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1
Q

Examples of nonspecific immunity include:
A. Mechanical barriers
B. Complement
C. Antibodies
D. a and b
E. a, b and c

A

d

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2
Q

the adaptive immune system is divided into 2 major systems:
___________ response and ____________ response

A

humoral, cell-mediated

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3
Q

What do antibodies recognize?

A

Antigens

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4
Q

What class of antibody is found in secretions?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgD

A

A

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5
Q

What class of antibody is given from mother to kids?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgD

A

D

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6
Q

What class of antibody has no known function?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgD

A

E

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7
Q

What class of antibody has a dimer shape?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgD

A

A

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8
Q

hat class of antibody is the first produced?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgD

A

B

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9
Q

What class of antibody protects against parasites?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgD

A

C

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10
Q

What class of antibody has the pentamer structure?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgD

A

B

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11
Q

What is the latent/lag period? How long does it last?

A

Period during which antibodies
are being made
Lasts for up to several days

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12
Q

What is the difference between a primary immune response and a secondary
immune response?

A

A 1º immune response is initiated when your body is exposed to foreign
antigens for the first time
A 2º immune response occurs when your body is re-exposed to the
same antigen
A 2º response lasts longer and produces more and more effective
antibodies than a primary response

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13
Q

What are the 7 types of vaccine administrations?

A
  1. Live-attenuated
  2. Killed
  3. Recombinant
  4. Adsorbed
  5. Conjugate
  6. Combined
  7. Combined active-passive
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14
Q

What is an adjuvant?
A. Found in recombinant vaccines
B. Found in combined vaccines
C. Slows adsorption by the tissues
D. Enhances the body’s immune responses

A

D

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15
Q

What are the 4 disorders of immunity?

A
  1. Allergy and hypersensitivity
  2. Auto-immune diseases
  3. Immunodeficiency states
  4. Graft rejection
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16
Q

What are the 3 major methods of antibiotic resistance?

A
  1. Alteration in drug target
  2. Production of inactivating enzymes
  3. Decreased uptake of antibiotics
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17
Q

What are the 3 inoculation methods?

A
  1. Streak
  2. Smear
  3. Pour
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18
Q

What is the correct order of steps for a gram stain
a. Iodine, alcohol, safranin, crystal violet
B. Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin
C. Crystal violet, alcohol, iodine, safranin
D. Iodine, safranin, alcohol, crystal violet

A

b

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19
Q

What microorganisms grows best between 25-40ºC?
A. Psychrophiles
B. Mesophiles
C. Facultative
D. Thermophiles

A

b

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20
Q

What microorganisms require oxygen?
A. Microaerophiles
B. Facultative
C. Obligate aerobes
D. Obligate anaerobes
E. Aerotolerant

A

c

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21
Q

Which type of bacteria make exotoxins?
A. Gram pos
B. Gram neg
C. Enterica
D. Mycobacteria

A

a

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22
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae is found where?
A. Throat
B. Skin
C. Vagina
D. Stomach

A

c

23
Q

What causes scarlet fever?
A. S. aureus
B. S. pyogenes
C. S. penumoniae
D. S. agalactiae

A

b

24
Q

What causes necrotizing fasciitis?
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

d

25
Q

What causes bilateral cranial nerve paralysis?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium botulinum

A

d

26
Q

What is part of the normal flora in birds and domestic animals?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Shigella dysenteriae
C. Salmonellae enterica
D. Campylobacter

A

d

27
Q

What causes violent (whooping) cough?
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Pseudomonas cepacia

A

a

28
Q

During what stages of syphilis are chancres visible?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Latent
D. Late

A

a

29
Q

What causes atypical pneumonia?
A. Aspergillus flavus
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

D

30
Q

Which of the following statements concerning viruses is true?
A. Viruses can grow in cell culture or in enriched media
B. Viral genomes are often composed of a combination of DNA and RNA
C. Viruses do not divide
D. Viruses are typically about 10µm – 300µm in size

A

c

31
Q

Which of the following viruses is NOT classified as a respiratory virus?
A. Influenza virus
B. Poliovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Rhinovirus
E. All of the above are respiratory virus

A

b

32
Q

which of the following is the main cause of the common cold?
A. Parainfluenza virus
B. Reparatory syncytial virus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Coronavirus

A

c

33
Q

hemagglutination refers to:
A. The ability of some red blood cells to bind to viral particles, increasing the likelihood of
phagocytosis through opsonisation.
B. The clumping of red blood cells together, caused by some viruses expressing
hemagglutinin.
C. The phenomenon by which viral particles reside in red blood cells in a latent state.
D. None of the above.

A

b

34
Q

Which of the following statements concerning norovirus is false?
A. It is a disease seen predominantly in infants and young children.
B. No vaccine is available against norovirus.
C. It is transmitted through the fecal-oral route or food-borne outbreaks.
D. A and C.
E. All of the above.

A

a

35
Q

What cells are infected by HIV?
a. Neutrophils
b. CD8+ cells
c. Enterocytes
d. CD4+ cells

A

d

36
Q

Hepatitis Delta Agent can only cause infection if _________ is also present.
a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep A and B

A

b

37
Q

Humans are the dead-end hosts for arbovirus and _________ virus.
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Mumps
c. Yellow Fever
d. Rabies

A

d

38
Q

An object that is free of all life forms is said to be:
a. Clean
b. Disinfected
c. Sterile
d. Aseptic

A

c

39
Q

Which of the following doesn’t typically hurt pregnant women?
a. Listeria
b. Rubella
c. Hep E
d. C. difficile

A

a

40
Q

Which of the following is not transmitted by an animal vector?
a. Yellow Fever
b. Hepatitis B
c. Arbovirus
d. Rabies virus

A

b

41
Q

Parainfluenza commonly affects:
a. Children under 5 years
b. Children under 2 years
c. People over 18 years
d. Newborns

A

a

42
Q

HSV-2 causes:
a. Cold sores
b. Genital warts
c. Rash behind ears
d. Shingles

A

b

43
Q

The Salk vaccine is:
a. Live attenuated
b. Adsorbed
c. Killed/inactive
d. Weakened

A

c

44
Q

What is the third step of the viral life cycle?
a. Release
b. Adsorption
c. Nucleic acid and protein synthesis
d. Penetration and encoding

A

c

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about CMV?
a. Infection is often asymptomatic
b. Problematic for pregnant women
c. Problematic for the immunocompromised
d. Member of the coronavirus family

A

d

46
Q

What is the major difference lytic and lysogenic pathways?
a. No difference
b. Lytic pathway lyses the cell; lysogenic replicates it
c. Lytic pathway replicates the cell; lysogenic lyses it
d. Both pathways replicate the cell

A

b

47
Q

T or F – enteroviruses typically cause gastroenteritis

A

F

48
Q

T or F – rotavirus most commonly affects the elderly

A

F

49
Q

T or F – rubella is a serious disease in adults, but causes no complications related to
pregnancy

A

F

50
Q

T or F – humans are the only reservoir for viruses causing rashes

A

T

51
Q

T or F – vaccination is possible to prevent hepatitis A, B, and C

A

F

52
Q

T or F – arboviruses are a class of viruses with animal hosts that can be transmitted
to humans through an insect bite

A

T

53
Q

T or F –HSV2 is associated with cold sores and transmitted through oral or
respiratory secretions

A

F

54
Q

T or F – humans are the dead-end hosts for arbovirus and rabies virus

A

T

HSS1100 Microbiology and Immunology (13 decks)

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