (Formin homology 2 domain-containing protein 2) Q96PY5 FUNCTION: Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the cortical actin filament dynamics.

Answer 268

Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-2 (cAMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-2) (EC 2.1.48) (Activating transcription factor 2) (Cyclic AMP-responsive element-binding protein 2) (CREB-2) (cAMP-responsive element-binding protein 2) (HB16) (Histone acetyltransferase ATF2) (cAMP response element-binding protein CRE-BP1) P15336 FUNCTION: Transcriptional activator which regulates the transcription of various genes, including those involved in anti-apoptosis, cell growth, and DNA damage response. Dependent on its binding partner, binds to CRE (cAMP response element) consensus sequences (5'-TGACGTCA-3') or to AP-1 (activator protein 1) consensus sequences (5'-TGACTCA-3'). In the nucleus, contributes to global transcription and the DNA damage response, in addition to specific transcriptional activities that are related to cell development, proliferation and death. In the cytoplasm, interacts with and perturbs HK1- and VDAC1-containing complexes at the mitochondrial outer membrane, thereby impairing mitochondrial membrane potential, inducing mitochondrial leakage and promoting cell death. The phosphorylated form (mediated by ATM) plays a role in the DNA damage response and is involved in the ionizing radiation (IR)-induced S phase checkpoint control and in the recruitment of the MRN complex into the IR-induced foci (IRIF). Exhibits histone acetyltransferase (HAT) activity which specifically acetylates histones H2B and H4 in vitro. In concert with CUL3 and RBX1, promotes the degradation of KAT5 thereby attenuating its ability to acetylate and activate ATM. Can elicit oncogenic or tumor suppressor activities depending on the tissue or cell type. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus. Cytoplasm. Mitochondrion outer membrane. Note=Shuttles between the cytoplasm and the nucleus and heterodimerization with JUN is essential for the nuclear localization. Localization to the cytoplasm is observed under conditions of cellular stress and in disease states. Localizes at the mitochondrial outer membrane in response to genotoxic stress. Phosphorylation at Thr-52 is required for its nuclear localization and negatively regulates its mitochondrial localization. Co-localizes with the MRN complex in the IR-induced foci (IRIF).

Answer 269

Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-4 (cAMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-4) (Activating transcription factor 4) (Cyclic AMP-responsive element-binding protein 2) (CREB-2) (cAMP-responsive element-binding protein 2) (DNA-binding protein TAXREB67) (Tax-responsive enhancer element-binding protein 67) (TaxREB67) P18848 FUNCTION: Transcriptional activator. Binds the cAMP response element (CRE) (consensus: 5'-GTGACGT[AC][AG]-3'), a sequence present in many viral and cellular promoters. Cooperates with FOXO1 in osteoblasts to regulate glucose homeostasis through suppression of beta-cell production and decrease in insulin production (By similarity). It binds to a Tax-responsive enhancer element in the long terminal repeat of HTLV-I. Regulates the induction of DDIT3/CHOP and asparagine synthetase (ASNS) in response to endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress. In concert with DDIT3/CHOP, activates the transcription of TRIB3 and promotes ER stress-induced neuronal apoptosis by regulating the transcriptional induction of BBC3/PUMA. Activates transcription of SIRT4. Regulates the circadian expression of the core clock component PER2 and the serotonin transporter SLC6A4. Binds in a circadian time-dependent manner to the cAMP response elements (CRE) in the SLC6A4 and PER2 promoters and periodically activates the transcription of these genes. During ER stress response, activates the transcription of NLRP1, possibly in concert with other factors .

Answer 270

Retinal rod rhodopsin-sensitive cGMP 3',5'-cyclic phosphodiesterase subunit gamma (GMP-PDE gamma) (EC 3.4.35) P18545 FUNCTION: Participates in processes of transmission and amplification of the visual signal. cGMP-PDEs are the effector molecules in G-protein-mediated phototransduction in vertebrate rods and cones.

Answer 271

Protein FAM162A (E2-induced gene 5 protein) (Growth and transformation-dependent protein) (HGTD-P) Q96A26 FUNCTION: Proposed to be involved in regulation of apoptosis; the exact mechanism may differ between cell types/tissues. May be involved in hypoxia-induced cell death of transformed cells implicating cytochrome C release and caspase activation (such as CASP9) and inducing mitochondrial permeability transition. May be involved in hypoxia-induced cell death of neuronal cells probably by promoting release of AIFM1 from mitochondria to cytoplasm and its translocation to the nucleus; however, the involvement of caspases has been reported conflictingly.

Answer 272

Protein BEX2 (Brain-expressed X-linked protein 2) (hBex2) Q9BXY8 FUNCTION: Regulator of mitochondrial apoptosis and G1 cell cycle in breast cancer. Protects the breast cancer cells against mitochondrial apoptosis and this effect is mediated through the modulation of BCL2 protein family, which involves the positive regulation of anti-apoptotic member BCL2 and the negative regulation of pro-apoptotic members BAD, BAK1 and PUMA. Required for the normal cell cycle progression during G1 in breast cancer cells through the regulation of CCND1 and CDKN1A. Regulates the level of PP2A regulatory subunit B and PP2A phosphatase activity.

Answer 273

Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-5 (cAMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-5) (Activating transcription factor 5) (Transcription factor ATFx) Q9Y2D1 FUNCTION: Transcription factor that either stimulates or represses gene transcription through binding of different DNA regulatory elements such as cAMP response element (CRE) (consensus: 5'-GTGACGT[AC][AG]-3'), ATF5-specific response element (ARE) (consensus: 5'-C[CT]TCT[CT]CCTT[AT]-3') but also the amino acid response element (AARE), present in many viral and cellular promoters. Critically involved, often in a cell type-dependent manner, in cell survival, proliferation, and differentiation (, , , ). Its transcriptional activity is enhanced by CCND3 and slightly inhibited by CDK4 . Important regulator of the cerebral cortex formation, functions in cerebral cortical neuroprogenitor cells to maintain proliferation and to block differentiation into neurons. Must be down-regulated in order for such cells to exit the cycle and differentiate (By similarity). Participates in the pathways by which SHH promotes cerebellar granule neuron progenitor cells proliferation (By similarity). Critical for survival of mature olfactory sensory neurons (OSN), directs expression of OSN-specific genes (By similarity). May be involved in osteogenic differentiation . Promotes cell proliferation and survival by inducing the expression of EGR1 sinergistically with ELK1. Once acetylated by EP300, binds to ARE sequences on target genes promoters, such as BCL2 and EGR1 . Plays an anti-apoptotic role through the transcriptional regulation of BCL2, this function seems to be cell type-dependent (By similarity). Cooperates with NR1I3/CAR in the transcriptional activation of CYP2B6 in liver . In hepatic cells, represses CRE-dependent transcription and inhibits proliferation by blocking at G2/M phase (, ). May act as a negative regulator of IL1B transduction pathway in liver . Upon IL1B stimulus, cooperates with NLK to activate the transactivation activity of C/EBP subfamily members . Besides its function of transcription factor, acts as a cofactor of CEBPB to activate CEBPA and promote adipocyte differentiation . Regulates centrosome dynamics in a cell-cycle- and centriole-age-dependent manner. Forms 9-foci symmetrical ring scaffold around the mother centriole to control centrosome function and the interaction between centrioles and pericentriolar material .

Answer 274

Protein BEX4 (BEX1-like protein 1) (Brain-expressed X-linked protein 4) (Nerve growth factor receptor-associated protein 3) Q9NWD9 FUNCTION: May play a role in microtubule deacetylation by negatively regulating the SIRT2 deacetylase activity toward alpha-tubulin and thereby participate to the control of cell cycle progression and genomic stability.

Answer 275

Protein FAM162B Q5T6X4 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 276

Steroid 21-hydroxylase (EC 1.14.14.16) (21-OHase) (Cytochrome P-450c21) (Cytochrome P450 21) (Cytochrome P450 XXI) (Cytochrome P450-C21) (Cytochrome P450-C21B) P08686 FUNCTION: Specifically catalyzes the 21-hydroxylation of steroids. Required for the adrenal synthesis of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids .

Answer 277

Dimethylaniline monooxygenase [N-oxide-forming] 1 (EC 1.14.13.8) (Dimethylaniline oxidase 1) (Fetal hepatic flavin-containing monooxygenase 1) (FMO 1) Q01740 FUNCTION: This protein is involved in the oxidative metabolism of a variety of xenobiotics such as drugs and pesticides. Form I catalyzes the N-oxygenation of secondary and tertiary amines. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Microsome membrane .

Answer 278

Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 beta (cAMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 beta) (Activating transcription factor 6 beta) (ATF6-beta) (Protein G13) (cAMP response element-binding protein-related protein) (Creb-rp) (cAMP-responsive element-binding protein-like 1) [Cleaved into: Processed cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 beta] Q99941 FUNCTION: Transcriptional factor that acts in the unfolded protein response (UPR) pathway by activating UPR target genes induced during ER stress. Binds DNA on the 5'-CCAC[GA]-3' half of the ER stress response element (ERSE) (5'-CCAATN(9)CCAC[GA]-3') when NF-Y is bound to ERSE. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Processed cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 beta]: Nucleus. Note=Under ER stress the cleaved N-terminal cytoplasmic domain translocates into the nucleus.

Answer 279

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D(3) 24-hydroxylase, mitochondrial (24-OHase) (Vitamin D(3) 24-hydroxylase) (EC 1.14.15.16) (Cytochrome P450 24A1) (Cytochrome P450-CC24) Q07973 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase with a key role in vitamin D catabolism and calcium homeostasis. Via C24- and C23-oxidation pathways, catalyzes the inactivation of both the vitamin D precursor calcidiol (25-hydroxyvitamin D(3)) and the active hormone calcitriol (1-alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D(3)) (, , , , ). With initial hydroxylation at C-24 (via C24-oxidation pathway), performs a sequential 6-step oxidation of calcitriol leading to the formation of the biliary metabolite calcitroic acid (, ). With initial hydroxylation at C-23 (via C23-oxidation pathway), catalyzes sequential oxidation of calcidiol leading to the formation of 25(OH)D3-26,23-lactone as end product (, ). Preferentially hydroxylates at C-25 other vitamin D active metabolites, such as CYP11A1-derived secosteroids 20S-hydroxycholecalciferol and 20S,23-dihydroxycholecalciferol . Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via FDXR/adrenodoxin reductase and FDX1/adrenodoxin .

Answer 280

Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-7 (cAMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-7) (Activating transcription factor 7) (Transcription factor ATF-A) P17544 FUNCTION: Plays important functions in early cell signaling. Binds the cAMP response element (CRE) (consensus: 5'-GTGACGT[AG][AG]-3'), a sequence present in many viral and cellular promoters. Activator of the NF-ELAM1/delta-A site of the E-selectin promoter. Has no intrinsic transcriptional activity, but activates transcription on formation of JUN or FOS heterodimers. Also can bind TRE promoter sequences when heterodimerized with members of the JUN family.; FUNCTION: Isoform 4 acts as a dominant repressor of the E-selectin/NF-ELAM1/delta-A promoter.; FUNCTION: Isoform 5 acts as a negative regulator, inhibiting both ATF2 and ATF7 transcriptional activities. It may exert these effects by sequestrating in the cytoplasm the Thr-53 phosphorylating kinase, preventing activation. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 281

CAAX prenyl protease 2 (EC 3.22.-) (Farnesylated proteins-converting enzyme 2) (FACE-2) (Prenyl protein-specific endoprotease 2) (RCE1 homolog) (hRCE1) Q9Y256 FUNCTION: Proteolytically removes the C-terminal three residues of farnesylated and geranylated proteins. Seems to be able to process K-Ras, N-Ras, H-Ras, RAP1B and G-gamma-1 .

Answer 282

Centrosome-associated protein CEP250 (250 kDa centrosomal protein) (Cep250) (Centrosomal Nek2-associated protein 1) (C-Nap1) (Centrosomal protein 2) Q9BV73 FUNCTION: May be involved in ciliogenesis . Probably plays an important role in centrosome cohesion during interphase. Note=Component of the core centrosome. In interphase cells, it specifically associates with the proximal ends of both mother and daughter centrioles. Associates with the centrosome in interphase cells. In mitotic cells, it dissociates from the mitotic spindle poles. At the end of cell division, it reaccumulates at centrosomes.

Answer 283

Protein FAM166B A8MTA8

Answer 284

Dermatan-sulfate epimerase-like protein (EC 5.-.-) Q8IZU8 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 285

Contactin-associated protein-like 3B (Cell recognition molecule Caspr3b) Q96NU0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 286

Cyclin N-terminal domain-containing protein 1 Q8N815

Answer 287

Factor in the germline alpha (FIGalpha) (Class C basic helix-loop-helix protein 8) (bHLHc8) (Folliculogenesis-specific basic helix-loop-helix protein) (Transcription factor FIGa) Q6QHK4 FUNCTION: Germline specific transcription factor implicated in postnatal oocyte-specific gene expression. Plays a key regulatory role in the expression of multiple oocyte-specific genes, including those that initiate folliculogenesis and those that encode the zona pellucida (ZP1, ZP2 and ZP3) required for fertilization and early embryonic survival. Essential for oocytes to survive and form primordial follicles. The persistence of FIGLA in adult females suggests that it may regulate additional pathways that are essential for normal ovarian development. Binds to the E-box (5'-CANNTG-3') of the ZPs (ZP1, ZP2, ZP3) promoters.

Answer 288

Sterol 26-hydroxylase, mitochondrial (EC 1.14.15.15) (5-beta-cholestane-3-alpha,7-alpha,12-alpha-triol 26-hydroxylase) (Cytochrome P-450C27/25) (Cytochrome P450 27) (Sterol 27-hydroxylase) (Vitamin D(3) 25-hydroxylase) Q02318 FUNCTION: Cytochrome P450 monooxygenase that catalyzes regio- and stereospecific hydroxylation of cholesterol and its derivatives. Hydroxylates (with R stereochemistry) the terminal methyl group of cholesterol side-chain in a three step reaction to yield at first a C26 alcohol, then a C26 aldehyde and finally a C26 acid (, , , ). Regulates cholesterol homeostasis by catalyzing the conversion of excess cholesterol to bile acids via both the 'neutral' (classic) and the 'acid' (alternative) pathways (, , , , , , ). May also regulate cholesterol homeostasis via generation of active oxysterols, which act as ligands for NR1H2 and NR1H3 nuclear receptors, modulating the transcription of genes involved in lipid metabolism (, ). Plays a role in cholestanol metabolism in the cerebellum. Similarly to cholesterol, hydroxylates cholestanol and may facilitate sterol diffusion through the blood-brain barrier to the systemic circulation for further degradation . Also hydroxylates retinal 7-ketocholesterol, a noxious oxysterol with pro-inflammatory and pro-apoptotic effects, and may play a role in its elimination from the retinal pigment epithelium . May play a redundant role in vitamin D biosynthesis. Catalyzes 25-hydroxylation of vitamin D3 that is required for its conversion to a functionally active form .

Answer 289

Fidgetin Q5HY92 FUNCTION: ATP-dependent microtubule severing protein. Severs microtubules along their length and depolymerizes their ends, primarily the minus-end, that may lead to the suppression of microtubule growth from and attachment to centrosomes. Microtubule severing may promote rapid reorganization of cellular microtubule arrays and the release of microtubules from the centrosome following nucleation. Microtubule release from the mitotic spindle poles may allow depolymerization of the microtubule end proximal to the spindle pole, leading to poleward microtubule flux and poleward motion of chromosome. Note=Localizes to centrosomes throughout mitosis and to the spindle midzone during telophase.

Answer 290

Aprataxin (EC 3.11.7) (EC 3.12.2) (Forkhead-associated domain histidine triad-like protein) (FHA-HIT) Q7Z2E3 FUNCTION: DNA-binding protein involved in single-strand DNA break repair, double-strand DNA break repair and base excision repair (, , , , ). Resolves abortive DNA ligation intermediates formed either at base excision sites, or when DNA ligases attempt to repair non-ligatable breaks induced by reactive oxygen species (, ). Catalyzes the release of adenylate groups covalently linked to 5'-phosphate termini, resulting in the production of 5'-phosphate termini that can be efficiently rejoined (, , ). Also able to hydrolyze adenosine 5'-monophosphoramidate (AMP-NH(2)) and diadenosine tetraphosphate (AppppA), but with lower catalytic activity . Likewise, catalyzes the release of 3'-linked guanosine (DNAppG) and inosine (DNAppI) from DNA, but has higher specific activity with 5'-linked adenosine (AppDNA) (By similarity).

Answer 291

Cbp/p300-interacting transactivator 2 (MSG-related protein 1) (MRG-1) (P35srj) Q99967 FUNCTION: Transcriptional coactivator of the p300/CBP-mediated transcription complex. Acts as a bridge, linking TFAP2 transcription factors and the p300/CBP transcriptional coactivator complex in order to stimulate TFAP2-mediated transcriptional activation. Positively regulates TGF-beta signaling through its association with the SMAD/p300/CBP-mediated transcriptional coactivator complex. Stimulates the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors PPARA transcriptional activity. Enhances estrogen-dependent transactivation mediated by estrogen receptors. Acts also as a transcriptional corepressor; interferes with the binding of the transcription factors HIF1A or STAT2 and the p300/CBP transcriptional coactivator complex. Participates in sex determination and early gonad development by stimulating transcription activation of SRY. Plays a role in controlling left-right patterning during embryogenesis; potentiates transcriptional activation of NODAL-mediated gene transcription in the left lateral plate mesoderm (LPM). Plays an essential role in differentiation of the adrenal cortex from the adrenogonadal primordium (AGP); stimulates WT1-mediated transcription activation thereby up-regulating the nuclear hormone receptor NR5A1 promoter activity. Associates with chromatin to the PITX2 P1 promoter region. Note=Colocalizes with EP300 in dot-like structures.

Answer 292

Cytochrome P450 2A6 (EC 1.14.13.-) (1,4-cineole 2-exo-monooxygenase) (CYPIIA6) (Coumarin 7-hydroxylase) (Cytochrome P450 IIA3) (Cytochrome P450(I)) P11509 FUNCTION: Exhibits a high coumarin 7-hydroxylase activity. Can act in the hydroxylation of the anti-cancer drugs cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide. Competent in the metabolic activation of aflatoxin B1. Constitutes the major nicotine C-oxidase. Acts as a 1,4-cineole 2-exo-monooxygenase. Possesses low phenacetin O-deethylation activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Microsome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 293

Cytochrome P450 2A13 (EC 1.14.14.1) (CYPIIA13) Q16696 FUNCTION: Exhibits a coumarin 7-hydroxylase activity. Active in the metabolic activation of hexamethylphosphoramide, N,N-dimethylaniline, 2'-methoxyacetophenone, N-nitrosomethylphenylamine, and the tobacco-specific carcinogen, 4-(methylnitrosamino)-1-(3-pyridyl)-1-butanone. Possesses phenacetin O-deethylation activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane; Peripheral membrane protein. Microsome membrane; Peripheral membrane protein.

Answer 294

Desmoglein-4 (Cadherin family member 13) Q86SJ6 FUNCTION: Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Involved in the interaction of plaque proteins and intermediate filaments mediating cell-cell adhesion. Coordinates the transition from proliferation to differentiation in hair follicle keratinocytes (By similarity).

Answer 295

Protein FAM160A1 Q05DH4

Answer 296

Filaggrin P20930 FUNCTION: Aggregates keratin intermediate filaments and promotes disulfide-bond formation among the intermediate filaments during terminal differentiation of mammalian epidermis. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasmic granule .

Answer 297

Dimethylaniline monooxygenase [N-oxide-forming] 4 (EC 1.14.13.8) (Dimethylaniline oxidase 4) (Hepatic flavin-containing monooxygenase 4) (FMO 4) P31512 FUNCTION: This protein is involved in the oxidative metabolism of a variety of xenobiotics such as drugs and pesticides. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Microsome membrane .

Answer 298

Dimethylaniline monooxygenase [N-oxide-forming] 5 (EC 1.14.13.8) (Dimethylaniline oxidase 5) (Hepatic flavin-containing monooxygenase 5) (FMO 5) P49326 FUNCTION: In contrast with other forms of FMO it does not seem to be a drug-metabolizing enzyme. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Microsome membrane. Endoplasmic reticulum membrane.

Answer 299

Chitinase-3-like protein 2 (Chondrocyte protein 39) (YKL-39) Q15782 FUNCTION: Lectin that binds chitooligosaccharides and other glycans with high affinity, but not heparin. Has no chitinase activity.

Answer 300

Contactin-associated protein-like 3 (Cell recognition molecule Caspr3) Q9BZ76 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Cell membrane .

Answer 301

Cytochrome P450 4F2 (EC 1.14.14.1) (20-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid synthase) (20-HETE synthase) (Arachidonic acid omega-hydroxylase) (CYPIVF2) (Cytochrome P450-LTB-omega) (Docosahexaenoic acid omega-hydroxylase) (EC 1.14.14.79) (Leukotriene-B(4) 20-monooxygenase 1) (Leukotriene-B(4) omega-hydroxylase 1) (EC 1.14.14.94) (Phylloquinone omega-hydroxylase CYP4F2) (EC 1.14.14.78) P78329 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids, eicosanoids and vitamins (, , , , , ). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes predominantly the oxidation of the terminal carbon (omega-oxidation) of long- and very long-chain fatty acids. Displays high omega-hydroxylase activity toward polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) . Participates in the conversion of arachidonic acid to omega-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (20-HETE), a signaling molecule acting both as vasoconstrictive and natriuretic with overall effect on arterial blood pressure (, , ). Plays a role in the oxidative inactivation of eicosanoids, including both proinflammatory and anti-inflammatory mediators such as leukotriene B4 (LTB4), lipoxin A4 (LXA4), and several HETEs (, , , , , , ). Catalyzes omega-hydroxylation of 3-hydroxy fatty acids . Converts monoepoxides of linoleic acid leukotoxin and isoleukotoxin to omega-hydroxylated metabolites . Contributes to the degradation of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) by catalyzing successive omega-oxidations and chain shortening (, ). Plays an important role in vitamin metabolism by chain shortening. Catalyzes omega-hydroxylation of the phytyl chain of tocopherols (forms of vitamin E), with preference for gamma-tocopherols over alpha-tocopherols, thus promoting retention of alpha-tocopherols in tissues . Omega-hydroxylates and inactivates phylloquinone (vitamin K1), and menaquinone-4 (MK-4, a form of vitamin K2), both acting as cofactors in blood coagulation (, ).

Answer 302

Histo-blood group ABO system transferase (Fucosylglycoprotein 3-alpha-galactosyltransferase) (Fucosylglycoprotein alpha-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase) (Glycoprotein-fucosylgalactoside alpha-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase) (EC 2.1.40) (Glycoprotein-fucosylgalactoside alpha-galactosyltransferase) (EC 2.1.37) (Histo-blood group A transferase) (A transferase) (Histo-blood group B transferase) (B transferase) (NAGAT) [Cleaved into: Fucosylglycoprotein alpha-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase soluble form] P16442 FUNCTION: This protein is the basis of the ABO blood group system. The histo-blood group ABO involves three carbohydrate antigens: A, B, and H. A, B, and AB individuals express a glycosyltransferase activity that converts the H antigen to the A antigen (by addition of UDP-GalNAc) or to the B antigen (by addition of UDP-Gal), whereas O individuals lack such activity. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus, Golgi stack membrane; Single-pass type II membrane protein. Secreted. Note=Membrane-bound form in trans cisternae of Golgi. Secreted into the body fluid.

Answer 303

Cytoskeleton-associated protein 2 (CTCL tumor antigen se20-10) (Tumor- and microtubule-associated protein) Q8WWK9 FUNCTION: Possesses microtubule stabilizing properties. Involved in regulating aneuploidy, cell cycling, and cell death in a p53/TP53-dependent manner (By similarity). SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, spindle. Cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, spindle pole. Note=Contrary to the ectopically expressed protein, endogenous CKAP2 does not colocalize with microtubules in G1, S and early G2. At late G2 and prophase after separation of duplicated centrosomes, colocalizes with gamma-tubulin and centrosome-proximal microtubules. From prometaphase through anaphase B, colocalizes with mitotic spindle poles and spindle microtubules. During cytokinesis, absent from midbody microtubules.

Answer 304

Cytochrome P450 4F8 (EC 1.14.14.1) (CYPIVF8) P98187 FUNCTION: A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of endogenous polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) and their oxygenated derivatives (oxylipins). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bonds, with preference for omega-1 and omega-2 positions (, , ). Hydroxylates (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenoic acid (arachidonate) predominantly at omega-2 position to form (18R)-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (18R-HETE) . Exhibits omega-1 hydroxylase activity toward prostaglandin (PG) H1, PGH2 and PGI2 (, ). Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of PUFAs, including docosahexaenoic and docosapentaenoic acids . Shows little activity against PGD2, PGE1, PGE2, PGF2alpha, and leukotriene B4.

Answer 305

CKLF-like MARVEL transmembrane domain-containing protein 5 (Chemokine-like factor superfamily member 5) Q96DZ9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane; Multi-pass membrane protein.

Answer 306

Collagen alpha-4(IV) chain P53420 FUNCTION: Type IV collagen is the major structural component of glomerular basement membranes (GBM), forming a 'chicken-wire' meshwork together with laminins, proteoglycans and entactin/nidogen. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix, basement membrane .

Answer 307

Uncharacterized protein C12orf50 Q8NA57

Answer 308

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC01559 Q495D7

Answer 309

Aquaporin-10 (AQP-10) (Aquaglyceroporin-10) (Small intestine aquaporin) Q96PS8 FUNCTION: [Isoform 1]: Water channel that mediates water transport across cell membranes irrespective of the cytosolic pH (, , , ). The channel is permeable to glycerol, especially when the cytosolic pH is acidified (, ). Contributes to adipocyte water and glycerol permeability, and may thereby contribute to the utilization of glycerol derived from phospholipid degradation . May contribute to water transport in the intestine (Probable).

Answer 310

Collagen alpha-1(IX) chain P20849 FUNCTION: Structural component of hyaline cartilage and vitreous of the eye. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix .

Answer 311

Collagen alpha-1(X) chain Q03692 FUNCTION: Type X collagen is a product of hypertrophic chondrocytes and has been localized to presumptive mineralization zones of hyaline cartilage. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted, extracellular space, extracellular matrix .

Answer 312

Choline O-acetyltransferase (CHOACTase) (ChAT) (Choline acetylase) (EC 2.1.6) P28329 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the reversible synthesis of acetylcholine (ACh) from acetyl CoA and choline at cholinergic synapses.

Answer 313

Cytochrome c oxidase assembly factor 6 homolog Q5JTJ3 FUNCTION: Involved in the maturation of the mitochondrial respiratory chain complex IV subunit MT-CO2/COX2. Thereby, may regulate early steps of complex IV assembly. Mitochondrial respiratory chain complex IV or cytochrome c oxidase is the component of the respiratory chain that catalyzes the transfer of electrons from intermembrane space cytochrome c to molecular oxygen in the matrix and as a consequence contributes to the proton gradient involved in mitochondrial ATP synthesis. May also be required for efficient formation of respiratory supercomplexes comprised of complexes III and IV.

Answer 314

CLIP-associating protein 2 (Cytoplasmic linker-associated protein 2) (Protein Orbit homolog 2) (hOrbit2) O75122 FUNCTION: Microtubule plus-end tracking protein that promotes the stabilization of dynamic microtubules . Involved in the nucleation of noncentrosomal microtubules originating from the trans-Golgi network (TGN). Required for the polarization of the cytoplasmic microtubule arrays in migrating cells towards the leading edge of the cell. May act at the cell cortex to enhance the frequency of rescue of depolymerizing microtubules by attaching their plus-ends to cortical platforms composed of ERC1 and PHLDB2 . This cortical microtubule stabilizing activity is regulated at least in part by phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase signaling. Also performs a similar stabilizing function at the kinetochore which is essential for the bipolar alignment of chromosomes on the mitotic spindle (, ). Acts as a mediator of ERBB2-dependent stabilization of microtubules at the cell cortex.

Answer 315

Complexin-3 (Complexin III) (CPX III) Q8WVH0 FUNCTION: Complexin that regulates SNARE protein complex-mediated synaptic vesicle fusion (By similarity). Required for the maintenance of synaptic ultrastructure in the adult retina (By similarity). Positively regulates synaptic transmission through synaptic vesicle availability and exocytosis of neurotransmitters at photoreceptor ribbon synapses in the retina (By similarity). Suppresses tonic photoreceptor activity and baseline 'noise' by suppression of Ca(2+) vesicle tonic release and the facilitation of evoked synchronous and asynchronous Ca(2+) vesicle release (By similarity).

Answer 316

RNA helicase aquarius (EC 3.4.13) (Intron-binding protein of 160 kDa) (IBP160) O60306 FUNCTION: Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome (, , , ). Intron-binding spliceosomal protein required to link pre-mRNA splicing and snoRNP (small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein) biogenesis . Plays a key role in position-dependent assembly of intron-encoded box C/D small snoRNP, splicing being required for snoRNP assembly . May act by helping the folding of the snoRNA sequence. Binds to intron of pre-mRNAs in a sequence-independent manner, contacting the region between snoRNA and the branchpoint of introns (40 nucleotides upstream of the branchpoint) during the late stages of splicing . Has ATP-dependent RNA helicase activity and can unwind double-stranded RNA molecules with a 3' overhang (in vitro) .

Answer 317

C-type lectin domain family 1 member B (C-type lectin-like receptor 2) (CLEC-2) Q9P126 FUNCTION: C-type lectin-like receptor that functions as a platelet receptor for the lymphatic endothelial marker, PDPN . After ligand activation, signals via sequential activation of SRC and SYK tyrosine kinases leading to activation of PLCG2 .

Answer 318

C-type lectin domain family 3 member A (C-type lectin superfamily member 1) (Cartilage-derived C-type lectin) O75596 FUNCTION: Promotes cell adhesion to laminin-332 and fibronectin. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 319

Copine-1 (Chromobindin 17) (Copine I) Q99829 FUNCTION: Calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that plays a role in calcium-mediated intracellular processes . Involved in the TNF-alpha receptor signaling pathway in a calcium-dependent manner . Exhibits calcium-dependent phospholipid binding properties (, ). Plays a role in neuronal progenitor cell differentiation; induces neurite outgrowth via a AKT-dependent signaling cascade and calcium-independent manner (, ). May recruit target proteins to the cell membrane in a calcium-dependent manner . May function in membrane trafficking . Involved in TNF-alpha-induced NF-kappa-B transcriptional repression by inducing endoprotease processing of the transcription factor NF-kappa-B p65/RELA subunit . Also induces endoprotease processing of NF-kappa-B p50/NFKB1, p52/NFKB2, RELB and REL .

Answer 320

Copine-6 (Copine VI) (Neuronal-copine) (N-copine) O95741 FUNCTION: Calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that plays a role in calcium-mediated intracellular processes. Binds phospholipid membranes in a calcium-dependent manner (By similarity). Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes .

Answer 321

Chondroadherin-like protein Q6NUI6 FUNCTION: Potential negative modulator of chondrocyte differentiation. Inhibits collagen fibrillogenesis in vitro. May influence chondrocyte's differentiation by acting on its cellular collagenous microenvironment.

Answer 322

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase AMFR (EC 2.2.27) (Autocrine motility factor receptor) (AMF receptor) (RING finger protein 45) (RING-type E3 ubiquitin transferase AMFR) (gp78) Q9UKV5 FUNCTION: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates the polyubiquitination of a number of proteins such as CD3D, CYP3A4, CFTR and APOB for proteasomal degradation. Component of a VCP/p97-AMFR/gp78 complex that participates in the final step of endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD). The VCP/p97-AMFR/gp78 complex is involved in the sterol-accelerated ERAD degradation of HMGCR through binding to the HMGCR-INSIG complex at the ER membrane and initiating ubiquitination of HMGCR. The ubiquitinated HMGCR is then released from the ER by the complex into the cytosol for subsequent destruction. Also regulates ERAD through the ubiquitination of UBL4A a component of the BAG6/BAT3 complex. Also acts as a scaffold protein to assemble a complex that couples ubiquitination, retranslocation and deglycosylation. Mediates tumor invasion and metastasis as a receptor for the GPI/autocrine motility factor. In association with LMBR1L and UBAC2, negatively regulates the canonical Wnt signaling pathway in the lymphocytes by promoting the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of CTNNB1 and Wnt receptors FZD6 and LRP6 .

Answer 323

Putative coiled-coil-helix-coiled-coil-helix domain-containing protein CHCHD2P9, mitochondrial (Coiled-coil-helix-coiled-coil-helix domain-containing 2 pseudogene 9) Q5T1J5 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 324

Protein FAM214B Q7L5A3

Answer 325

Claudin-10 (Oligodendrocyte-specific protein-like) (OSP-like) P78369 FUNCTION: Plays a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity. Involved in the regulation of paracellular epithelia permeability to ions in multiple organs. It acts as a paracellular ion channel probably forming permselective pores; isoform 1 appears to create pores preferentially permeable to cations and isoform 2 for anions. In sweat glands and in the thick ascending limb (TAL) of Henle's loop in kidney, it controls paracellular sodium permeability which is essential for proper sweat production and renal function (, , ).

Answer 326

Probable serine carboxypeptidase CPVL (EC 3.16.-) (Carboxypeptidase, vitellogenic-like) (Vitellogenic carboxypeptidase-like protein) (VCP-like protein) (hVLP) Q9H3G5 FUNCTION: May be involved in the digestion of phagocytosed particles in the lysosome, participation in an inflammatory protease cascade, and trimming of peptides for antigen presentation.

Answer 327

Chromodomain-helicase-DNA-binding protein 7 (CHD-7) (EC 3.4.12) (ATP-dependent helicase CHD7) Q9P2D1 FUNCTION: Probable transcription regulator. Maybe involved in the in 45S precursor rRNA production.

Answer 328

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by MIR22HG Q0VDD5

Answer 329

Putative tyrosine-protein phosphatase auxilin (EC 3.3.48) (DnaJ homolog subfamily C member 6) O75061 FUNCTION: Recruits HSPA8/HSC70 to clathrin-coated vesicles and promotes uncoating of clathrin-coated vesicles. Plays a role in clathrin-mediated endocytosis in neurons (By similarity).

Answer 330

Collagen alpha-1(XV) chain [Cleaved into: Restin (Endostatin-XV) (Related to endostatin) (Restin-I); Restin-2 (Restin-II); Restin-3 (Restin-III); Restin-4 (Restin-IV)] P39059 FUNCTION: Structural protein that stabilizes microvessels and muscle cells, both in heart and in skeletal muscle.

Answer 331

Voltage-dependent P/Q-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1A (Brain calcium channel I) (BI) (Calcium channel, L type, alpha-1 polypeptide isoform 4) (Voltage-gated calcium channel subunit alpha Cav2.1) O00555 FUNCTION: Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells and are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. The isoform alpha-1A gives rise to P and/or Q-type calcium currents. P/Q-type calcium channels belong to the 'high-voltage activated' (HVA) group and are specifically blocked by the spider omega-agatoxin-IVA (AC P54282) (By similarity). They are however insensitive to dihydropyridines (DHP).

Answer 332

Uncharacterized protein C4orf51 C9J302

Answer 333

Endosialin (Tumor endothelial marker 1) (CD antigen CD248) Q9HCU0 FUNCTION: May play a role in tumor angiogenesis.

Answer 334

Caskin-2 (CASK-interacting protein 2) Q8WXE0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm .

Answer 335

B melanoma antigen 2 (Cancer/testis antigen 2.2) (CT2.2) Q86Y30 FUNCTION: Unknown. Candidate gene encoding tumor antigens. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 336

Breast cancer anti-estrogen resistance protein 3 (Novel SH2-containing protein 2) (SH2 domain-containing protein 3B) O75815 FUNCTION: May act as an adapter protein and couple activated growth factor receptors to a signaling pathway that regulates the proliferation in breast cancer cells. When overexpressed, it confers anti-estrogen resistance in breast cancer cell lines. May also be regulated by cellular adhesion to extracellular matrix proteins.

Answer 337

Calcium-binding mitochondrial carrier protein Aralar2 (Citrin) (Mitochondrial aspartate glutamate carrier 2) (Solute carrier family 25 member 13) Q9UJS0 FUNCTION: Mitochondrial and calcium-binding carrier that catalyzes the calcium-dependent exchange of cytoplasmic glutamate with mitochondrial aspartate across the mitochondrial inner membrane (, ). May have a function in the urea cycle .

Answer 338

Carbohydrate sulfotransferase 10 (EC 2.2.-) (HNK-1 sulfotransferase) (HNK-1ST) (HNK1ST) (HuHNK-1ST) O43529 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to position 3 of terminal glucuronic acid of both protein- and lipid-linked oligosaccharides. Participates in biosynthesis of HNK-1 carbohydrate structure, a sulfated glucuronyl-lactosaminyl residue carried by many neural recognition molecules, which is involved in cell interactions during ontogenetic development and in synaptic plasticity in the adult. May be indirectly involved in synapse plasticity of the hippocampus, via its role in HNK-1 biosynthesis.

Answer 339

Carbohydrate sulfotransferase 13 (EC 2.2.5) (Chondroitin 4-O-sulfotransferase 3) (Chondroitin 4-sulfotransferase 3) (C4ST-3) (C4ST3) Q8NET6 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to position 4 of the N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residue of chondroitin. Chondroitin sulfate constitutes the predominant proteoglycan present in cartilage and is distributed on the surfaces of many cells and extracellular matrices. Transfers sulfate to the C4 hydroxyl of beta1,4-linked GalNAc that is substituted with a beta-linked glucuronic acid at the C-3 hydroxyl. No activity toward dermatan. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus membrane .

Answer 340

Astrotactin-2 O75129 FUNCTION: Mediates recycling of the neuronal cell adhesion molecule ASTN1 to the anterior pole of the cell membrane in migrating neurons. Promotes ASTN1 internalization and intracellular transport of endocytosed ASTN1 (By similarity). Selectively binds inositol-4,5-bisphosphate, inositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate and inositol-1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate, suggesting it is recruited to membranes that contain lipids with a phosphoinositide headgroup (Ref.6).

Answer 341

Putative methyltransferase C9orf114 (EC 2.1.-) (Centromere protein 32) (CENP-32) (Kinetochore-associated protein) (SPOUT domain-containing methyltransferase 1) Q5T280 FUNCTION: Required for association of the centrosomes with the poles of the bipolar mitotic spindle during metaphase (, ). Also involved in chromosome alignment . May promote centrosome maturation probably by recruiting A-kinase anchor protein AKAP9 to centrosomes in early mitosis . Binds specifically to miRNA MIR145 hairpin, regulates MIR145 expression at a postranscriptional level .

Answer 342

Protein Aster-C (GRAM domain-containing protein 1C) Q8IYS0 FUNCTION: Cholesterol transporter that mediates non-vesicular transport of cholesterol from the plasma membrane (PM) to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (By similarity). Contains unique domains for binding cholesterol and the PM, thereby serving as a molecular bridge for the transfer of cholesterol from the PM to the ER (By similarity). Plays a crucial role in cholesterol homeostasis and has the unique ability to localize to the PM based on the level of membrane cholesterol (By similarity). In lipid-poor conditions localizes to the ER membrane and in response to excess cholesterol in the PM is recruited to the endoplasmic reticulum-plasma membrane contact sites (EPCS) which is mediated by the GRAM domain (By similarity). At the EPCS, the sterol-binding VASt/ASTER domain binds to the cholesterol in the PM and facilitates its transfer from the PM to ER (By similarity).

Answer 343

Uncharacterized protein C9orf47 Q6ZRZ4 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 344

Protein Aster-A (GRAM domain-containing protein 1A) Q96CP6 FUNCTION: Cholesterol transporter that mediates non-vesicular transport of cholesterol from the plasma membrane (PM) to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (By similarity). Contains unique domains for binding cholesterol and the PM, thereby serving as a molecular bridge for the transfer of cholesterol from the PM to the ER (By similarity). Plays a crucial role in cholesterol homeostasis and has the unique ability to localize to the PM based on the level of membrane cholesterol (By similarity). In lipid-poor conditions localizes to the ER membrane and in response to excess cholesterol in the PM is recruited to the endoplasmic reticulum-plasma membrane contact sites (EPCS) which is mediated by the GRAM domain (By similarity). At the EPCS, the sterol-binding VASt/ASTER domain binds to the cholesterol in the PM and facilitates its transfer from the PM to ER (By similarity). May play a role in tumor progression (By similarity). Plays a role in autophagy regulation and is required for biogenesis of the autophagosome . This function in autophagy requires its cholesterol-transfer activity .

Answer 345

BCL-6 corepressor-like protein 1 (BCoR-L1) (BCoR-like protein 1) Q5H9F3 FUNCTION: Transcriptional corepressor. May specifically inhibit gene expression when recruited to promoter regions by sequence-specific DNA-binding proteins such as BCL6. This repression may be mediated at least in part by histone deacetylase activities which can associate with this corepressor.

Answer 346

Complement factor H-related protein 2 (FHR-2) (DDESK59) (H factor-like 3) (H factor-like protein 2) P36980 FUNCTION: Involved in complement regulation. The dimerized forms have avidity for tissue-bound complement fragments and efficiently compete with the physiological complement inhibitor CFH. Can associate with lipoproteins and may play a role in lipid metabolism. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 347

Uncharacterized protein C9orf85 Q96MD7

Answer 348

Uncharacterized protein C9orf139 Q6ZV77

Answer 349

Complement factor H-related protein 5 (FHR-5) Q9BXR6 FUNCTION: Involved in complement regulation. The dimerized forms have avidity for tissue-bound complement fragments and efficiently compete with the physiological complement inhibitor CFH. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted.

Answer 350

Leucine-rich repeat transmembrane protein FLRT1 (Fibronectin-like domain-containing leucine-rich transmembrane protein 1) Q9NZU1 FUNCTION: Plays a role in fibroblast growth factor-mediated signaling cascades that lead to the activation of MAP kinases. Promotes neurite outgrowth via FGFR1-mediated activation of downstream MAP kinases. Promotes an increase both in neurite number and in neurite length. May play a role in cell-cell adhesion and cell guidance via its interaction with ADGRL1/LPHN1 and ADGRL3.

Answer 351

Probable cation-transporting ATPase 13A3 (EC 7.2.-) (ATPase family homolog up-regulated in senescence cells 1) Q9H7F0 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Membrane .

Answer 352

Probable cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly protein CIAO1 (WD repeat-containing protein 39) O76071 FUNCTION: Key component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the incorporation of iron-sulfur cluster into extramitochondrial Fe/S proteins (, ). As a CIA complex component, interacts specifically with CIAO2A or CIAO2B and MMS19 to assist different branches of iron-sulfur protein assembly, depending of its interactors. The complex CIAO1:CIAO2B:MMS19 binds to and facilitates the assembly of most cytosolic-nuclear Fe/S proteins. CIAO1:CIAO2A specifically matures ACO1 and stabilizes IREB2 . Seems to specifically modulate the transactivation activity of WT1 . As part of the mitotic spindle-associated MMXD complex it may play a role in chromosome segregation .

Answer 353

Ezrin (Cytovillin) (Villin-2) (p81) P15311 FUNCTION: Probably involved in connections of major cytoskeletal structures to the plasma membrane. In epithelial cells, required for the formation of microvilli and membrane ruffles on the apical pole. Along with PLEKHG6, required for normal macropinocytosis.

Answer 354

Cysteine and glycine-rich protein 1 (Cysteine-rich protein 1) (CRP) (CRP1) (Epididymis luminal protein 141) (HEL-141) P21291 FUNCTION: Could play a role in neuronal development. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 355

Calcium and integrin-binding protein 1 (CIB) (Calcium- and integrin-binding protein) (CIBP) (Calmyrin) (DNA-PKcs-interacting protein) (Kinase-interacting protein) (KIP) (SNK-interacting protein 2-28) (SIP2-28) Q99828 FUNCTION: Calcium-binding protein that plays a role in the regulation of numerous cellular processes, such as cell differentiation, cell division, cell proliferation, cell migration, thrombosis, angiogenesis, cardiac hypertrophy and apoptosis. Involved in bone marrow megakaryocyte differentiation by negatively regulating thrombopoietin-mediated signaling pathway. Participates in the endomitotic cell cycle of megakaryocyte, a form of mitosis in which both karyokinesis and cytokinesis are interrupted. Plays a role in integrin signaling by negatively regulating alpha-IIb/beta3 activation in thrombin-stimulated megakaryocytes preventing platelet aggregation. Up-regulates PTK2/FAK1 activity, and is also needed for the recruitment of PTK2/FAK1 to focal adhesions; it thus appears to play an important role in focal adhesion formation. Positively regulates cell migration on fibronectin in a CDC42-dependent manner, the effect being negatively regulated by PAK1. Functions as a negative regulator of stress activated MAP kinase (MAPK) signaling pathways. Down-regulates inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate receptor-dependent calcium signaling. Involved in sphingosine kinase SPHK1 translocation to the plasma membrane in a N-myristoylation-dependent manner preventing TNF-alpha-induced apoptosis. Regulates serine/threonine-protein kinase PLK3 activity for proper completion of cell division progression. Plays a role in microtubule (MT) dynamics during neuronal development; disrupts the MT depolymerization activity of STMN2 attenuating NGF-induced neurite outgrowth and the MT reorganization at the edge of lamellipodia. Promotes cardiomyocyte hypertrophy via activation of the calcineurin/NFAT signaling pathway. Stimulates calcineurin PPP3R1 activity by mediating its anchoring to the sarcolemma. In ischemia-induced (pathological or adaptive) angiogenesis, stimulates endothelial cell proliferation, migration and microvessel formation by activating the PAK1 and ERK1/ERK2 signaling pathway. Promotes also cancer cell survival and proliferation. May regulate cell cycle and differentiation of spermatogenic germ cells, and/or differentiation of supporting Sertoli cells.; FUNCTION: [Isoform 2]: Plays a regulatory role in angiogenesis and tumor growth by mediating PKD/PRKD2-induced vascular endothelial growth factor A (VEGFA) secretion.

Answer 356

Sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit alpha-1 (Na(+)/K(+) ATPase alpha-1 subunit) (EC 7.2.13) (Sodium pump subunit alpha-1) P05023 FUNCTION: This is the catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. This action creates the electrochemical gradient of sodium and potassium ions, providing the energy for active transport of various nutrients.

Answer 357

Far upstream element-binding protein 3 (FUSE-binding protein 3) Q96I24 FUNCTION: May interact with single-stranded DNA from the far-upstream element (FUSE). May activate gene expression. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 358

Cystatin-9-like (Testatin) Q9H4G1 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 359

Calcium and integrin-binding family member 4 A0PJX0

Answer 360

Protein FAM106C (FAM106C pseudogene) P0CH98

Answer 361

Glutaminase liver isoform, mitochondrial (GLS) (EC 3.1.2) (L-glutaminase) (L-glutamine amidohydrolase) Q9UI32 FUNCTION: Plays an important role in the regulation of glutamine catabolism. Promotes mitochondrial respiration and increases ATP generation in cells by catalyzing the synthesis of glutamate and alpha-ketoglutarate. Increases cellular anti-oxidant function via NADH and glutathione production. May play a role in preventing tumor proliferation.

Answer 362

Actin-associated protein FAM107A (Down-regulated in renal cell carcinoma 1) (Protein TU3A) O95990 FUNCTION: Stress-inducible actin-binding protein that plays a role in synaptic and cognitive functions by modulating actin filamentous (F-actin) dynamics. Mediates polymerization of globular actin to F-actin. Also binds to, stabilizes and bundles F-actin. Involved in synaptic function by regulating neurite outgrowth in an actin-dependent manner and for the acquisition of hippocampus-dependent cognitive function, such as learning and long-term memory (By similarity). Plays a role in the actin and microtubule cytoskeleton organization; negatively regulates focal adhesion (FA) assembly promoting malignant glial cell migration in an actin-, microtubule- and MAP1A-dependent manner . Also involved in neuroblastoma G1/S phase cell cycle progression and cell proliferation inhibition by stimulating ubiquitination of NF-kappa-B subunit RELA and NF-kappa-B degradation in a COMMD1- and actin-dependent manner (, ). May play a role in tumor development .

Answer 363

Protein capicua homolog Q96RK0 FUNCTION: Transcriptional repressor which plays a role in development of the central nervous system (CNS). In concert with ATXN1 and ATXN1L, involved in brain development.

Answer 364

Protein FAM107B Q9H098

Answer 365

Gamma-secretase subunit APH-1A (APH-1a) (Aph-1alpha) (Presenilin-stabilization factor) Q96BI3 FUNCTION: Non-catalytic subunit of the gamma-secretase complex, an endoprotease complex that catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of integral membrane proteins such as Notch receptors and APP (amyloid-beta precursor protein) (, , , , , , , ). Required for normal gamma-secretase assembly (, , , ). The gamma-secretase complex plays a role in Notch and Wnt signaling cascades and regulation of downstream processes via its role in processing key regulatory proteins, and by regulating cytosolic CTNNB1 levels (Probable).

Answer 366

Cap-specific mRNA (nucleoside-2'-O-)-methyltransferase 1 (EC 2.1.57) (Cap methyltransferase 1) (Cap1 2'O-ribose methyltransferase 1) (MTr1) (hMTr1) (FtsJ methyltransferase domain-containing protein 2) (Interferon-stimulated gene 95 kDa protein) (ISG95) Q8N1G2 FUNCTION: S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that mediates mRNA cap1 2'-O-ribose methylation to the 5'-cap structure of mRNAs. Methylates the ribose of the first nucleotide of a m(7)GpppG-capped mRNA and small nuclear RNA (snRNA) to produce m(7)GpppRm (cap1). Displays a preference for cap0 transcripts. Cap1 modification is linked to higher levels of translation. May be involved in the interferon response pathway.

Answer 367

Cleavage stimulation factor subunit 2 tau variant (CF-1 64 kDa subunit tau variant) (Cleavage stimulation factor 64 kDa subunit tau variant) (CSTF 64 kDa subunit tau variant) (TauCstF-64) Q9H0L4 FUNCTION: May play a significant role in AAUAAA-independent mRNA polyadenylation in germ cells. Directly involved in the binding to pre-mRNAs (By similarity).

Answer 368

Sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit beta-1 (Sodium/potassium-dependent ATPase subunit beta-1) P05026 FUNCTION: This is the non-catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of Na(+) and K(+) ions across the plasma membrane. The beta subunit regulates, through assembly of alpha/beta heterodimers, the number of sodium pumps transported to the plasma membrane.

Answer 369

Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 ligand (Flt3 ligand) (Flt3L) (SL cytokine) P49771 FUNCTION: Stimulates the proliferation of early hematopoietic cells by activating FLT3. Synergizes well with a number of other colony stimulating factors and interleukins. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 1]: Cell membrane; Single-pass type I membrane protein.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 2]: Secreted.

Answer 370

Fibrinogen alpha chain [Cleaved into: Fibrinopeptide A; Fibrinogen alpha chain] P02671 FUNCTION: Cleaved by the protease thrombin to yield monomers which, together with fibrinogen beta (FGB) and fibrinogen gamma (FGG), polymerize to form an insoluble fibrin matrix. Fibrin has a major function in hemostasis as one of the primary components of blood clots. In addition, functions during the early stages of wound repair to stabilize the lesion and guide cell migration during re-epithelialization. Was originally thought to be essential for platelet aggregation, based on in vitro studies using anticoagulated blood. However, subsequent studies have shown that it is not absolutely required for thrombus formation in vivo. Enhances expression of SELP in activated platelets via an ITGB3-dependent pathway. Maternal fibrinogen is essential for successful pregnancy. Fibrin deposition is also associated with infection, where it protects against IFNG-mediated hemorrhage. May also facilitate the immune response via both innate and T-cell mediated pathways.

Answer 371

Protein FRA10AC1 Q70Z53 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Nucleus .

Answer 372

Calsyntenin-2 (Alcadein-gamma) (Alc-gamma) Q9H4D0 FUNCTION: May modulate calcium-mediated postsynaptic signals.

Answer 373

Cardiomyopathy-associated protein 5 (Dystrobrevin-binding protein 2) (Genethonin-3) (Myospryn) (SPRY domain-containing protein 2) (Tripartite motif-containing protein 76) Q8N3K9 FUNCTION: May serve as an anchoring protein that mediates the subcellular compartmentation of protein kinase A (PKA) via binding to PRKAR2A (By similarity). May function as a repressor of calcineurin-mediated transcriptional activity. May attenuate calcineurin ability to induce slow-fiber gene program in muscle and may negatively modulate skeletal muscle regeneration (By similarity). Plays a role in the assembly of ryanodine receptor (RYR2) clusters in striated muscle (By similarity).

Answer 374

Protein FAM110A Q9BQ89 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cytoplasm . Note=Distributed throughout the cytoplasm during mitosis, accumulating at spindle poles.

Answer 375

Uncharacterized protein C14orf119 Q9NWQ9 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Mitochondrion .

Answer 376

Uncharacterized protein C14orf93 Q9H972 SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Secreted .

Answer 377

Sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase subunit beta-3 (Sodium/potassium-dependent ATPase subunit beta-3) (ATPB-3) (CD antigen CD298) P54709 FUNCTION: This is the non-catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of Na(+) and K(+) ions across the plasma membrane. The exact function of the beta-3 subunit is not known. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Cell membrane . Note=Identified by mass spectrometry in melanosome fractions from stage I to stage IV.

Answer 378

Cell death activator CIDE-B (Cell death-inducing DFFA-like effector B) Q9UHD4 FUNCTION: Activates apoptosis.

Answer 379

Apoptosis inhibitor 5 (API-5) (Antiapoptosis clone 11 protein) (AAC-11) (Cell migration-inducing gene 8 protein) (Fibroblast growth factor 2-interacting factor) (FIF) (Protein XAGL) Q9BZZ5 FUNCTION: Antiapoptotic factor that may have a role in protein assembly. Negatively regulates ACIN1. By binding to ACIN1, it suppresses ACIN1 cleavage from CASP3 and ACIN1-mediated DNA fragmentation. Also known to efficiently suppress E2F1-induced apoptosis. Its depletion enhances the cytotoxic action of the chemotherapeutic drugs. Note=Mainly nuclear. Can also be cytoplasmic.; SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: [Isoform 3]: Cytoplasm.

Answer 380

Putative uncharacterized protein encoded by LINC01599 Q8WXQ3

Answer 381

Cyclic nucleotide-binding domain-containing protein 1 Q8NA66

Answer 382

Protein Flattop (Cilia- and flagella-associated protein 126) Q5VTH2 FUNCTION: Acts as a regulator of cilium basal body docking and positioning in mono- and multiciliated cells. Regulates basal body docking and cilia formation in multiciliated lung cells. Regulates kinocilium positioning and stereocilia bundle morphogenesis in the inner ear.

Answer 383

Adapter protein CIKS (Connection to IKK and SAPK/JNK) (Nuclear factor NF-kappa-B activator 1) (ACT1) (TRAF3-interacting protein 2) O43734 FUNCTION: Could be involved in the activation of both NF-kappa-B via a NF-kappa-B inhibitor kinase (IKK)-dependent mechanism and stress-activated protein kinase (SAPK)/JNK.

Answer 384

Cyclic nucleotide-binding domain-containing protein 2 Q96M20 FUNCTION: Essential for male fertility. Plays an important role in spermatogenesis and regulates sperm motility by controlling the development of the flagellar bending of sperm.

Answer 385

Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase 15 (EC 2.1.41) (Polypeptide GalNAc transferase-like protein 2) (GalNAc-T-like protein 2) (pp-GaNTase-like protein 2) (Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase-like protein 2) (Protein-UDP acetylgalactosaminyltransferase-like protein 2) (UDP-GalNAc:polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase-like protein 2) Q8N3T1 FUNCTION: Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Although it displays a much weaker activity toward all substrates tested compared to GALNT2, it is able to transfer up to seven GalNAc residues to the Muc5AC peptide, suggesting that it can fill vicinal Thr/Ser residues in cooperation with other GALNT proteins. Prefers Muc1a as substrate. SUBCELLULAR LOCATION: Golgi apparatus membrane .

Answer 386

Cartilage intermediate layer protein 2 (CILP-2) [Cleaved into: Cartilage intermediate layer protein 2 C1; Cartilage intermediate layer protein 2 C2] Q8IUL8 FUNCTION: May play a role in cartilage scaffolding.

Answer 387

Protein FAM111B (Cancer-associated nucleoprotein) Q6SJ93

Answer 388

Uncharacterized protein C20orf96 Q9NUD7